Safety 4



These pages contains all possible questions which might be thrown at you in the "Safety" module exam.  When you go in for your exam, your test questions will be selected from the list below.



6003: The minimum number of portable C-II fire extinguishers required on the drill floor of a MODU is __________.

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
6004: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0189

    a. Available GM 4.1 ft
    b. Available GM 4.3 ft
    c. Available GM 4.7 ft
    d. Available GM 5.1 ft
6007: On offshore drilling units, each hand-held portable fire extinguisher, semi-portable fire extinguisher, and fixed fire extinguisher must be tested and inspected at least once every __________.

    a. 12 months
    b. 24 months
    c. 36 months
    d. 48 months
6011: On a MODU, hand portable extinguishers are size(s) __________.

    a. II only
    b. II and III
    c. I and II
    d. I only
6013: On a MODU, size III, IV, and V extinguishers are considered __________.

    a. hand portable
    b. all purpose
    c. fixed extinguishers
    d. semi-portable
6015: On a MODU, size I and II extinguishers are considered __________.

    a. fixed systems
    b. steam generated
    c. hand portable
    d. semi-portable
6021: Semi-portable extinguishers used on MODU's are sizes __________.

    a. II, III, and IV
    b. I, II, and III
    c. III, IV, and V
    d. IV and V
6022: You are in a tank wearing a breathing apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Take up slack"?

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
6023: On a MODU, an extinguisher with 15 lbs. of CO2 or 10 lbs. of dry chemical is a size __________.

    a. I
    b. II
    c. III
    d. IV
6027: On a MODU, firefighting equipment must be inspected once every __________.

    a. three months
    b. six months
    c. twelve months
    d. eighteen months
6031: On a MODU, a fire drill shall be conducted once every __________.

    a. week
    b. month
    c. crew change
    d. other week
6033: During a fire drill on a MODU, what action is required?

    a. Start each fire pump
    b. Launch and run a lifeboat
    c. Inventory rescue and fire equipment
    d. Inspect fire hoses
6035: On a MODU, watertight doors should be operated __________.

    a. during abandon drill
    b. during fire drill
    c. weekly
    d. when the rig is being moved
6037: When testing fire hoses on offshore drilling units, each hose must be subjected to a test pressure of at least __________.

    a. 100 psi
    b. 110 psi
    c. 120 psi
    d. 150 psi
6041: On offshore drilling units, the fire main system must have enough fire hydrants so that each accessible space may be sprayed with at least __________.

    a. one spray pattern
    b. two spray patterns
    c. three spray patterns
    d. four spray patterns
6042: Canvas sails, when not in use, may be damaged if __________.

    a. left in the sunlight
    b. stowed wet
    c. folded frequently
    d. washed with soap and water
6047: On offshore drilling units, each fire station is required to be fitted with a hose which has a nominal length of __________.

    a. 25 feet
    b. 50 feet
    c. 75 feet
    d. 100 feet
6049: While proceeding to a distress site, you hear the words "Seelonce mayday" on the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?

    a. Resume base course and speed as your assistance is no longer required.
    b. Acknowledge receipt and advise your course, speed, and ETA.
    c. Relay the original distress message as no other vessel has acknowledged it.
    d. Monitor the radiotelephone but do not transmit.
6051: The connection facilities for the international shore connection required on board offshore drilling units in international service must be located to provide access __________.

    a. to each side of the drilling unit
    b. as close as possible to the control house
    c. on the drill floor
    d. on each level of the accommodation space
6055: How often are fire hoses required to be tested on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

    a. Once a week
    b. Once a month
    c. Once a year
    d. During each drill
6061: The international shore connection required on a MODU is designed to __________.

    a. permit discharge of waste oil
    b. allow hook up of fire fighting water from a dock or another vessel
    c. satisfy pollution prevention requirements
    d. allow emergency use of the fire main for deballasting
6065: A fire pump on a MODU requires 175 psi discharge pressure to maintain the required 50 psi pitot tube pressure at the two highest hydrants. The maximum setting for the relief valve is __________.

    a. 125 psi
    b. 175 psi
    c. 200 psi
    d. 225 psi
6067: On offshore drilling units fitted with fixed CO2 systems, the system must discharge at least 85 percent of the required amount of CO2 within __________.

    a. 1 minute
    b. 2 minutes
    c. 3 minutes
    d. 4 minutes
6071: On offshore drilling units fitted with fixed CO2 systems, the system must withstand a bursting pressure of at least __________.

    a. 5,000 pounds per square inch
    b. 6,000 pounds per square inch
    c. 8,000 pounds per square inch
    d. 10,000 pounds per square inch
6073: Before releasing the CO2 into the space, the alarm for a fixed CO2 system must sound for at least __________.

    a. 20 seconds
    b. 30 seconds
    c. 40 seconds
    d. 60 seconds
6074: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0190

    a. Available GM 4.1 ft
    b. Available GM 4.3 ft
    c. Available GM 4.7 ft
    d. Available GM 5.1 ft
6075: On offshore drilling units fitted with CO2 systems, each space that contains a cylinder must be vented and designed to keep temperature in the space at not more than __________.

    a. 130°F
    b. 150°F
    c. 180°F
    d. 200°F
6076: You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate that you are all right?

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
6077: Operation of the valve control release on a fixed CO2 system must immediately __________.

    a. release CO2 to the protected space
    b. secure all mechanical ventilation in the protected space
    c. sound the rig's general alarm signal for a fire
    d. sound an alarm in the ballast control room
6083: A fixed CO2 system on a MODU with a capacity of over 300 lbs (136 kilograms) CO2 which protects spaces other than tanks must have __________.

    a. two or more releasing stations
    b. automatic release in event of a fire
    c. an audible alarm and time delay
    d. an audible and visible alarm
6084: Your drafts are: FWD 20'-08", AFT 23'-03". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1.

    a. 1050 foot-tons
    b. 1065 foot-tons
    c. 1090 foot-tons
    d. 1130 foot-tons
6085: On a MODU, a fixed carbon dioxide or other approved system must be installed __________.

    a. where oil or chemical drums are stored
    b. in all battery storage locations
    c. in paint lockers
    d. in all of the above locations
6087: Portable Halon extinguishers used on MODU's may use __________.

    a. HALON 1301 only
    b. HALON 22 only
    c. HALON 1211 only
    d. HALON 1301 or 1211
6088: What is the meaning of the signal DX RQ when sent by the International Code of Signals?

    a. Are you sinking?
    b. The call sign of a vessel registered in the Philippines.
    c. The damage can be repaired at sea.
    d. There are no tugs available.
6091: Due to the hazards involved with Halon extinguishers on a MODU, the size II extinguisher may only be used __________.

    a. outside
    b. on class C fires
    c. in an emergency
    d. on class B fires
6093: On offshore drilling units where foam systems are installed on the heliport, the system must be able to discharge continuously for at least __________.

    a. 5 minutes
    b. 6 minutes
    c. 8 minutes
    d. 10 minutes
6095: Where foam extinguishing systems are provided on a MODU, each machinery flat in the protected space must have a(n) __________.

    a. coaming
    b. alarm
    c. drain
    d. fire sensor
6101: What must be provided on a MODU helicopter deck that is equipped with fueling facilities?

    a. Fuel testing station
    b. Foam testing station
    c. Foam fire protection system
    d. Fire alarm
6102: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 5480 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 274.46 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0191

    a. LCG-FP 271.79 feet
    b. LCG-FP 272.87 feet
    c. LCG-FP 274.04 feet
    d. LCG-FP 275.13 feet
6105: The primary danger in helicopter fires on a MODU is __________.

    a. burning jet fuel running on to quarters or other areas
    b. loss of the mooring system
    c. rotating and flying debris
    d. heat damage to helicopter structure
6106: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0192

    a. Available GM 4.3 ft
    b. Available GM 4.7 ft
    c. Available GM 5.1 ft
    d. Available GM 5.5 ft
6107: The preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire on a MODU is __________.

    a. CO2
    b. dry chemical
    c. water
    d. foam
6115: If a mobile offshore drilling rig has four hand portable fire extinguishers that can be recharged by personnel on the unit, how many spare charges must be carried?

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
6121: The inspection of portable extinguishers on a MODU must be __________.

    a. accomplished by an authorized servicing representative
    b. recorded by the person in charge
    c. completed every six months
    d. All of the above
6123: On offshore drilling units, the minimum required number of fireman's outfits which must be carried is __________.

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
6124: On a vessel of 7000 tons displacement, a tank 35 ft. long, 30 ft. wide and 4 ft. deep is half filled with fuel oil (S.G. 0.962) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?

    a. 2,109
    b. 25,974
    c. 31,328
    d. 909,090
6125: What is the minimum required number of fire axes that must be carried on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

    a. 2
    b. 3
    c. 4
    d. 5
6127: On offshore drilling units, the minimum number of persons required to be trained in the use of fireman's outfits is __________.

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
6131: How many fireman's outfits are required on a MODU?

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
6133: What equipment is included in the fireman's outfit?

    a. Chemical protection face shield
    b. Approved work vest
    c. Self contained breathing apparatus
    d. Marlinspike
6157: Smoking in bed on a MODU is prohibited __________.

    a. at all times
    b. during evening hours
    c. unless another person is present
    d. during drilling operations
6175: It is the responsibility of the Master or person in charge of a MODU to ensure that __________.

    a. the Muster List ("Station Bill") is posted in each compartment
    b. temporary personnel and visitors are advised of emergency stations
    c. names of crew members are listed on the Muster List ("Station Bill")
    d. no changes are made to the Muster List ("Station Bill")
6177: Fires on a MODU must be reported to the Coast Guard if there is death, injury resulting in more than 72 hours incapacitation, or property damage in excess of __________.

    a. $ 5,000
    b. $10,000
    c. $25,000
    d. $50,000
6187: A fire in a ballast pumproom can be brought under control with minimal impact on stability by __________.

    a. cooling the outside bulkheads with water
    b. shutting all sources of air into the compartment
    c. closing the sea chest
    d. flooding the compartment with salt water
6191: Fighting a rig fire in a watertight compartment with hoses could reduce the stability of the rig by __________.

    a. progressive downflooding
    b. reducing the level of drill water from the storage tanks
    c. causing a list due to the water in the compartment
    d. reducing the KG to minimum allowable
6193: What is best suited for fighting a fire in a ballast control room?

    a. Automatic sprinkler system
    b. Steam smothering system
    c. Dry chemical system
    d. Carbon dioxide system
6195: Each person on the rig has a designated area to proceed to in the event of a fire. This assignment is shown clearly on the rig's __________.

    a. fire fighting plan
    b. shipping articles
    c. Certificate of Inspection
    d. Muster List ("Station Bill")
6196: You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a compartment using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate the man should advance?

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
6197: Fighting a rig fire in the ballast pumproom with hoses would adversely affect the stability of the rig most by __________.

    a. increasing the permeability of the pumproom
    b. reduction of drill water from the storage tanks
    c. a list caused by water filling the compartment
    d. a reduced KG caused by water filling the compartment
6201: The two courses of action if the underwater hull of a MODU is severely damaged are to plug the openings and to __________.

    a. dewater the compartment
    b. establish and maintain flooding boundaries
    c. secure power to the compartment
    d. counter flood to maintain even keel
6213: When patching holes in the hull of a MODU, pillows, bedding, and other soft materials can be used as __________.

    a. caulking
    b. gaskets
    c. strongbacks
    d. wedges
6225: The procedure of strengthening damaged structures on a MODU by using wood or steel is called __________.

    a. bracing
    b. battening
    c. blocking
    d. shoring
6233: When shoring a damaged bulkhead on a MODU, effort should be taken to spread the pressure over the __________.

    a. maximum possible area
    b. minimum possible area
    c. nearest watertight door
    d. nearest longitudinal girder
6241: The objective of shoring the damaged area of a MODU is to __________.

    a. force the warped, bulged, or deformed sections back into place
    b. support and hold the area in the damaged position
    c. withstand subsequent additional damage
    d. make a watertight seal at the damaged area
6241: The objective of shoring the damaged area of a MODU is to __________.

    a. force the warped, bulged, or deformed sections back into place
    b. support and hold the area in the damaged position
    c. withstand subsequent additional damage
    d. make a watertight seal at the damaged area
6245: On board a mobile offshore drilling unit, the key to the most rapid and effective response to a man overboard situation is __________.

    a. well-conducted drills
    b. a dedicated crew
    c. good equipment
    d. good communication
6246: The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE?

    a. A fusible link will automatically open after a fire is extinguished and reset the damper.
    b. Fusible links must be replaced at every inspection for certification.
    c. Fusible links must be replaced if a damper is activated.
    d. Fusible links are tested by applying a source of heat to them.
6247: Repair of structures on a MODU in the vicinity of liquid mud handling areas presents what possible hazard?

    a. Toxic gasses may be present.
    b. Flammable gasses may be present.
    c. Liquid muds may flood adjoining spaces.
    d. An oxygen-deficient atmosphere may be present.
6248: Your drafts are: FWD 26'-03", AFT 30'-08". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the location of the center of flotation relative to amidships.

    a. 2.8 feet aft
    b. 2.3 feet aft
    c. 1.9 feet aft
    d. 1.5 feet aft
6249: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of __________.

    a. heat or smoke detectors
    b. C02 system pressure switches
    c. remotely operated valves
    d. fusible links
6251: Explosive and flammable gasses are most likely to be encountered on a MODU __________.

    a. at any location
    b. on the drill floor and liquid mud handling areas
    c. in bulk storage tanks
    d. in machinery spaces
6253: The Coast Guard requires machinery spaces and enclosed mud handling spaces to have __________.

    a. remote ventilation shutdowns
    b. remote pump shutdowns
    c. alternative control stations
    d. smoke and/or fire detection system
6255: Control of fire on a MODU should be addressed __________.

    a. immediately after restoring vital services
    b. immediately
    c. following control of flooding
    d. following establishment of fire boundaries
6257: If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning a MODU, they should __________.

    a. tie themselves to the unit so they won't drift with the current
    b. form a small circular group to create a warmer pocket of water in the center of the circle
    c. send the strongest swimmer to shore for assistance
    d. form a raft by lashing their life preservers together
6261: When should the emergency position-indicating radio beacon be activated after abandoning a MODU?

    a. Immediately
    b. After one hour
    c. Only when another vessel is in sight
    d. Only after sunset
6265: During severe storms when survival becomes a major concern, it may become necessary to relieve high anchor tensions on the windward side of the unit by __________.

    a. deballasting the rig
    b. ballasting the rig
    c. paying out cable on the windward side
    d. paying out cable on the leeward side
6271: During storm conditions on a MODU, the mooring tensions should be adjusted so that __________.

    a. all mooring lines have a different tension
    b. the leeward lines have higher tension than the windward lines
    c. the maximum tension of the most heavily loaded line does not exceed the safe working load
    d. all horizontal tension forces on the windward lines are no greater than the vertical tension forces
6273: During a storm, the chance of fatigue failure of a mooring line will increase as __________.

    a. vessel motions increase
    b. mooring tensions decrease
    c. KG increases
    d. KG decreases
6274: You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.

    a. at the main body of the fire
    b. to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire
    c. over the top of the fire
    d. at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge
6275: During a storm, the mooring line on a MODU should be long enough so that the angle between the anchor shank and the ocean floor is __________.

    a. 0°
    b. 30°
    c. 60°
    d. 90°
6276: Your drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 18'-03". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the location of the center of flotation relative to amidships.

    a. 5.6 feet forward
    b. 5.1 feet forward
    c. at the center of flotation
    d. 0.8 foot aft
6277: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 22'-03", AFT 26'-05". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 77 tons of seawater.

    a. FWD 22'-08.7", AFT 26'-02.2"
    b. FWD 22'-09.3", AFT 26'-01.6"
    c. FWD 22'-09.9", AFT 26'-01.0"
    d. FWD 22'-10.5", AFT 26'-00.4"
6291: When dragging of an anchor occurs, you must either reposition it at greater range or __________.

    a. adjust the tensiometer
    b. reduce the conductor tension
    c. use a piggyback (backing) anchor
    d. increase the riser tension
6303: The most doubtful and unpredictable factor in a mooring system is the __________.

    a. ability of the anchors to hold in a seabed
    b. anchor chain catenary length
    c. variability of the fairlead
    d. angle of the flukes
6305: When dragging of an anchor occurs, you must back it up with a piggyback (backing) anchor or __________.

    a. reduce the riser tension
    b. reposition it at a greater range
    c. change the winch
    d. change the anchor heading
6306: An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel. What occurs automatically after the painter trips the CO2 bottles to inflate the raft?

    a. The sea anchor deploys.
    b. The floor inflates.
    c. If upside down, the craft rights itself.
    d. The painter detaches from the raft.
6307: Using high working tensions in the mooring system reduces the __________.

    a. hook load at drilling depths over 10,000 feet
    b. possibility of dragging anchors
    c. allowable deck load at operating draft
    d. margin between working tension and breaking strength
6308: You are underway at sea when a fire is reported in the forward part of the vessel. The wind is from dead ahead at 20 knots. You should __________.

    a. remain on course and hold speed
    b. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed
    c. remain on course but decrease speed
    d. change course and put the stern to the wind
6313: The holding power of an anchor increases when the __________.

    a. amount of chain lying along the bottom increases
    b. length of the catenary is reduced
    c. mooring line tension is increased
    d. amount of chain lying along the bottom decreases
6387: The vertical height and density of the drilling fluid are used to determine the __________.

    a. casing size
    b. hydrostatic pressure of the drilling fluid
    c. presence of hydrogen sulfide gasses
    d. diameter of the well
6393: Lost circulation can cause a kick or blowout by __________.

    a. creating a flow channel outside the casing and back to the surface
    b. lowering the density of the drilling fluid
    c. reducing the mud level in the well
    d. contaminating the drilling fluid
6393: Lost circulation can cause a kick or blowout by __________.

    a. creating a flow channel outside the casing and back to the surface
    b. lowering the density of the drilling fluid
    c. reducing the mud level in the well
    d. contaminating the drilling fluid
6395: The term "lost circulation" refers to situations when drilling fluid is lost by __________.

    a. overflowing the drill nipple
    b. making drill string connections
    c. flowing into drilled formations
    d. an overflow in the mud pits
6397: A well kick while drilling from a MODU will cause __________.

    a. increased fluid level in the mud pits
    b. decreased fluid level in the mud pits
    c. increased cuttings on the shale shaker
    d. decreased cuttings on the shale shaker
6401: Why must the drilled hole be filled with drilling mud when tripping the drill string out of the hole?

    a. To maintain circulation to the mud pits
    b. To compensate for MODU heave
    c. To keep the mud agitated
    d. To prevent reduction of fluid head on the formations
6402: Small passenger vessels in cold water ocean routes, that do not meet the standards for collision bulkheads or subdivision in subchapter S, must carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. 100% inflatable buoyant apparatus
    b. at least one hand fire pump
    c. at least two EPIRBs
    d. All of the above.
6413: While drilling ahead with 60 foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER encounters lost circulation and loses 900 bbls. of 16 pounds per gallon mud to the hole. How much ballast must be taken on to maintain 60 foot draft?

    a. 220 long tons
    b. 270 long tons
    c. 330 long tons
    d. 440 long tons
6415: While drilling ahead with 60 foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER encounters lost circulation and loses 460 barrels of 16 pounds per gallon mud to the hole. What is the resulting draft if no additional ballast is taken on?

    a. 57 feet
    b. 58 feet
    c. 59 feet
    d. 60 feet
6421: While drilling at 4,000 feet with casing set to 2,000 feet, the well kicks with mud weight in the hole. Mud pumps are shut down and the blowout preventer is closed. Compared to the drilling situation, the pressure on the casing seat will be __________.

    a. unchanged
    b. increased
    c. reduced
    d. indeterminable
6423: The most accurate method for measuring drilling mud required to fill the hole when drill stem is removed is by use of a __________.

    a. pit level change
    b. pump stroke count
    c. trip tank
    d. mud return flow indicator
6425: The test for determining the formation fracture pressure after drilling out a seat is called a __________.

    a. casing test
    b. leak off test
    c. drill stem test
    d. well test
6426: Your drafts are: FWD 21'-03", AFT 26'-00". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the location of the center of flotation relative to amidships.

    a. 2.8 feet forward
    b. 2.1 feet forward
    c. 1.6 feet forward
    d. 1.9 feet aft
6445: What is the function of wearing rings found on some centrifugal pumps?

    a. Absorb erosion of high velocity discharge stream
    b. Seal pump shaft against entry of air
    c. Isolate the outlet side from the inlet side
    d. Dampen the turbulent discharge flow
6455: Most drill ships and barges have a walled opening below the derrick, open to the water's surface and through which various drilling tools can pass down to the sea floor called a __________.

    a. moon pool
    b. spider deck opening
    c. pontoon
    d. keyway
6467: The series of valves used to control the return flow in well control operations is called the __________.

    a. valve assembly
    b. standpipe manifold
    c. accumulator manifold
    d. choke manifold
6473: On an offshore drilling rig, the pumps which circulate drilling fluid through the drill string while drilling are called the __________.

    a. circulation pumps
    b. mud pumps
    c. centrifugal pumps
    d. mixing pumps
6475: The pneumatic containers which store bulk dry mud additives and cement on a MODU are called __________.

    a. mud hoppers
    b. bulk bins
    c. P-tanks
    d. mud tanks
6481: In MODU operations, hoisting and lowering pipe in and out of the drilled hole is the main function of the __________.

    a. swivel
    b. cathead spool
    c. drawworks
    d. stand pipe
6483: In a conventional drilling system, imparting rotation to the drill string is a function of the __________.

    a. rotary table
    b. swivel
    c. motion compensator
    d. diverter
6485: The main function of the drawworks on a MODU is to __________.

    a. transport tubulars from the pipe racks to the derrick floor
    b. maintain constant tension on the marine riser
    c. store and secure the excess drill line
    d. lower and hoist the drill string into and out of the drilled hole
6487: For most MODU engines, the fuel is __________.

    a. natural gas
    b. diesel oil
    c. propane
    d. bunker fuel
6491: How wide must the safety net be that is required on the unprotected perimeter of the helicopter landing deck on a MODU?

    a. 1.0 meter
    b. 1.5 meters
    c. 2.0 meters
    d. 2.5 meters
6492: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 16'-10", AFT 19'-04". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 73 tons of seawater.

    a. FWD 17'-05.8", AFT 18'-10.9"
    b. FWD 17'-06.2", AFT 18'-10.4"
    c. FWD 17'-06.8", AFT 18'-09.8"
    d. FWD 17'-07.4", AFT 18'-09.2"
6493: A helicopter making a round trip from a helodeck with refueling capabilities to an unmanned platform will take 45 minutes each way. The helicopter should be carrying enough fuel to last __________.

    a. 45 minutes
    b. 1 hour and 15 minutes
    c. 1 hour and 30 minutes
    d. 2 hours
6495: A small fuel spillage has occurred during helicopter refueling. After the leak has been stopped and fire-control personnel have been notified and are standing by, the next step is to __________.

    a. proceed with fueling operation
    b. have helicopter move to a safer location
    c. wash spilled fuel away with a flood of water
    d. clean spilled fuel with rags
6496: In a water-tube marine type boiler, after the steam leaves the generating tubes, in what part of the boiler is temperature of the steam increased?

    a. Mud drum
    b. Superheater
    c. Economizer
    d. Firebox
6497: The only type of helicopter that may be refueled with the engine running and the blades turning is __________.

    a. a helicopter carrying cargo only
    b. a turbine-equipped helicopter
    c. a Sikorsky
    d. a helicopter carrying injured personnel in an emergency situation
6501: At a refueling area or fuel facility, smoking or any flame or spark is prohibited __________.

    a. within 50 feet
    b. anywhere on the helodeck
    c. during refueling operations
    d. within 100 feet
6503: If, during helicopter refueling operations, fuel is spilled on clothing, the person should first __________.

    a. see the medic immediately
    b. spray himself with foam or CO2
    c. complete his task and then see the medic
    d. remove the clothing and wash
6505: A MODU helicopter landing deck on which fueling operations are conducted must have a fire protection system that is capable of discharging at 100 psi pressure a foam spray of at least __________.

    a. 30 gallons per minute
    b. 40 gallons per minute
    c. 50 gallons per minute
    d. 60 gallons per minute
6507: Especially in adverse weather, risk of collision with an offshore supply vessel increases when the vessel is moored to what side of the unit?

    a. Upwind
    b. Downwind
    c. Crosswind
    d. Downcurrent
6513: Consideration should be given in planning for the mooring orientation in a new location so that in adverse weather a crane is available to off-load the supply vessel on what side of the unit?

    a. Weather side
    b. Leeward side
    c. Upwind side
    d. Crosswind side
6515: While off-loading from an offshore supply vessel with the crane, the wind increases in strength and changes direction significantly, you should __________.

    a. expedite off-loading
    b. stop off-loading, but keep the offshore supply vessel in the present location
    c. continue off-loading with no changes
    d. move the offshore supply vessel to the downwind side
6517: Prior to backloading portable tanks or drums onto an offshore supply vessel, check that each tank is __________.

    a. painted yellow with diagonal black striping
    b. capped and checked for leaks
    c. coated with non-corrosive protection
    d. mounted on pallets
6521: When cargo aboard a jack-up in transit becomes adrift, the tow vessel should be asked to __________.

    a. turn into the seas
    b. turn to be parallel to the seas
    c. reduce speed
    d. increase speed
6523: On the cargo manifest, the total weight of a box containing cargo is the __________.

    a. tare weight
    b. net weight
    c. gross weight
    d. cargo weight
6525: On the cargo manifest, the total weight of an empty cargo box is the __________.

    a. tare weight
    b. net weight
    c. gross weight
    d. cargo weight
6527: On the cargo manifest, the gross weight of a box containing cargo is the weight of the __________.

    a. cargo
    b. box
    c. cargo and box
    d. rate weight
6531: On the cargo manifest, the weight of the cargo inside a box is called the __________.

    a. gross weight
    b. net weight
    c. light weight
    d. rate weight
6533: When loading or discharging dry mud or cement, crew members should use facial respirator masks and __________.

    a. goggles
    b. ear plugs
    c. soft-soled boots
    d. fireman's outfit
6537: When pumping fuel between an offshore supply vessel (OSV) and a MODU, there must be direct VHF radio contact between the offshore supply vessel engineer and the __________.

    a. person in charge of the fuel transfer
    b. crane operator
    c. ballast control operator
    d. barge superintendent
6543: Corrosive liquids and acids should have what kind of label?

    a. Skull and crossbones
    b. Yellow
    c. Red
    d. White
6545: Flammable liquids should have what kind of label?

    a. Skull and crossbones
    b. Yellow
    c. Red
    d. White
6547: Nonflammable gases should have what kind of label?

    a. Skull and crossbones
    b. White
    c. Green
    d. Red
6551: When referring to quantity of barite in a P-tank, ullage is the __________.

    a. distance of the barite surface above the tank bottom
    b. percentage of barite in the tank
    c. distance of the barite surface below the tank cover
    d. total weight of barite in UPC (ullages per centimeter)
6553: While taking on fuel oil from an offshore supply vessel, the transfer hose leaks, causing a sheen in the water. You should __________.

    a. continue transfer operations
    b. repair the leak with duct tape
    c. reduce the rate of transfer
    d. immediately shut down operations
6555: The chemicals in sacks aboard MODU's are palletized to reduce __________.

    a. labor in loading and handling
    b. pilferage
    c. marking and labeling
    d. contamination
6563: When loading or discharging dry mud or cement, crew members should use goggles and __________.

    a. facial respirator mask
    b. ear plugs
    c. rubberized boots
    d. fireman's outfit
6567: On offshore drilling units, the number of industrial personnel permitted to be on board during drilling operations is found on the __________.

    a. Classification Certificate
    b. Safety of Life at Sea Certificate
    c. U.S. Coast Guard Certificate of Inspection
    d. Owner's Operation Manual
6571: To determine the number of portable fire extinguishers required on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the __________.

    a. hot work permit
    b. Certificate of Inspection
    c. Safety of Life at Sea Certificate
    d. Operations Manual
6573: To determine the number of industrial personnel allowed on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the __________.

    a. Muster List ("Station Bill")
    b. Safety of Life at Sea Certificate
    c. Certificate of Inspection
    d. Operations Manual
6575: To determine the number of inflatable liferafts required on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the __________.

    a. load line certificate
    b. Operations Manual
    c. stability letter
    d. Certificate of Inspection
6577: According to the regulations for mobile offshore drilling units, "industrial personnel" are considered to be all persons carried on the MODU for the sole purpose of carrying out the industrial business of the unit, except for __________.

    a. the operator's representative
    b. the crew required by the Certificate of Inspection
    c. the galley personnel
    d. the designated person in charge
6580: The brickwork surrounding the firebox of a boiler is known as __________.

    a. refractory
    b. the screen wall
    c. the water wall
    d. fire plate
6581: If a fixed foam firefighting system on a MODU is not of the premix type, a sample of the foam liquid must be tested by __________.

    a. a Coast Guard inspection officer
    b. the safety man aboard the unit
    c. the designated person in charge of the unit
    d. the manufacturer or his authorized representative
6583: When weight-testing a davit-launched liferaft on a mobile offshore drilling unit, the test weight must be equivalent to the weight of the raft, its required equipment, and __________.

    a. 90% of the allowed capacity of persons for the raft
    b. 100% of the allowed capacity of the persons for the raft
    c. 110% of the allowed capacity of the persons for the raft
    d. 120% of the allowed capacity of the persons for the raft
6585: When weight-testing a davit launched liferaft on a mobile offshore drilling unit, the deadweight equivalent for each person in the allowed capacity of the raft is __________.

    a. 155 pounds
    b. 165 pounds
    c. 175 pounds
    d. 185 pounds
6593: What organization is approved by the Coast Guard for certifying cranes on mobile offshore drilling units?

    a. Minerals Management Service
    b. International Maritime Organization
    c. American Bureau of Shipping
    d. Lloyd's of London
6594: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2500 brake horsepower?

    a. 2
    b. 3
    c. 4
    d. 5
6595: How often must a rated load test be performed on a crane on a MODU?

    a. Every 12 months
    b. Every 24 months
    c. Every 36 months
    d. Every 48 months
6603: A weathertight door on a MODU must not allow water to penetrate into the unit in __________.

    a. 50 knot winds
    b. 70 knot winds
    c. 100 knot winds
    d. any sea condition
6604: Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by __________.

    a. the heat of a fire melting the link
    b. a break-glass and pull-cable system
    c. electrical controls on the bridge
    d. a mechanical arm outside the vent duct
6605: All fire hoses on mobile offshore drilling units must be tested to a pressure of at least __________.

    a. 100 psi
    b. 110 psi
    c. 120 psi
    d. 130 psi
6607: To determine the number of Able Seamen required on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the __________.

    a. load line certificate
    b. Operations Manual
    c. Safety of Life at Sea Certificate
    d. Certificate of Inspection
6611: Any firefighting equipment that is carried in addition to the minimum required number on a MODU must __________.

    a. meet the applicable standards
    b. be marked as additional equipment
    c. be stowed in a separate area
    d. All of the above
6613: What class of bulkhead is required around the galley on a MODU?

    a. Class A
    b. Class B
    c. Class C
    d. Class D
6615: Where are self-closing doors required on a MODU?

    a. In the galley
    b. In each stair tower
    c. To each sleeping room
    d. To the engine room
6617: On offshore drilling units, sleeping spaces for the regular personnel employed on board may not berth more than __________.

    a. two persons
    b. three persons
    c. four persons
    d. five persons
6618: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6048 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 270.71 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0193

    a. LCG-FP 267.03 feet
    b. LCG-FP 267.92 feet
    c. LCG-FP 268.66 feet
    d. LCG-FP 269.94 feet
6619: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6450 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 270.89 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0194

    a. LCG-FP 267.12 feet
    b. LCG-FP 268.48 feet
    c. LCG-FP 270.97 feet
    d. LCG-FP 273.06 feet
6621: Locations on a MODU where flammable hydrocarbon gas or vapors may accumulate due to drilling operations are defined as __________.

    a. gaseous locations
    b. hazardous locations
    c. classified locations
    d. designated locations
6623: Each hose in the fuel transfer system for helicopter refueling must have a __________.

    a. static grounding device
    b. quick-disconnect nozzle
    c. splash guard
    d. vapor recovery system
6624: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise is ___________,

    a. red
    b. white
    c. green
    d. red
6625: Each hose in the fuel transfer system for helicopter refueling must meet the standards of the __________.

    a. Federal Aviation Administration
    b. Corps of Engineers
    c. National Fire Protection Association
    d. National Transportation Safety Board
6626: Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 24'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in fresh water.

    a. 11,650 tons
    b. 11,800 tons
    c. 12,000 tons
    d. 12,250 tons
6627: A cutoff valve in the fire-main system of a MODU may be closed to protect the portion of the system on an exposed deck from __________.

    a. damage from crane operations
    b. being used for wash down purposes
    c. accidental diversion of flow to wrong location
    d. freezing
6631: All portable fire extinguishers must be capable of being __________.

    a. carried by hand to a fire
    b. carried or rolled to a fire
    c. recharged in the field
    d. used on class "B" fires
6633: For a MODU not on an international voyage, an approved substitute for an impulse projected rocket-type line throwing appliance is a __________.

    a. spring loaded line thrower
    b. hand thrown buoyant line
    c. shoulder-type line throwing gun
    d. heaving line
6635: What is the minimum required number of ring life buoys on a MODU?

    a. 4
    b. 8
    c. 12
    d. 16
6637: Of the required ring life buoys for a MODU, how many must be equipped with a water light?

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 4
    d. 8
6641: On a MODU, how many ring buoys are required to have a buoyant line attached?

    a. One ring life buoy
    b. One ring life buoy on each side of the MODU
    c. Three ring life buoys
    d. Two ring life buoys on each side of the MODU
6643: How many adult life jackets are required on board a MODU?

    a. Enough for 100 percent of the persons allowed on board
    b. One for each work station and industrial work site
    c. Enough for 150 percent of the persons allowed on board
    d. Both A & B above
6645: Offshore drilling units that are on an international voyage must have a portable radio apparatus that meets the requirements of the __________.

    a. American Bureau of Shipping
    b. Minerals Management Service
    c. U.S. Coast Guard
    d. Federal Communications Commission
6645: Offshore drilling units that are on an international voyage must have a portable radio apparatus that meets the requirements of the __________.

    a. American Bureau of Shipping
    b. Minerals Management Service
    c. U.S. Coast Guard
    d. Federal Communications Commission
6646: Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by __________.

    a. closing the compartment except for the ventilators
    b. increasing the air flow to the compartment by blowers
    c. leaving the compartment open to the air
    d. completely closing the compartment
6647: For means of abandonment of a MODU, which type of embarkation does not require prior approval by the Coast Guard?

    a. Movable ladders
    b. Fixed ladders
    c. Safety booms
    d. Elevators
6651: The factor of safety, based on the elastic limit of the material, for the forks used on power operated industrial trucks aboard a MODU must be at least __________.

    a. 2 to 1
    b. 3 to 1
    c. 4 to 1
    d. 5 to 1
6653: Diesel powered industrial trucks on a MODU that are provided with safeguards to the exhaust, fuel, and electrical systems are designated __________.

    a. DEFE
    b. DE
    c. DS
    d. DES
6655: Power operated cranes used on a MODU must not be powered by __________.

    a. diesel engines
    b. chargeable batteries
    c. electric motors
    d. gasoline engines
6657: The design specifications for cranes and crane foundations on MODU's are set and published by the __________.

    a. American Society of Mechanical Engineers
    b. American Petroleum Institute
    c. Society of Petroleum Engineers
    d. American Society of Civil Engineers
6660: Your drafts are: FWD 24'-09", AFT 27'-02". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in fresh water.

    a. 13,075 tons
    b. 13,350 tons
    c. 13,590 tons
    d. 13,700 tons
6661: On a self-elevating drilling unit, draft marks must be located __________.

    a. near each corner of the hull
    b. at frame O, port and starboard
    c. at bow and stern on the centerline
    d. on each leg
6663: A branch line valve of a fire extinguishing system on a MODU must be marked with the __________.

    a. maximum pressure allowed at that branch
    b. name of the space or spaces which it serves
    c. date of the last maintenance inspection
    d. pressure needed to maintain an effective stream at that point
6665: On a MODU, a cabinet or space containing the controls or valves for the fixed firefighting system must be __________.

    a. posted with instructions on the operation of the system
    b. ventilated and equipped with explosion-proof switches
    c. painted with red and black diagonal stripes
    d. equipped with a battery powered source of emergency lighting
6667: On a MODU, the locker or space containing the self-contained breathing apparatus must __________.

    a. be located in close proximity to the main control station
    b. be equipped with battery powered emergency lighting
    c. be marked "SELF-CONTAINED BREATHING APPARATUS"
    d. All of the above
6671: Each hand portable fire extinguisher on a MODU must be marked with __________.

    a. the name of the unit on which it is located
    b. the date that it was installed on the unit
    c. the names of the individuals qualified to use it
    d. an identification number different from other extinguishers on the unit
6673: Each emergency light on a MODU must be marked with __________.

    a. the letter "E"
    b. an arrow pointing to the nearest exit
    c. a no-smoking symbol
    d. the word "DANGER"
6675: According to the MODU regulations, the capacity of a liferaft is required to be marked __________.

    a. on the Muster List ("Station Bill")
    b. on a sign next to the liferaft
    c. on the Certificate of Inspection
    d. in the Operations Manual
6677: The instructions for launching lifeboats and liferafts on a MODU must be approved by the __________.

    a. lease operator
    b. Minerals Management Service
    c. Coast Guard
    d. person-in-charge of the unit
6681: On a MODU, a door that is required to be marked "KEEP CLOSED" is designed to __________.

    a. prevent the passage of flammable gases
    b. prevent the passage of poisonous vapors
    c. delay the spread of heat and flames
    d. maintain watertight integrity
6683: How must each storage tank for helicopter fuel on a MODU be marked?

    a. DANGER - KEEP AWAY
    b. DANGER - EXPLOSIVE VAPORS
    c. DANGER - NO SMOKING
    d. DANGER - FLAMMABLE LIQUID
6684: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 19'-04", AFT 21'-02". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 68 tons of seawater.

    a. FWD 19'-09.7", AFT 20'-10.0"
    b. FWD 19'-11.1", AFT 20'-09.4"
    c. FWD 19'-11.7", AFT 20'-08.8"
    d. FWD 20'-00.3", AFT 20'-08.2"
6685: On a MODU, when may a work vest be substituted for a required life preserver?

    a. To replace a damaged life preserver
    b. For use during fire drills
    c. For use during boat drills
    d. At no time
6686: Your drafts are: FWD 24'-09", AFT 27'-02". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in salt water.

    a. 13,175 tons
    b. 13,350 tons
    c. 13,490 tons
    d. 13,620 tons
6687: A MODU must have a self-contained breathing apparatus to be used as protection from gas leaking from a refrigeration unit. To meet this requirement, you may use __________.

    a. a gas mask certified by the Mine Safety and Health Administration
    b. the same self-contained breathing apparatus required with the fireman's outfit
    c. an oxygen breathing apparatus, provided that the device has been inspected within three years
    d. a portable ventilation system that will provide a complete change of air every three minutes
6693: The litter on a MODU must be able to __________.

    a. carry at least two injured persons
    b. float for at least two hours
    c. be used on the types of helicopters serving the unit
    d. All of the above
6695: Each buoyant work vest on a MODU must be __________.

    a. Coast Guard approved
    b. marked with the name of the unit
    c. equipped with a water light
    d. All of the above
6695: Each buoyant work vest on a MODU must be __________.

    a. Coast Guard approved
    b. marked with the name of the unit
    c. equipped with a water light
    d. All of the above
6697: For use as protection from gas leaking from a refrigeration unit, each MODU must be equipped with a __________.

    a. portable ventilation system
    b. flame safety lamp
    c. self-contained breathing apparatus
    d. gas mask
6703: The person-in-charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit must be designated by the __________.

    a. Coast Guard
    b. Minerals Management Service
    c. operator or his agent
    d. owner or his agent
6705: The immersion suit requirements for MODU's apply to units operating in the Atlantic Ocean above __________.

    a. 20°North and below 20°South
    b. 25°North and below 25°South
    c. 30°North and below 30°South
    d. 32°North and below 32°South
6707: The immersion suit requirements apply to MODU's operating in all waters above __________.

    a. 20°N and below 25°S
    b. 25°N and below 30°S
    c. 23°N and below 23°S
    d. 32°N and below 32°S
6711: Immersion suits must be stowed __________.

    a. in the pilothouse
    b. on top of lockers
    c. where readily accessible
    d. on open deck areas
6715: The person in charge shall insure that each lifeboat on a MODU is lowered to the water, launched, and operated at least once every __________.

    a. month
    b. 2 months
    c. 3 months
    d. 6 months
6721: Each hand portable, semi-portable and fixed fire extinguishing unit on a MODU must be tested and inspected at least once every __________.

    a. six weeks
    b. six months
    c. twelve months
    d. two years
6724: In a water tube marine boiler, what protects the superheater tubes from the fires of combustion?

    a. Water-wall tubes
    b. Downcomers
    c. Screen tubes
    d. Water drums
6725: The person responsible for maintaining clean and sanitary conditions in the accommodation spaces of a MODU is the __________.

    a. Chief Steward
    b. Master or person in charge
    c. Chief Engineer
    d. Tool Pusher
6731: During the required periodic abandon ship drill aboard a MODU, each person not assigned duties in the muster list is __________.

    a. instructed in the use of portable fire extinguishers
    b. shown a video demonstrating lifeboat launching
    c. instructed in the use of life jackets
    d. not required to attend the boat drill
6733: The person in charge of a MODU shall insure that the fuel tank of each motor propelled lifeboat is emptied, and the fuel is changed at least once every __________.

    a. 3 months
    b. 6 months
    c. 12 months
    d. 24 months
6735: On a MODU, each EPIRB or SART must be tested at least once __________.

    a. each week
    b. every two weeks
    c. each month
    d. every two months
6737: Each EPIRB required on a MODU shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output indicator every __________.

    a. week
    b. two weeks
    c. month
    d. two months
6742: With an approved combination nozzle, low-velocity fog is produced by __________.

    a. inserting an applicator in the nozzle
    b. putting the handle of the nozzle in the forward position
    c. directing a straight stream of water against the ship's structure
    d. the combination nozzle only when the water pressure exceeds 125 psi
6743: The required fireman's outfits required for MODU's are not to be used for any other purpose EXCEPT for the __________.

    a. oxygen and explosion meter when it is used for detection of flare gases
    b. self-contained breathing apparatus, when used as protection from gas leaking from a refrigeration unit
    c. boots and gloves that are made of rubber or electrically non-conductive material, if used when repairing electrical equipment
    d. lifeline, if used by personnel entering a compartment which might be deficient of oxygen
6745: Fire axes required on MODU's must be stored in the enclosure for fire hoses with the location marked "________".

    a. Fire Axe Location
    b. Hose Station No. ____
    c. Fire Station No. ____
    d. Firefighting Equipment
6747: How many people on board a MODU must be trained in the use of the fireman's outfit?

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
6753: If not attached to the nozzle, each low-velocity spray applicator on a MODU must be stowed __________.

    a. in a protected area on the main deck
    b. inside a machinery space near the entrance
    c. next to the fire hydrant to which the fire hose is attached
    d. on a rack inside the quarters near the entrance
6755: Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a MODU must be stowed __________.

    a. in a locked cabinet in the machinery space
    b. in an unlocked cabinet in the machinery space
    c. in a separate and accessible location
    d. at a fire hydrant location
6757: On Offshore Drilling units, in addition to the life jackets stowed at each berth location, life jackets must be stowed at each work station and __________.

    a. the mess room
    b. each lifeboat
    c. each industrial work site
    d. each fire station
6761: Each distress signal and self-activated smoke signal must be replaced not later than the marked date of expiration, or, from the date of manufacture, not later than __________.

    a. 6 months
    b. 12 months
    c. 24 months
    d. 42 months
6765: A qualified person must be assigned as the second in command of a lifeboat on a MODU if the lifeboat has a capacity of more than __________.

    a. 20 persons
    b. 30 persons
    c. 40 persons
    d. 50 persons
6767: A life preserver or buoyant work vest is required to be worn on a MODU when a person is __________.

    a. working on the rig floor
    b. working over water
    c. working on the pipe racks
    d. operating line throwing equipment
6772: Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in salt water.

    a. 12,750 tons
    b. 12,900 tons
    c. 13,150 tons
    d. 13,250 tons
6785: Each EPIRB required on a MODU shall be stowed in a manner which will permit __________.

    a. easy access to its storage compartment
    b. replacement of the battery without exposure to the weather
    c. it to float free if the unit sinks
    d. it to remain attached to the unit
6786: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine to indicate an emergency is __________.

    a. white
    b. yellow
    c. red
    d. green
6791: At the required fire drill conducted aboard a MODU, all persons must report to their stations and demonstrate their ability to perform the duties assigned to them __________.

    a. by the toolpusher
    b. in the Muster List ("Station Bill")
    c. by the person conducting the drill
    d. at the previous safety meeting
6792: All portable fire extinguishers must be capable of being __________.

    a. carried by hand to a fire
    b. carried or rolled to a fire
    c. recharged in the field
    d. used on class "B" fires
6793: The person on a MODU who is responsible for maintaining the engineering spaces in a clean and sanitary condition is the __________.

    a. Master, or person in charge
    b. Chief Engineer, or engineer in charge if no chief engineer is required
    c. senior mechanic, or mechanic on duty if no senior mechanic designated
    d. senior electrician, or electrician on duty if no senior electrician designated
6795: Mobile offshore drilling units not required to have an official logbook shall __________.

    a. maintain a logbook on Form CG-706
    b. not be required to maintain a logbook
    c. maintain an unofficial logbook
    d. report only major events to the OCMI
6797: Where must you record the date of each emergency training drill conducted on a MODU?

    a. In the logbook
    b. In the Operations Manual
    c. On the Certificate of Inspection
    d. On the muster list
6801: Where must the 0mster or person in charge of a MODU record the date of each test of emergency lighting and power systems and the condition and performance of the equipment?

    a. On the Certificate of Inspection
    b. On the Muster List ("Station Bill")
    c. In the Operations Manual
    d. In either the official or unofficial log
6805: The record of tests and inspection of fire fighting equipment on board a MODU must include __________.

    a. the name of the person conducting the test
    b. the weight of the charge
    c. recommendations for the next test
    d. All of the above
6806: A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You should maneuver your vessel so the wind __________.

    a. blows the fire back toward the vessel
    b. comes over the stern
    c. comes over the bow
    d. comes over either beam
6807: The Master or person in charge of a MODU shall ensure the crane record book shows __________.

    a. the name of the crane operator
    b. an entry each time the crane is used
    c. date and result of each rated load test
    d. the time of day of the test
6811: A mobile offshore drilling unit crane certificate is required to be maintained __________.

    a. on the unit
    b. in the company office
    c. on file with the OCMI
    d. on file with the American Bureau of Shipping
6813: The Master or person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit shall ensure the crane record book shows __________.

    a. the name of the operator
    b. the American Petroleum Institute name plate data
    c. the average load in pounds each usage
    d. All of the above
6817: How long must the records of tests and inspections of fire fighting equipment on board a MODU be retained on board?

    a. 6 months
    b. 1 year
    c. 3 years
    d. Until the next inspection for certification
6821: How long shall the Master or person in charge of a MODU maintaining an unofficial logbook retain this logbook on board?

    a. 6 months
    b. 1 year
    c. 5 years
    d. Until the next inspection for certification
6823: The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to log __________.

    a. the date and hour of each fire drill
    b. the names of all persons on board
    c. only casualties which occur while underway
    d. every event occurring on board
6825: The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to log __________.

    a. the names of all persons on board
    b. only the names of the crew members on board
    c. only the names of passengers on board
    d. information on emergency training drills
6827: What must be entered in the unofficial logbook by the Master or person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit after conducting a fire drill?

    a. The condition of all fire fighting equipment, watertight door mechanisms, and valves used during each drill
    b. The location of the unit at the time each drill is conducted
    c. The name of each crew member who participated in the drill and their responsibilities
    d. All of the above
6831: After conducting an abandonment drill, the Master or person in charge of a MODU shall log __________.

    a. the names of crew members who participated in the drill
    b. the length of time that each motor propelled lifeboat was operated in the drill
    c. the length of time the lifeboat was in the water
    d. the time it took to lower the boat
6833: If a drill required by regulations is not completed on a mobile offshore drilling unit, the Master or person in charge must __________.

    a. report this immediately to the OCMI
    b. report this immediately to the Commandant of the Coast Guard
    c. log the reason for not completing the drill
    d. conduct two of the required drills at the next opportunity
6837: With regard to accommodation spaces on board mobile offshore drilling units, what must the Master or person in charge log?

    a. The name of each person berthed in each space
    b. The date of each inspection of each space
    c. The condition of each space at the beginning of a trip
    d. The number of persons assigned to each space
6838: What is an advantage of a steam turbine over a diesel for the main propulsion?

    a. Faster response from ahead to astern
    b. Less fuel consumption
    c. Cheaper initial installation cost
    d. Less weight per unit of horsepower
6841: What must the Master or person in charge of a MODU enter in the logbook after conducting an abandonment drill?

    a. The sea condition at the time of the drill
    b. Which survival craft was used
    c. The names of all crew members participating in the drill
    d. The name of the lifeboatman in charge of each boat
6843: With regard to the opening and closing of watertight integrity appliances not fitted with a remote operating control or alarm system, what must the Master or person in charge of a MODU enter in the logbook?

    a. The time required to close the appliances
    b. The reason for opening or closing each appliance
    c. The name of the person performing the opening and closing of such appliances
    d. The fact that the hull indicators functioned or not
6845: After conducting a boat drill on a mobile offshore drilling unit, what must the Master or person in charge enter in the in the logbook?

    a. Any inoperative equipment and the corrective action taken
    b. The name of the lifeboatman in charge of each lifeboat
    c. The location of the vessel at the time of the drill
    d. The time it took to lower the boat
6847: What must the Master or person in charge of a MODU enter in the logbook after conducting a boat drill?

    a. Which survival craft was used in the drill
    b. The number of each lifeboat not lowered during each drill
    c. Only the number of each motor propelled lifeboat that is lowered
    d. The length of time an oar propelled lifeboat is rowed
6853: Regulations require that line throwing equipment on mobile offshore drilling units be tested at regular intervals. What entry should be made in the logbook?

    a. No entry is required unless it is an official logbook.
    b. An entry is required only if there is a failure.
    c. Only the date of the test
    d. The name of the person making the test
6855: The Master or person in charge of a MODU shall ensure the crane record book shows the __________.

    a. date and description of each failure
    b. average load in pounds for each usage
    c. total number of lifts for each usage
    d. All of the above
6856: Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.

    a. conduction
    b. convection
    c. radiation
    d. direct contact
6857: Prior to getting underway, the Master or person in charge of a MODU must __________.

    a. conduct a fire drill
    b. conduct a boat drill
    c. log the fore and aft draft marks
    d. test the emergency generator
6858: A hydraulic accumulator is designed to __________.

    a. store fluid under pressure
    b. act as a fluid reservoir
    c. provide overpressure relief
    d. replenish fluid to a system
6861: Prior to getting underway in fresh or brackish water, the Master or person in charge of a MODU must __________.

    a. log the density of the water
    b. secure all overboard discharges
    c. take on fresh water ballast
    d. clean the sides with fresh water
6863: When are fore and aft draft readings required to be entered in the unofficial logbook of a MODU?

    a. Once a day
    b. Once a week
    c. Prior to getting underway
    d. Only when entering waters of different density
6867: When must the Master or person in charge of a MODU log the position of load line marks in relation to the surface of the water in the logbook?

    a. Once a day
    b. At the change of every watch
    c. Only when in fresh or brackish water
    d. Prior to getting underway
6871: Lifeboat winches on mobile offshore drilling units are required to be inspected and an entry made in the logbook. How often should this entry be made?

    a. Every 3 months
    b. Every 6 months
    c. Every year
    d. Only after conducting a boat drill
6895: Who is responsible for reporting a casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit?

    a. The pilot
    b. The owner
    c. The surveyor
    d. The engineer
6897: Who shall insure that all records required by regulations are retained on board a mobile offshore drilling unit involved in a casualty?

    a. Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection
    b. Owner
    c. Pilot
    d. Engineer
6901: In the event of a casualty to a MODU, who is responsible to make records available to the Coast Guard official authorized to investigate the casualty?

    a. Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection
    b. The person who caused the casualty
    c. The company man
    d. The owner
6903: The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to submit a casualty report of an intentional grounding under what condition?

    a. At the owner's discretion
    b. If it creates a hazard to navigation
    c. If the grounding lasts over 48 hours
    d. Under any condition
6905: The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to submit a casualty report of an intentional grounding when it __________.

    a. creates a hazard to the vessel
    b. will last longer than 24 hours
    c. will last longer than 48 hours
    d. occurs in international waters
6907: On offshore drilling units, notification shall be given to the Coast Guard of a casualty if a person is injured and unable to perform routine duties for __________.

    a. any amount of time
    b. more than 24 hours
    c. more than 36 hours
    d. more than 72 hours
6908: Topside icing decreases vessel stability because it is usually off-center and __________.

    a. increases displacement
    b. increases the height of the center of gravity
    c. increases draft
    d. reduces the pocketing of free surface
6911: According to regulations, a Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to submit a report of a loss of life __________.

    a. only when it happens while underway
    b. to the next of kin
    c. to the nearest OCMI
    d. to the nearest coroner
6913: According to regulations, a Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to submit a report of a loss of life __________.

    a. only when it happens while underway
    b. to the next of kin
    c. to the nearest Marine Safety or Marine Inspection Office
    d. to the nearest coroner
6915: When a MODU is involved in a casualty, the cost of property damage includes __________.

    a. the cost of labor and material to restore the property to the service condition which existed prior to the casualty
    b. the loss of revenues while the unit is being repaired, up to a maximum of $50,000
    c. the damage claims awarded to individuals or companies involved in the casualty, up to a maximum of $50,000
    d. All of the above
6915: When a MODU is involved in a casualty, the cost of property damage includes __________.

    a. the cost of labor and material to restore the property to the service condition which existed prior to the casualty
    b. the loss of revenues while the unit is being repaired, up to a maximum of $50,000
    c. the damage claims awarded to individuals or companies involved in the casualty, up to a maximum of $50,000
    d. All of the above
6917: Injuries resulting in loss of life or incapacitation, aboard vessels, must be reported to the __________.

    a. Minerals Management Service
    b. American Petroleum Institute
    c. U.S. Coast Guard
    d. International Association of Drilling Contractors
6921: The notice of casualty to a MODU must include __________.

    a. a request for assistance
    b. the location of the unit at the time of the casualty
    c. an estimate of the cost to repair damages
    d. the amount of fuel remaining
6925: After a report of casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit, what record must be kept on board?

    a. The Oil Record Book
    b. The crane record book
    c. All chart catalogs
    d. The machinery maintenance logbook
6927: Records which must be retained on board after report of casualty to a MODU include the __________.

    a. tour reports
    b. hull reports
    c. machinery repair record book
    d. deck equipment log
6931: A report of casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit must include __________.

    a. the estimated cost of damage to the unit
    b. an evaluation of who was at fault
    c. the amount of ballast on board
    d. the name of the owner or agent of the unit
6933: Under the regulations for mobile offshore drilling units, you must submit a casualty report for which occurrence?

    a. A man overboard
    b. Property damage in excess of $20,000
    c. Accidental grounding
    d. Loss of an emergency generator
6937: A casualty report of an intentional grounding of a MODU is required under what condition?

    a. Under any condition
    b. If the grounding lasts over 24 hours
    c. If it creates a hazard to the environment
    d. At the owner's discretion
6941: On offshore drilling units, any reports of a casualty that are made are required to be retained on board for a period of at least __________.

    a. 3 months
    b. 6 months
    c. 12 months
    d. 24 months
6943: A written report of casualty to a MODU shall be made __________.

    a. within 12 hours of the casualty
    b. to the Commandant of the Coast Guard
    c. on Form CG 2692
    d. only if the damage exceeds $1,500
6945: Which record must be retained on board after a report of casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit?

    a. Oil Record Book
    b. Chart catalogs
    c. Personnel list
    d. Hull report
6946: Your drafts are: FWD 20'-08", AFT 25'-03". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1.

    a. 1130 foot-tons
    b. 1095 foot-tons
    c. 1070 foot-tons
    d. 1025 foot-tons
6947: Which record must be retained on board after a report of casualty to a MODU?

    a. Preventive maintenance log
    b. Storage plans
    c. Oil Record Book
    d. Repair record book
6953: After reporting a casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit, which record must be retained on board?

    a. Record of drafts
    b. Hull reports
    c. Anchor record
    d. Machinery repair book
6955: Regulations require certain records to be retained on board a MODU for how long after the report of a casualty?

    a. 1 month
    b. 3 months
    c. 6 months
    d. 12 months
6957: Regulations require certain records to be retained on board for at least 3 months after a MODU is involved in a casualty or until advised that they are no longer needed on board by the __________.

    a. owner
    b. Master
    c. person in charge
    d. Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection
6961: A report of casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit must be made in writing to which office?

    a. Commandant of the Coast Guard
    b. Owner of the unit
    c. Nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety Office
    d. Captain of the nearest port
6965: In the case of a casualty involving a MODU, the Master, owner, agent or person in charge shall make the records required by regulation available upon request to __________.

    a. anyone involved in the casualty
    b. any Coast Guard official authorized to investigate the casualty
    c. the local Captain of the Port
    d. All of the above
6967: A MODU must report a collision with an aid to navigation maintained by the Coast Guard to which office?

    a. Nearest Oceanographic office
    b. The Marine Safety Center at Coast Guard Headquarters
    c. National Ocean Service
    d. Nearest Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection
6981: The emergency power system for the DEEP DRILLER should be placed in operation when the weather forecast predicts winds greater than 90 knots and when __________.

    a. evacuating the unit
    b. ballasting
    c. deballasting
    d. unexpected list and trim exist
6985: The COASTAL DRILLER, while operating with minimal wave clearance, is inclined 0.5 degrees bow down. Lowering the stern may place the hull in the wave action. The recommended course of action is to __________.

    a. prepare to take action in case inclination increases
    b. jack the hull up on the bow leg
    c. jack the hull down on the aft two legs
    d. transfer weight, such as drill water, toward the stern
6987: Severe airway burns can cause __________.

    a. nausea
    b. reddening of cheeks
    c. complete obstruction of respiratory passages
    d. nosebleed
6991: The FIRST treatment of a person suspected of having airway burns is to __________.

    a. move him to a cool location
    b. maintain an open airway
    c. apply a cool damp dressing to his neck
    d. have him drink cool liquids
7003: When treating a chemical burn, you should flood the burned area for at least __________.

    a. five minutes
    b. ten minutes
    c. fifteen minutes
    d. twenty minutes
7005: Chemical burns are caused by the skin coming in contact with __________.

    a. acids or alkalies
    b. diesel oil
    c. acids, but not alkalies
    d. alkalies, but not acids
7006: What is NOT a function of the steam drum of a marine water-tube boiler?

    a. Receives saturated steam from the generating tubes
    b. Serves as a reservoir of boiler feed water
    c. Holds internal fittings for separation of moisture from steam
    d. Collects steam exhausted from the turbines
7007: What precaution should be taken when treating burns caused by contact with dry lime?

    a. Water should be applied in a fine spray.
    b. The burned area should be immersed in water.
    c. The entire burn area should be covered with ointment.
    d. Before washing, the lime should be brushed away gently.
7021: The symptoms of heat exhaustion are __________.

    a. slow and strong pulse
    b. flushed and dry skin
    c. slow and deep breathing
    d. pale and clammy skin
7023: Heat exhaustion is caused by excessive __________.

    a. loss of body temperature
    b. loss of water and salt from the body
    c. gain in body temperature
    d. intake of water when working or exercising
7025: A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should be___ __________.

    a. moved to a cool room and told to lie down
    b. kept standing and encouraged to walk slowly and continuously
    c. given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15 minutes of rest
    d. None of the above are correct
7027: To treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion, you should __________.

    a. administer artificial respiration
    b. put him in a tub of ice water
    c. give him sips of cool water
    d. cover him with a light cloth
7031: Symptoms of sugar diabetes include __________.

    a. increased appetite and thirst
    b. decreased appetite and thirst
    c. gain in weight
    d. elevated temperature
7032: Overspeed of the diesel engine driving an electric generator could cause __________.

    a. low voltage trip
    b. reverse power trip
    c. damage to windings
    d. excessive exhaust temperatures
7033: A person with diabetes has received a minor leg injured. The symptoms of the onset of a diabetic coma may include __________.

    a. reduced appetite and thirst
    b. sneezing and coughing
    c. only a low grade fever
    d. slurred speech and loss of coordination
7035: If a diabetic suffers an insulin reaction and is conscious, he should be given __________.

    a. soda crackers and water
    b. orange juice
    c. an ounce of whiskey
    d. a glass of milk
7037: Epilepsy is a chronic nervous disorder characterized by __________.

    a. severe nausea and cramps
    b. muscular convulsions with partial or complete loss of consciousness
    c. sudden thirst and craving for candy
    d. severe agitation and desire to get out of closed spaces
7041: A crew member is having an epileptic convulsion. You should __________.

    a. give the victim artificial respiration
    b. completely restrain the victim
    c. give the victim one 30 mg. tablet of phenobarbital
    d. keep the victim from injuring him or herself
7043: While providing assistance to a victim of an epileptic seizure, it is most important to __________.

    a. give artificial respiration
    b. prevent patient from hurting himself
    c. keep the patient awake and make him/her walk if necessary to keep him/her awake
    d. remove any soiled clothing and put the patient in a clean bed
7046: A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You should maneuver your vessel so the wind __________.

    a. blows the fire back toward the vessel
    b. comes over either beam
    c. comes over the stern
    d. comes over the bow
7047: What are symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix?

    a. Dilated pupils and shallow breathing
    b. Diarrhea and frequent urination
    c. Muscle tenseness in almost the entire abdomen
    d. Extreme sweating and reddening skin
7051: When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the primary action is to __________.

    a. give the patient a laxative to relieve pain
    b. give the patient morphine sulfate to relieve pain
    c. confine to bed until helicopter arrives
    d. give the patient aspirin with a glass of water
7052: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 4850 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 274.46 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0195

    a. LCG-FP 271.23 feet
    b. LCG-FP 270.96 feet
    c. LCG-FP 269.52 feet
    d. LCG-FP 267.88 feet
7053: When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the pain should be relieved by __________.

    a. keeping an ice bag over the appendix area
    b. giving the patient a laxative
    c. giving the patient morphine sulfate
    d. giving the patient aspirin with a glass of water
7055: Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect fluids in the __________.

    a. stomach
    b. lower intestines
    c. inner ear
    d. bladder
7056: Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in fresh water.

    a. 12,550 tons
    b. 12,900 tons
    c. 13,200 tons
    d. 13,350 tons
7057: Symptoms of sea sickness include __________.

    a. fever and thirst
    b. nausea and dizziness
    c. stomach cramps and diarrhea
    d. reddening of skin and hives
7058: Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause __________.

    a. fixed foam systems to be ineffective
    b. faster cooling of the fire
    c. the accumulation of explosive gases
    d. the fire to spread through the ventilation system
7061: The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is __________.

    a. relieving the patient's pain by giving aspirin or stronger medication
    b. avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling
    c. preventing convulsions and muscle spasms caused by the pain
    d. providing enough fluids to prevent dehydration
7062: You are aboard a liferaft in a storm. What should you do with your Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon?

    a. Bring it inside the liferaft and leave it on.
    b. Bring it inside the liferaft and turn it off until the storm passes.
    c. Leave it outside the liferaft and leave it on.
    d. Leave it outside the liferaft but turn it off.
7063: The symptoms of a fractured back are __________.

    a. leg cramps in the muscles in one or both legs
    b. pain and uncontrolled jerking of the legs and arms
    c. vomiting and involuntary urination or bowel movement
    d. pain at the site of the fracture and possible numbness or paralysis below the injury
7065: What is the procedure for checking for spinal cord damage in an unconscious patient?

    a. Beginning at the back of the neck, and proceeding to the buttocks, press the spine to find where it hurts
    b. Prick the skin of the hands and the soles of the feet with a sharp object to check for reaction
    c. Selectively raise each arm and each leg and watch patient's face to see if he registers pain
    d. Roll patient onto his stomach and prick along the length of his spine to check reaction
7066: What does blowing tubes accomplish?

    a. Eliminates unburned fuel oil residues from the firebox
    b. Increases boiler efficiency
    c. Flushes away mineral deposits inside the water tubes
    d. Cleans soot deposits from the inside of the stack
7067: An effective method for moving patients with spinal injuries onto a spine board is known as the __________.

    a. pack-strap carry
    b. two man extremities carry
    c. fireman's drag
    d. four man log roll
7068: Deballasting a double bottom has what affect on KG?

    a. KG is increased.
    b. KG is decreased.
    c. KG is not affected.
    d. KG increases at light drafts and decreases at deep drafts.
7071: The sorting of accident victims according to the severity of their injuries is called __________.

    a. evaluation
    b. triage
    c. surveying
    d. prioritizing
7072: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 15'-06", AFT 18'-06". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 62 tons of seawater.

    a. FWD 15'-11.5", AFT 18'-02.7"
    b. FWD 16'-00.1", AFT 18'-02.1"
    c. FWD 16'-00.7", AFT 18'-01.5"
    d. FWD 16'-01.3", AFT 18'-00.9"
7073: Where there are multiple accident victims, which condition should be the first to receive emergency treatment?

    a. Back injuries
    b. Major multiple fractures
    c. Suspension of breathing
    d. Burns
7075: Where there are multiple accident victims, which injuries should be the FIRST to receive emergency treatment?

    a. Major multiple fractures
    b. Eye injuries
    c. Back injuries with spinal-cord damage
    d. Airway and breathing difficulties
7077: Where there are multiple accident victims, which type of injury should be the first to receive emergency treatment?

    a. Severe shock
    b. Eye injuries
    c. Burns
    d. Major multiple fractures
7081: In managing a situation involving multiple injuries, the rescuer must be able to __________.

    a. provide the necessary medication
    b. rapidly evaluate the seriousness of obvious injuries
    c. accurately diagnose the ailment or injury
    d. prescribe treatment for the victim
7083: What can be determined about an injury from examining the condition of a victim's pupils?

    a. The degree of pain being suffered
    b. The degree of vision impairment
    c. Whether or not the brain is functioning properly
    d. Whether or not the victim's blood pressure is normal
7093: Normal mouth temperature is __________.

    a. 96.4°F
    b. 97.5°F
    c. 98.6°F
    d. 99.7°F
7096: Convection spreads a fire by __________.

    a. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal
    b. burning liquids flowing into another space
    c. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
    d. the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space
7097: What is a convenient and effective system of examining the body of an injury victim?

    a. Check the corresponding (left versus right) parts of the body.
    b. Watch the patient's eyes as you probe parts of the body.
    c. Look for discoloration of the patient's skin.
    d. Look for uncontrolled vibration or twitching of parts of the body.
7105: Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible gas as a percentage of the __________.

    a. flash point
    b. upper explosive limit
    c. lower explosive limit
    d. fire point
7113: Fire extinguishers used on MODU's are numbered by size I through V, with I being __________.

    a. used for electrical fires only
    b. the smallest
    c. the most accessible
    d. the most effective
7121: CO2 cylinders equipped with pressure actuated discharge heads will discharge automatically when __________.

    a. the discharge valve is open
    b. the control box glass is broken
    c. pressure from the control cylinders is detected
    d. the control cylinders have been completely discharged
7127: Spaces protected by a fixed CO2 system must be equipped with an alarm which sounds __________.

    a. for the first 20 seconds CO2 is being released into the space
    b. for at least 20 seconds prior to release of CO2
    c. during the entire period that CO2 is being released
    d. if all doors and ventilation are not secured
7128: Some spaces protected by fixed carbon dioxide systems are required to have audible alarms that begin sounding prior to the discharge of CO2. This time delay must be at least __________.

    a. 20 seconds
    b. 40 seconds
    c. one minute
    d. two minutes
7129: Some spaces protected by fixed carbon dioxide systems are required to have audible alarms that begin sounding prior to the discharge of CO2. This time delay must be at least __________.

    a. 15 seconds
    b. 20 seconds
    c. 45 seconds
    d. 90 seconds
7131: A safety outlet is provided on the CO2 discharge piping to prevent __________.

    a. over pressurization of the space being flooded
    b. rupture of cylinder due to temperature increase
    c. over pressurization of the CO2 discharge piping
    d. flooding of a space where personnel are present
7135: What is the best instrument for establishing a safe working area before welding in a confined space?

    a. An oxygen indicator
    b. A combustible gas indicator
    c. A combination combustible gas and oxygen indicator
    d. A flame safety lamp
7143: Actuating the CO2 fixed system causes the shutdown of the __________.

    a. fuel supply
    b. exhaust ventilation
    c. supply and exhaust ventilation
    d. mechanical and natural ventilation
7147: What should you do if you have transmitted a distress call a number of times on channel 16 and have received no reply?

    a. Repeat the message using any other channel on which you might attract attention.
    b. Key the microphone several times before transmitting again.
    c. Turn up the volume on the receiver before transmitting again.
    d. Report the problem to the head electrician.
7307: All VHF marine band radios operate in the simplex mode, which means that __________.

    a. only one person may talk at a time
    b. only two persons may talk at the same time
    c. the radio only transmits
    d. the radio only receives
7311: What is the calling and distress frequency on a single side band (SSB) marine radiotelephone?

    a. 1492 kHz
    b. 1892 kHz
    c. 2082 kHz
    d. 2182 kHz
7313: What is the MOST important thing you should do before transmitting on a marine radio?

    a. Ask for permission.
    b. Record the time in your radio log.
    c. Press the "push to talk" button three times.
    d. Monitor the channel to insure that it is clear.
7317: When sending and receiving messages on the marine radio, confusion over unusual words can be avoided by using the __________.

    a. delimiter switch
    b. standard phonetic alphabet
    c. low power switch
    d. high power switch
7318: A cabinet or space containing the controls or valves for the fixed firefighting system must be __________.

    a. posted with instructions on the operation of the system
    b. ventilated and equipped with explosion-proof switches
    c. painted with red and black diagonal stripes
    d. equipped with a battery powered source of emergency lighting
7321: The reception of weak radio signals may be improved by "opening up" the squelch control. What is the normal setting of the squelch control?

    a. Just past the point where background noise is cut off
    b. Completely closed with the volume at the highest level
    c. Completely open with the volume at the lowest level
    d. None of the above
7323: Whenever your marine radio is on, FCC Rules require you to monitor __________.

    a. a commercial ship-to-ship channel
    b. the last frequency that was used
    c. the distress and calling frequency
    d. the radio only if expecting a call
7325: One method of reducing the length of radio transmissions without distorting the meaning of your words is by using __________.

    a. slang
    b. secret codes
    c. procedure words
    d. analogies
7331: Routine radio communications should be no more than __________.

    a. one minute
    b. three minutes
    c. five minutes
    d. eight minutes
7333: You have just tried calling another vessel on the VHF and they have not replied. How long should you wait before calling that station again?

    a. One minute
    b. Two minutes
    c. Five minutes
    d. Seven minutes
7335: When making VHF radio calls to nearby stations, what level of transmitting power should you use?

    a. Low power
    b. Medium power
    c. High power
    d. Extra high power
7337: If you log a distress message, it must include the __________.

    a. sea state
    b. names of witnesses
    c. time of its occurrence
    d. wind direction and velocity
7341: If you know that the vessel you are about to call on the VHF radio maintains a radio watch on both the working and the calling frequencies, which frequency should you call on?

    a. Calling frequency
    b. Distress frequency
    c. Urgency frequency
    d. Working frequency
7343: What is maximum power allowed by the FCC for VHF-FM radio transmissions?

    a. One watt
    b. Five watts
    c. 15 watts
    d. 25 watts
7345: What is the average range of vessel-to-vessel VHF-FM radio communications?

    a. 15 to 20 miles
    b. 60 to 90 miles
    c. 90 to 120 miles
    d. 120 to 150 miles
7351: The range of a SSB transmission is MOST affected by __________.

    a. atmospheric noise and radiated power
    b. the frequency band selected and time of day or night
    c. interference and position of the moon
    d. radiated power and nearness to shore
7353: The height of a VHF radio antenna is more important than the power output wattage of the radio because __________.

    a. VHF communications are basically "line of sight"
    b. the air is more dense the higher you go
    c. salt water is a poor conductor of sound
    d. sea water absorbs the radiated energy
7355: When do you use your FCC call sign when transmitting on channel 16?

    a. Only at the beginning of a transmission
    b. Only in an emergency
    c. Only if asked by the U.S. Coast Guard
    d. Always at the beginning and ending of a transmission
7365: What is the minimum required GMT for the DEEP DRILLER in winds less than 70 knots while at a draft of 60 feet?

    a. 0.17 foot
    b. 2.62 feet
    c. 4.34 feet
    d. 9.12 feet
7367: Among the possible causes of unexpected rapidly increasing inclination of the DEEP DRILLER while on location is __________.

    a. consumption of on board variables
    b. miscalculation of loads
    c. external environmental forces
    d. flooding due to column damage
7371: The condition where a MODU on the end of a tow line is riding a wave crest at the same time as its tug rides a wave crest is known as riding in __________.

    a. synchronism
    b. harmony
    c. check
    d. step
7373: When a semisubmersible rig under tow experiences pounding on the forward transverse brace, the surest way to alleviate the condition would be to __________.

    a. adjust the length of the tow line
    b. have the tug slow down
    c. ballast down
    d. change course
7375: When a semisubmersible rig under tow veers from side to side on its tow line, the best way of controlling the action is to __________.

    a. trim by the bow
    b. trim by the stern
    c. play out stern anchor chain
    d. adjust the length of the towing bridle
7377: A semisubmersible rig under tow should be ballasted down if __________.

    a. motion begins to be excessive
    b. water begins to break over the pontoons
    c. period of roll exceeds 12 seconds
    d. forward progress is halted by head wind
7381: One way to increase the period of roll on a semisubmersible rig while under tow is to __________.

    a. dump deck tanks into lower hulls
    b. plug ballast tank vents
    c. head into the waves
    d. increase tank free surface
7385: To assure safe boarding and launching of a davit-launched liferaft from a MODU, preparation should include __________.

    a. load testing the davit arm and the painter system
    b. removing any side protective rails and checking that the overside and surface level are clear
    c. testing the spring loaded drum to assure it will retract the fall release hook
    d. testing to assure that the required lamps are functioning properly
7387: Prior to boarding from a MODU, a davit-launched liferaft should be well ventilated of excess __________.

    a. hydrocarbon gas
    b. carbon monoxide gas
    c. carbon dioxide gas
    d. freon gas
7388: All marine low-speed diesels are of what design?

    a. Four-stroke
    b. Two-stroke
    c. Electronic ignition
    d. Forced exhaust
7391: Personnel boarding a davit-launched liferaft from a MODU should be checked to assure they are not in possession of or wearing __________.

    a. oil stained shoes or clothing
    b. sharp objects that may puncture or damage the liferaft
    c. matches or cigarette lighters
    d. drugs or paraphernalia not approved by a medical doctor
7393: When a davit-launched raft is lowered from a MODU, upon becoming waterborne, the raft is released by __________.

    a. activating the release lock of the hook
    b. pulling smartly on the knobbed cocking lanyard
    c. the effects of buoyancy removing the weight of the raft from the hook
    d. releasing the boarding flap and the bowsing lines
7395: In evacuation from a MODU, an individual without the option of a survival craft or liferaft should enter the water on the leeward side, except when __________.

    a. there is burning oil on the water
    b. there is a rescue craft in the area
    c. water temperature is below 40°F
    d. a rigid survival craft is in the area
7397: In evacuation from a MODU, an individual without the option of a survival craft or liferaft should enter the water on the leeward side, except when __________.

    a. there is a rescue craft in the area
    b. there is hydrogen sulfide present
    c. water temperature is below 40°F
    d. a rigid survival craft is in the area
7401: In evacuation from a MODU, an individual without the option of a survival craft or liferaft should enter the water on the leeward side, except when __________.

    a. there is a rescue craft in the area
    b. water temperature is below 40°F
    c. there is a severe list to the windward side of the MODU
    d. a rigid survival craft is in the area
7403: If you must jump from a MODU, your posture should include __________.

    a. holding down the life preserver against the chest with one arm crossing the other, covering the mouth and nose with a hand, and feet together
    b. knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legs
    c. body straight and arms held tightly at the sides for feet first entry into the water
    d. both hands holding the life preserver below the chin, with knees bent, and legs crossed
7405: VHF Channel 6 is used exclusively for what kind of communications?

    a. Radio checks and time checks
    b. Inter-vessel safety and search and rescue
    c. Working with helicopters
    d. Radio direction finding
7407: Which VHF channel should you avoid using as a working channel?

    a. 7A
    b. 8
    c. 9
    d. 16
7411: What is the spoken emergency signal for a distress signal over a VHF radio?

    a. Red Alert
    b. Security
    c. Mayday
    d. Pan
7412: In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by __________.

    a. ventilation
    b. radiation
    c. convection
    d. conduction
7413: Which spoken emergency signal would you use to call a boat to come assist a man overboard?

    a. Distress signal
    b. Urgency signal
    c. Safety signal
    d. None of the above
7415: What is the spoken emergency signal for a "man overboard" on the VHF radio?

    a. Man Overboard
    b. Security
    c. Mayday
    d. Pan-Pan
7417: You receive a call from the U.S. Coast Guard addressed to all stations. The call begins with the words "Pan-Pan" (3 times). Which type of emergency signal would this be?

    a. Safety signal
    b. Urgency signal
    c. Distress signal
    d. Red alert signal
7421: After receiving your distress call, the U.S.C.G. will ask you to switch to which SSB frequency?

    a. 2570
    b. 2670
    c. 2770
    d. 2870
7427: What is the expected range of a VHF radio transmission from a vessel to a shore station?

    a. About 20 miles
    b. 50 - 100 miles
    c. 100 - 150 miles
    d. 150 - 200 miles
7431: What time of day would an SSB radio have the longest transmitting range?

    a. Daylight before noon
    b. At noon
    c. Daylight after noon
    d. During darkness
7575: The upward pressure of displaced water is called __________.

    a. buoyancy
    b. deadweight
    c. draft
    d. freeboard
7577: The value of the maximum righting arm depends on the position of the center of buoyancy and the __________.

    a. longitudinal center of gravity
    b. transverse center of gravity
    c. downflooding angle
    d. vertical location of the center of gravity
7578: When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, the other individuals in the boat should __________.

    a. enter the water in case the person being lifted slips from the sling
    b. stand on the outside of the boat to assist the person being lifted
    c. remove their life preservers to prepare for their transfer to the helicopter
    d. remain seated inside to provide body weight for stability
7581: For a given displacement, the righting arm has its maximum value when __________.

    a. KG is minimum
    b. angle of inclination is a maximum
    c. small-angle stability applies
    d. KM is a minimum
7583: Stability is determined by the relationship of the center of gravity and the __________.

    a. water depth
    b. keel
    c. center of flotation
    d. center of buoyancy
7587: The geometric center of the underwater volume is known as the __________.

    a. center of flotation
    b. tipping center
    c. center of gravity
    d. center of buoyancy
7591: Stability is determined principally by the location of the center of gravity and the __________.

    a. aft perpendicular
    b. center of buoyancy
    c. keel
    d. center of flotation
7593: The horizontal distance between the vertical lines of action of gravity and the buoyant forces is called the __________.

    a. righting arm
    b. metacentric height
    c. metacentric radius
    d. height of the center of buoyancy
7595: For a vessel inclined by the wind, multiplying the buoyant force by the horizontal distance between the lines of action of the buoyant and gravity forces gives the __________.

    a. righting moment
    b. vertical moment
    c. longitudinal moment
    d. transverse moment
7597: In small angle stability theory, the metacenter is located at the intersection of the inclined vertical centerline and a vertical line through __________.

    a. G
    b. F
    c. B
    d. K
7601: At all angles of inclination, the true measure of a vessel's stability is the __________.

    a. metacentric height
    b. displacement
    c. righting moment
    d. inclining moment
7603: Initial stability refers to stability __________.

    a. at small angles of inclination
    b. when loaded with minimum deck load
    c. when at transit draft
    d. when GZ is zero
7605: For small angles of inclination, if the KG were equal to the KM, then the vessel would have __________.

    a. positive stability
    b. negative stability
    c. neutral stability
    d. maximum stability
7607: The difference between the height of the metacenter and the metacentric height is known as __________.

    a. righting arm
    b. metacentric radius
    c. height of the center of buoyancy
    d. height of the center of gravity
7613: GM cannot be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of inclination because __________.

    a. M is not fixed at large angles
    b. there is no M at large angles
    c. G is not fixed at large angles
    d. there is no G at large angles
7617: When a MODU is inclined at a small angle, the center of buoyancy will __________.

    a. remain stationary
    b. move toward the low side
    c. move toward the high side
    d. move to the height of the metacenter
7621: Which statement is TRUE about metacentric height?

    a. It is a measure of initial stability.
    b. It is located above the center of buoyancy.
    c. It is measured vertically above the center of buoyancy.
    d. It's determination is the objective of the inclining experiment.
7623: The weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel floating in sea water is equal to the __________.

    a. weight required to sink the vessel
    b. total weight of the vessel
    c. displaced volume
    d. reserve buoyancy
7625: The original equilibrium position is always unstable when __________.

    a. metacentric height is negative
    b. KM is higher than KG
    c. KG exceeds maximum allowable limits
    d. free surfaces are excessive
7631: At an angle of loll, the capsizing moment is __________.

    a. maximum
    b. negative
    c. positive
    d. zero
7635: At an angle of loll, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.

    a. maximum
    b. negative
    c. positive, but reflexive
    d. zero
7637: When a floating MODU inclines to an angle slightly less than the angle of loll, she will __________.

    a. capsize
    b. incline less
    c. flop to the other side
    d. return to the angle of loll
7641: In small-angle stability, when external forces exist, the buoyant force is assumed to act vertically upwards through the center of buoyancy and through the __________.

    a. center of gravity
    b. center of flotation
    c. metacenter
    d. metacentric height
7643: When a vessel is floating upright, the distance from the keel to the metacenter is called the __________.

    a. metacentric radius
    b. height of the baseline
    c. height of the metacenter
    d. righting arm
7645: What abbreviation represents the height of the center of buoyancy?

    a. BK
    b. KB
    c. CB
    d. BM
7647: The abbreviation GM is used to represent the __________.

    a. height of the metacenter
    b. righting arm
    c. righting moment
    d. metacentric height
7648: Buoyant apparatus are required to be fitted or equipped with all of the following equipment EXCEPT __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. life lines
    b. paddles
    c. water lights
    d. painters
7651: When positive stability exists, GZ represents the __________.

    a. righting moment
    b. center of gravity
    c. righting arm
    d. metacentric height
7655: In small angle stability, the metacentric height __________.

    a. is found in the hydrostatic tables for a level vessel
    b. multiplied by the displacement yields the righting moment
    c. is always positive
    d. is calculated by subtracting KG from KM
7657: The righting moment can be determined by multiplying the displacement by the __________.

    a. vertical center of gravity (KG)
    b. longitudinal center of gravity (LCG)
    c. righting arm (GZ)
    d. center of gravity (CG)
7663: Subtracting KG from KM yields __________.

    a. BM
    b. GM
    c. GZ
    d. KG
7665: Subtracting KG from KM yields __________.

    a. BL
    b. GM
    c. FS
    d. KG
7667: Subtracting GM from KM yields __________.

    a. BL
    b. GM
    c. FS
    d. KG
7675: To calculate the free surface correction, it is necessary to divide the free-surface moments by the __________.

    a. total weight of liquid loads
    b. total displacement
    c. lightweight
    d. deadweight
7677: Reducing free surfaces has the effect of lowering the __________.

    a. uncorrected KG
    b. virtual height of the center of gravity
    c. metacenter
    d. metacentric height
7681: The effects of free surface on initial stability depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.

    a. volume of liquid in the tank
    b. volume of displacement of the MODU
    c. location of the tank in the MODU
    d. height of the center of gravity of the MODU
7682: One major disadvantage of a low-speed diesel as compared to a steam main-propulsion system is __________.

    a. the extra weight required for the diesel reduction gearing
    b. a minimum speed for the engines that limits the minimum speed of the vessel
    c. the higher fuel consumption per SHP
    d. the low efficiency of the system when a controllable pitch propeller is used
7683: Increasing free surfaces has the effect of raising the __________.

    a. uncorrected KG
    b. virtual height of the center of gravity
    c. metacenter
    d. metacentric height
7685: The free surface corrections depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.

    a. volume of liquid in the tank
    b. displacement of the MODU
    c. location of the tank in the MODU
    d. height of the center of gravity of the MODU
7687: When displacement increases, the free surface moments of slack tanks __________.

    a. increase
    b. decrease
    c. are inversely proportional
    d. remain unchanged
7693: Increasing the number of slack liquid tanks has the effect of raising the __________.

    a. uncorrected KG
    b. maximum allowed KG
    c. virtual height of the center of gravity
    d. metacentric height
7695: Adding the FSCL to KG yields __________.

    a. KM
    b. GM
    c. KGT
    d. KGL
7697: The distance between the bottom of the hull and the waterline is called __________.

    a. tonnage
    b. reserve buoyancy
    c. draft
    d. freeboard
7701: After transferring a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the center of flotation will __________.

    a. change, depending on the location of the LCG
    b. increase
    c. decrease
    d. remain constant
7703: The average of the forward and after drafts is the __________.

    a. mean draft
    b. true mean draft
    c. mean of the calculated drafts
    d. draft at the center of flotation
7713: Your vessel is listing because of a negative GM. To lower G below M, you should __________.

    a. deballast
    b. transfer weight to the high side
    c. ballast on the high side
    d. add weight symmetrically below G
7725: Reserve buoyancy is the __________.

    a. unoccupied space below the waterline
    b. volume of intact space above the waterline
    c. excess of the buoyant force over the gravity force
    d. difference in the buoyant force in salt and fresh waters
7727: When flooding occurs in a damaged vessel, reserve buoyancy __________.

    a. decreases
    b. remains the same
    c. increases
    d. shifts to the low side
7737: The geometric center of the waterplane area is called the __________.

    a. center of buoyancy
    b. center of gravity
    c. metacenter
    d. center of flotation
7747: In the absence of external forces, the center of gravity of a floating vessel is located directly above the __________.

    a. metacenter
    b. amidships
    c. center of flotation
    d. geometric center of the displaced volume
7785: The result of multiplying a weight by a distance is a __________.

    a. moment
    b. force
    c. couple
    d. center of gravity location
7786: The straight stream capability of an all-purpose nozzle is used in fighting a class A fire to __________.

    a. shield fire fighters from radiant heat
    b. break up burning material
    c. get the most water possible on the fire
    d. drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters
7787: A moment is obtained by multiplying a force by its __________.

    a. couple
    b. lever arm
    c. moment of inertia
    d. point of application
7805: A tank with internal dimensions of 40 feet X 20 feet X 12 feet is pressed with fuel oil weighing 54 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight, in short tons, of the liquid?

    a. 518.4 short tons
    b. 259.2 short tons
    c. 135.0 short tons
    d. 11.3 short tons
7841: In a combination chain and wire rope mooring system, the anchor chain is deployed at the anchor end of the line to __________.

    a. increase fatigue life of the system
    b. reduce the time to retrieve the line
    c. increase the holding power
    d. reduce the catenary
7843: After putting on a self-contained breathing apparatus, you open the air supply and hear a continuous ringing of a bell. What does this mean?

    a. The unit is working properly.
    b. The face mask is not sealed properly.
    c. The air bottle needs to be refilled.
    d. The air supply hose has a leak.
7845: When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing device is opened, the air flows __________.

    a. directly to the facepiece
    b. directly to the air supply bottle
    c. through the regulator
    d. from the bottle into the atmosphere
7847: When the mainline valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is open, the bypass valve should be __________.

    a. completely open
    b. completely closed
    c. disconnected
    d. partially opened
7951: What is the chief advantage of an SCR or AC-DC system over a straight DC system for powering drilling rig machinery?

    a. Commutators are eliminated.
    b. Several machines can be operated from a DC bus.
    c. SCR systems are simpler.
    d. Required power can be drawn from a common AC bus.
7977: Overspeed of the diesel engine driving an electric generator could cause __________.

    a. low voltage trip
    b. reverse power trip
    c. damage to windings
    d. excessive exhaust temperatures
8015: In case of damage to the DEEP DRILLER on location, the immediate objective is to reduce the unexpected inclination and return the unit to __________.

    a. nearest sheltered port
    b. near its original draft
    c. drilling
    d. survival draft
8035: When the wave period and the apparent rolling period of the MODU are the same __________.

    a. synchronous rolling occurs
    b. roll period decreases
    c. roll period increases
    d. roll amplitude is dampened
8036: Radiation spreads a fire by __________.

    a. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal
    b. burning liquids flowing into another space
    c. transferring heat across an unobstructed space
    d. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
8045: At an angle of loll, the righting moment is __________.

    a. maximum
    b. negative
    c. positive
    d. zero
8047: An "on-load" release system on a survival craft means the cable can be released __________.

    a. only when the load is taken off the cable
    b. only when there is a load on the cable
    c. only when activated by the controls at the lowering station
    d. at any time
8051: The "off-load" release system on a survival craft is designed to be activated __________.

    a. when there is no load on the cable
    b. when there is a load on the cable
    c. only when the doors are closed
    d. when the engine is started
8053: At a speed of 6 knots the fuel aboard a survival craft should last __________.

    a. 8 hours
    b. 12 hours
    c. 24 hours
    d. 48 hours
8054: A thrust block is designed to __________.

    a. transmit the thrust of the engine to the propeller
    b. transmit the thrust of the propeller to the vessel
    c. absorb the shock of wave pressure at the bow
    d. be placed between the engines and the foundation to absorb the vibration
8055: When inspecting a survival craft, you should check to make sure that the __________.

    a. sea anchor is deployed
    b. hydraulic starting system has been drained
    c. hydraulic pressure is within the specified range
    d. steering controls are locked
8061: When drilling from a MODU the weight in air of tubular goods on the racks is reduced when run into the drilled hole because of the effect of __________.

    a. drill string compensators
    b. formation pressure
    c. buoyancy of the mud
    d. vessel motion
8063: Cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguishers used on MODU's should have the propellant cartridge weighed every __________.

    a. 3 months
    b. 6 months
    c. 12 months
    d. 2 years
8071: It is proposed to moor the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet of water in a region in which the effective wind velocity could reach 80 knots, significant wave height could reach 30 feet, and the current could be 1.5 knots. If these conditions occurred at the same time from the beam, the total environmental force would be __________.

    a. 620 kips
    b. 595 kips
    c. 475 kips
    d. 425 kips
8071: It is proposed to moor the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet of water in a region in which the effective wind velocity could reach 80 knots, significant wave height could reach 30 feet, and the current could be 1.5 knots. If these conditions occurred at the same time from the beam, the total environmental force would be __________.

    a. 620 kips
    b. 595 kips
    c. 475 kips
    d. 425 kips
8073: A person who holds a foreign license can serve as the ballast control operator to meet manning requirements on a MODU on waters outside U.S. jurisdiction until the __________.

    a. MODU's contract is completed
    b. Certificate of Inspection is renewed
    c. MODU returns to a U.S. port
    d. Operations Manual is revised
8075: A semisubmersible is more likely to experience structural stresses during heavy weather when __________.

    a. operating at drilling draft
    b. deballasting to survival draft
    c. when at survival draft
    d. when at transit draft
8077: Progressive flooding on a MODU is controlled by securing watertight boundaries and __________.

    a. transferring drill water
    b. dumping bulk materials
    c. pumping out flooded compartments
    d. evacuating the unit
8081: What additional precautions should be taken when making temporary repairs to a MODU that is operating when hydrogen sulfide is present?

    a. Seal off all tank and compartment ventilation.
    b. Remove all bulk materials from the P-tanks.
    c. Provide respiratory protection and monitoring.
    d. All of the above
8091: When preparing a MODU for heavy weather, fuel oil day tanks should be __________.

    a. pumped overboard to calm the seas
    b. drained to the lower hull to reduce free surfaces
    c. filled to ensure that sufficient fuel oil is available during a lengthy emergency
    d. partially drained to increase free surfaces in order to reduce motions
8093: What is the displacement of the DEEP DRILLER with a draft of 19.5 feet in fresh water?

    a. 11,932.8 long tons
    b. 12,232.8 long tons
    c. 12,602.9 long tons
    d. 18,919.8 long tons
8103: The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 200 feet of water, has two knots of current and 70 knot winds. With a maximum leg reaction of 5,840 kips, the maximum wave height for drilling is __________.

    a. 20 feet
    b. 30 feet
    c. 35 feet
    d. 40 feet
8105: What is the port leg reaction for the COASTAL DRILLER if the total weight is 15,000 kips, LCG is 120 feet, and TCG is 1.0?

    a. 4,909 kips
    b. 4,931 kips
    c. 4,950 kips
    d. 5,160 kips
8107: What is the minimum required GML for the DEEP DRILLER in winds less than 70 knots while at a draft of 60 feet?

    a. 0.17 foot
    b. 2.63 feet
    c. 4.34 feet
    d. 9.12 feet
8115: When two ballast pumps used for deballasting a single tank start cavitating, you should __________.

    a. open all valves on the discharge side to permit improved flow
    b. close the valve on the discharge side of the pump to re-acquire suction
    c. close the valve on the suction side of the ballast pump to re-prime the pump
    d. shut down one pump
8117: While in transit, the DEEP DRILLER suffers flooding in the port pump room. Both port bilge pumps are inadequate to dewater the pump room. You may supplement the bilge pumps by using the __________.

    a. starboard ballast pump
    b. port saltwater service pump
    c. port drill water pump
    d. starboard ballast pump and crossover system
8118: Most medium and slow speed diesels are started by what medium?

    a. Electric starting motors
    b. Hydraulics
    c. Compressed air
    d. Ether
8121: While at operating draft, the DEEP DRILLER suffers flooding in the port pump room. Both port bilge pumps are inadequate to dewater the pump room. You may supplement the bilge pumps with the __________.

    a. starboard ballast pump and crossover system
    b. port ballast pump
    c. port saltwater service pump
    d. port drill water pump
8123: To effectively use the crossover system on the DEEP DRILLER to pump from the low side using a high side ballast pump, transverse inclinations should not exceed __________.

    a. 8°
    b. 6°
    c. 4°
    d. 2°
8125: While in transit, the DEEP DRILLER suffers flooding in the starboard pump room. Both starboard bilge pumps are inadequate to dewater the pump room. You may supplement the performance of the bilge pumps by using the __________.

    a. starboard saltwater service pump
    b. starboard drill water pump
    c. starboard ballast pump
    d. port ballast pump and crossover system
8127: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what would be the new height of the transverse metacenter?

    a. 134.95 feet
    b. 135.91 feet
    c. 136.38 feet
    d. 136.89 feet
8131: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of longitudinal moments for the liquid variables if the entire contents of drill water tank #17 are transferred to drill water tank #18?

    a. 181,648 ft-kips
    b. 181,718 ft-kips
    c. 187,345 ft-kips
    d. 195,462 ft-kips
8147: The DEEP DRILLER has a KGL of 53.16 feet while at a draft of 58.0 feet. Although there are no environmental forces, trim is 2.0 feet by the stern. What is the value of LCG?

    a. 2.16 feet
    b. 2.26 feet
    c. 2.36 feet
    d. 2.46 feet
8151: Laying down drill pipe from the derrick of a semisubmersible on location reduces the __________.

    a. natural roll period
    b. metacentric height
    c. waterplane area
    d. righting moment
8153: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet and a total vertical moment of 1,012,598 foot-tons, pumps 2,068.7 long tons of ballast overboard. The VCG of the discharged ballast is 15.0 feet. What is the new height of the center of gravity?

    a. 50.62 feet
    b. 55.89 feet
    c. 60.56 feet
    d. 61.16 feet
8155: The moment created by a force of 12,000 tons and a moment arm of 0.25 foot is __________.

    a. 48,000 ft-tons
    b. 6,000 ft-tons
    c. 3,000 ft-tons
    d. 0 ft-tons
8156: Category 1 EPIRBs are required to be carried on board __________.

    a. small passenger vessels on the Great Lakes
    b. all deep draft vessels
    c. fishing industry vessels
    d. small passenger vessels
8157: A moment of 300 ft-tons is created by a force of 15,000 tons. What is the moment arm?

    a. 50.00 feet
    b. 25.00 feet
    c. 0.04 foot
    d. 0.02 foot
8161: A semisubmersible, displacing 20,500 long tons, has vertical moments of 1,060,000 foot-long tons. What is the change in KG if 500 long tons are discharged from a VCG of 120 feet?

    a. 1.22 feet downward
    b. 1.71 feet downward
    c. 1.75 feet downward
    d. 2.93 feet downward
8163: The ship's drawings for use when the DEEP DRILLER is damaged are available in the __________.

    a. wheelhouse under glass
    b. toolpusher's quarters
    c. OIM's office
    d. ballast control room
8165: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #2 (Ballast to Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank 1S. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

    a. pump from 2S
    b. pump from C1S
    c. pump from 1S
    d. counterflood in 10P
8167: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #2 (Ballast to Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank 10S. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

    a. pump from 10S
    b. pump from C3S
    c. pump from 9S
    d. counterflood in 1P
8171: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #2 (Ballast to Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Pumping from tanks in the vicinity of the damage have proven ineffective. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

    a. counterflood in 1P
    b. counterflood in 10S
    c. pump from C1P
    d. pump from C3S
8173: When elevating the COASTAL DRILLER in 100 feet of water, the unit should be placed at an air gap of __________.

    a. 35 feet
    b. 32 feet
    c. 30 feet
    d. 25 feet
8175: When elevating the COASTAL DRILLER in 150 feet of water, the unit should be placed at an air gap of __________.

    a. 35 feet
    b. 32 feet
    c. 30 feet
    d. 25 feet
8177: When elevating the COASTAL DRILLER in 200 feet of water, the unit should be placed at an air gap of __________.

    a. 35 feet
    b. 32 feet
    c. 30 feet
    d. 25 feet
8181: When the COASTAL DRILLER is afloat, the water for the saltwater eductor system is provided by __________.

    a. raw water tower pumps
    b. fire pumps
    c. bilge pumps
    d. mud pumps
8183: When extracting the legs from the soil, the hull of the COASTAL DRILLER may be pulled down until the draft is __________.

    a. at the maximum load line draft
    b. one foot less than maximum load line draft
    c. one foot deeper than maximum load line draft
    d. one foot deeper than calculated afloat draft
8184: What is an advantage of diesel over steam turbine propulsion?

    a. Less fuel consumption per SHP
    b. Diesel fuel costs less than bunker C or its equivalent
    c. Less routine maintenance required
    d. Less weight per SHP
8185: When the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, the water for the saltwater eductor system is provided by __________.

    a. raw water tower pumps
    b. fire pumps
    c. bilge pumps
    d. mud pumps
8186: Your drafts are: FWD 16'-02", AFT 20'-08". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1.

    a. 920 foot-tons
    b. 935 foot-tons
    c. 960 foot-tons
    d. 980 foot-tons
8187: The maximum variable load for the COASTAL DRILLER while elevated in a severe storm is __________.

    a. 2,381 kips
    b. 3,381 kips
    c. 7,099 kips
    d. 21,297 kips
8191: During a severe storm while the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, on board loads must be shifted so that the TCG is on the centerline and the LCG is __________.

    a. 40.00 feet AF0
    b. 68.33 feet AF0
    c. 119.44 feet AF0
    d. 160.33 feet AF0
8193: In a severe storm while elevated, the drilling loads on the COASTAL DRILLER must be considered as __________.

    a. hook loads
    b. setback loads
    c. rotary loads
    d. variable loads
8195: The COASTAL DRILLER, while in transit, expects the winds to increase to 75 knots. In order to meet the stability and leg strength requirements, the tip-of-can (TOC) position should be at __________.

    a. 0.00 feet (flush with bottom of hull)
    b. 1.20 feet
    c. 12.38 feet
    d. 60.50 feet
8197: If a severe storm threatens the COASTAL DRILLER while elevated as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), the variable loads would have to be reduced by __________.

    a. 3,282.5 kips
    b. 2,381.0 kips
    c. 1,000.0 kips
    d. 901.5 kips
8198: On a vessel of 6500 tons displacement, a tank 30 ft. long, 32 ft. wide and 15 ft. deep is half filled with oil cargo (S.G. 0.948) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?

    a. 3240
    b. 2731
    c. 2162
    d. 1336
8201: While on an ocean tow, the COASTAL DRILLER is threatened with the approach of a severe storm. Including the time required to place the generators on-line, the approximate time required to lower the legs from a TOC (tip-of-can) position of 12.38 feet to 60.5 feet is __________.

    a. 8 minutes
    b. 32 minutes
    c. 40 minutes
    d. 47 minutes
8203: While on a normal tow, the COASTAL DRILLER is threatened with the approach of a severe storm. Including the time required to place the generators on-line, the approximate time required to lower the legs from a TOC (tip-of-can) position of 1.20 feet to 60.50 feet is __________.

    a. 8 minutes
    b. 32 minutes
    c. 47 minutes
    d. 55 minutes
8205: While on an ocean tow, the COASTAL DRILLER is threatened with the approach of a severe storm. The legs should be lowered so that the TOC (tip-of-can) is lowered from 12.38 feet to __________.

    a. 48.12 feet
    b. 60.50 feet
    c. 68.50 feet
    d. 78.50 feet
8207: While on a normal tow, the COASTAL DRILLER is threatened with the approach of a severe storm. The legs should be lowered so that the TOC (tip-of-can) is lowered from 1.20 feet to __________.

    a. 2.20 feet
    b. 12.38 feet
    c. 48.12 feet
    d. 60.50 feet
8211: When preloading the COASTAL DRILLER, the minimum total weight shall not be less than __________.

    a. 21,497 kips
    b. 21,297 kips
    c. 17,700 kips
    d. 14,400 kips
8213: What fitting should you install in the rig piping to a pump to facilitate disconnecting the pump for servicing?

    a. Coupling
    b. Union
    c. Flange
    d. Nipple
8215: In the piping systems of a MODU, what type of valve gives the least resistance to fluid flow when fully open?

    a. Globe valve
    b. Butterfly valve
    c. Gate valve
    d. Packless valve
8217: What is the purpose of a striker plate?

    a. Provides surface for applying force on machinery
    b. Provides landing surface for the sounding bob
    c. Absorbs machinery vibration
    d. Prevents valve stem over-travel
8221: What is the purpose of a vent header?

    a. Prevents entry of water into vent systems
    b. Prevents passage of flame into fuel tanks
    c. Catches overflow
    d. Combines individual vent lines into a main
8222: Which will improve stability?

    a. Closing watertight doors
    b. Pumping the bilges
    c. Loading cargo on deck
    d. Consuming fuel from a full tank
8223: What is the purpose of a check valve?

    a. Passes air but not liquid
    b. Regulates liquid flow
    c. Permits flow in one direction only
    d. Passes liquid but not air
8225: On what type of pump would you find an impeller?

    a. Centrifugal
    b. Gear
    c. Piston
    d. Vane
8235: What is the proper direction of flow through a globe valve when the valve is installed to be in a normally open position?

    a. Direction is unimportant
    b. Depends on seat configuration
    c. From below the seat
    d. From above the seat
8235: What is the proper direction of flow through a globe valve when the valve is installed to be in a normally open position?

    a. Direction is unimportant
    b. Depends on seat configuration
    c. From below the seat
    d. From above the seat
8257: When taking soundings on a floating MODU, the tape should be lowered and brought back quickly to __________.

    a. reduce the time the sounding tube is open
    b. avoid creating a spark
    c. lessen the effect of roll or pitch on the reading
    d. lessen the effect of heave on the reading
8257: When taking soundings on a floating MODU, the tape should be lowered and brought back quickly to __________.

    a. reduce the time the sounding tube is open
    b. avoid creating a spark
    c. lessen the effect of roll or pitch on the reading
    d. lessen the effect of heave on the reading
8261: When taking soundings on a MODU, coating the tape with chalk helps to __________.

    a. better identify the correct reading
    b. show the depth of any water in an oil tank
    c. make the tape roll easier
    d. reduce possibility of sparks
8263: When removing the cap from a sounding tube on a MODU, the sound of air escaping indicates the tank __________.

    a. is full
    b. may be partially flooded
    c. level has dropped
    d. is completely flooded
8275: In a wire rope mooring system, the fairlead sheave should be a minimum of __________.

    a. 10-18 times the diameter of the wire rope
    b. 18-36 times the diameter of the wire rope
    c. 36-50 times the diameter of the wire rope
    d. 50-75 times the diameter of the wire rope
8277: An effective braking system for windlasses on rigs in deep water is a(n) __________.

    a. larger chain stopper
    b. disc backstopping brake
    c. hydraulic clutch
    d. electrical regenerative braking system
8281: In storm conditions, when the DEEP DRILLER is in 600 feet water depth, and the high-line tension (HLT) is 350 kips, completely slacking the two leeward mooring line tensions reduces the HLT to __________.

    a. 375 kips
    b. 275 kips
    c. 245 kips
    d. 220 kips
8283: When the alarm bell sounds on a positive-pressure, self-contained breathing apparatus, how long will reserve air supply last?

    a. About 4-5 minutes
    b. About 8-10 minutes
    c. About 12-15 minutes
    d. About 18-20 minutes
8285: The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing device should be opened if __________.

    a. you are entering a space containing poisonous vapors
    b. you are entering a space containing explosive gases
    c. the regulator of the breathing apparatus malfunctions
    d. the facepiece of the breathing device is too tight
8287: Automatic mechanical ventilation shutdown is required for CO2 systems protecting the __________.

    a. machinery spaces
    b. cargo compartments
    c. living quarters
    d. galley
8288: What is NOT used as a stern tube bearing, on a large vessel?

    a. Wooden (lignum vitae) strips
    b. Hard rubber
    c. Resin bonded composition
    d. Bronze bushings
8293: Failure of both port-side ballast pumps on the DEEP DRILLER prevents their use. To dewater from the port forward tanks, you should use the __________.

    a. port saltwater service pump
    b. port drill water pump
    c. port bilge pumps
    d. starboard ballast pump and crossover system
8295: The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the port pump room. If both port bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you should use the __________.

    a. port drill water pump
    b. port saltwater service pump
    c. port ballast pumps
    d. starboard ballast pumps and crossover system
8297: The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the starboard pump room. If both starboard bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you should use the __________.

    a. starboard drill water pump
    b. starboard saltwater service pump
    c. starboard ballast pumps
    d. port ballast pumps and crossover system
8303: On a MODU, if there is a probability of encountering H2S during the drilling of a well, air movers (bug blowers) should be installed to dilute concentration of H2S at the __________.

    a. pipe rack
    b. crown block
    c. shale shaker
    d. All of the above
8305: Since accumulations of H2S gas on a MODU can be dangerous to personnel, it is important to know that H2S gas is __________.

    a. lighter than air
    b. heavier than air
    c. a yellow gas that is easily recognized
    d. mildly toxic
8307: The sense of smell cannot be depended upon to detect H2S because __________.

    a. it has a smell similar to petroleum products
    b. hydrogen sulfide gas is odorless
    c. the sense of smell is deadened by the gas
    d. it is better to rely on eye irritation as a detector
8311: High concentrations of H2S gas are most dangerous to personnel because they can __________.

    a. cause involuntary muscle contractions
    b. paralyze your breathing system
    c. cause eye inflammation
    d. cause dizziness
8313: The worst atmospheric condition for dispersion of H2S is __________.

    a. heavy rain
    b. gusty winds with rain
    c. nearly calm, clear nights or early morning
    d. full sun with high winds
8315: The airborne concentrations of substances (such as H2S) under which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effects are called __________.

    a. exposure limits
    b. concentration limits
    c. threshold limit values
    d. substance limit values
8317: The minimum concentration of H2S which can cause death if a person is exposed for even an instant is __________.

    a. 200 ppm
    b. 400 ppm
    c. 600 ppm
    d. 1000 ppm
8321: The maximum concentration of H2S to which workers may be regularly exposed without adverse effects is __________.

    a. 10 ppm
    b. 20 ppm
    c. 40 ppm
    d. 80 ppm
8323: The Lethal Concentration of H2S that will cause death with short-term exposure is a minimum of __________.

    a. 100 ppm
    b. 200 ppm
    c. 400 ppm
    d. 700 ppm
8325: If H2S exposure is anticipated, fixed monitoring devices aboard a MODU should have a low level concentration alarm to alert personnel when H2S concentrations first reach a maximum of __________.

    a. 10 PPM
    b. 20 PPM
    c. 30 PPM
    d. 40 PPM
8327: When H2S has been encountered on a MODU, or is anticipated, monitoring devices must sound an alarm (which differs from the lower concentration alarm) or otherwise warn employees when concentration of H2S reaches or exceeds how many parts per million?

    a. 20
    b. 50
    c. 100
    d. 200
8331: When H2S is burned (flared) on a MODU, what can you expect to occur?

    a. All of the H2S will be converted to SO2.
    b. All of the H2S will be converted to hydrogen and free sulfur.
    c. Only 80% of the H2S will be converted to SO2 or free sulfur.
    d. The H2S not converted will not be dangerous.
8332: What type of stern tube bearing has the least friction?

    a. Oil-lubricated bearings
    b. Lignum vitae
    c. Hard rubber
    d. Bronze bushings
8333: Individuals who have consumed alcohol within 24 hours of exposure to H2S can tolerate __________.

    a. unusually large concentrations of H2S
    b. smaller than normal concentrations of H2S
    c. moderate concentrations of H2S without the usual reactions
    d. longer exposure to H2S concentrations
8335: Requirements for H2S preparation and equipment usage aboard MODU's in U.S. offshore waters are administered by the __________.

    a. U.S. Coast Guard
    b. U.S. Corps of Engineers
    c. Minerals Management Service
    d. American National Standards Institute
8337: What is the percentage of oxygen in a typical sample of uncontaminated air?

    a. 12 percent
    b. 15 percent
    c. 18 percent
    d. 21 percent
8341: Clean air standards referred to as "Grade D" apply to compressed air for use in __________.

    a. high pressure fluid accumulators
    b. driving air-powered plunger pumps
    c. filling open-circuit breathing systems
    d. bladder-type accumulators
8342: Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause __________.

    a. the accumulation of explosive gases
    b. the fire to spread through the ventilation system
    c. faster cooling of the fire
    d. fixed foam systems to be ineffective
8343: The probability of sulfide stress cracking in the presence of hydrogen sulfide is greatest for __________.

    a. low strength steel
    b. high strength steel
    c. rubber sealing elements
    d. aluminum
8345: For H2S detection, sensitized tapes indicate H2S presence by means of discoloration of an exposed spot on the tape. The shade of the color on the spot depends upon the concentration of H2S and __________.

    a. air temperature at the time of the exposure
    b. air pressure at the time of the exposure
    c. humidity at the time of exposure
    d. duration of the exposure
8347: All diesel engines are classified as __________.

    a. four cycle
    b. compression ignition
    c. vacuum ignition
    d. external combustion
8351: What is a pinion in a jacking system?

    a. Flexible coupling
    b. Flexible shaft
    c. Flexible joint
    d. Gearwheel
8353: What power source actuates a solenoid valve?

    a. Air pressure
    b. Hydraulic pressure
    c. Electric current
    d. Mechanical force
8355: What quality of a diesel fuel is most significant for efficient combustion?

    a. Volatility
    b. Viscosity
    c. Flash point
    d. Specific heat
8357: What is the principle behind dynamic braking as used on an anchor windlass?

    a. Electrical loading
    b. Mechanical distribution
    c. Compressibility of air
    d. Mechanical friction
8361: What is the effect of heated intake air on a diesel engine?

    a. Increases efficiency
    b. Increases engine horsepower
    c. Increases engine life
    d. Reduces engine horsepower
8363: Lubricating oil should be changed on a heavy duty diesel engine when __________.

    a. it gets dark in color
    b. a sample rubbed between fingers feels thin
    c. it has been in use for a specified interval
    d. it no longer supports combustion
8367: How would the exhaust of a properly operating diesel engine appear?

    a. Light blue haze
    b. Light brown haze
    c. Light gray haze
    d. Perfectly clear
8371: Each cylinder in a two stroke cycle engine experiences combustion __________.

    a. once each crankshaft revolution
    b. twice each crankshaft revolution
    c. every other crankshaft revolution
    d. every fourth stroke
8373: How does combustion air enter the cylinder of a two-cycle diesel engine?

    a. Cylinder head valves
    b. Ports
    c. Turbo chargers
    d. Bleeder valves
8375: Maintaining good working order of fuel pumps and injectors in auxiliary diesel engines requires the use of __________.

    a. fuel/water separators
    b. day tanks
    c. an injector test stand
    d. fuel filters
8377: What factor is essential to the proper operation of a radiator cooled engine?

    a. Cooling water pressure
    b. Jacket water treatment
    c. Air flow through the radiator
    d. Low heat of combustion
8381: What are the three basic types of engine starters?

    a. Air, water, electric
    b. Air, hydraulic, electric
    c. Metered, hydraulic, automatic
    d. Air, emergency, hydraulic
8383: What does a pyrometer measure on a diesel engine?

    a. Water temperature
    b. Water pressure
    c. Exhaust temperature
    d. Air box pressure
8384: A moment of 300 ft-tons is created by a force of 15,000 tons. What is the moment arm?

    a. 50.00 feet
    b. 25.00 feet
    c. 0.04 foot
    d. 0.02 foot
8385: What condition will result in the automatic shutdown of a diesel engine?

    a. High jacket water pressure
    b. High lube oil pressure
    c. Low lube oil pressure
    d. Excessive turbo charger speed
8387: On a MODU, the possibility of a blowout makes which type of diesel engine shutdown desirable?

    a. Overspeed trip
    b. Air inlet shut-off valve
    c. Water injector
    d. Fuel cutoff valve
8391: What monitoring device best indicates the load being carried by a diesel engine?

    a. Lube oil pressure gauge
    b. Jacket water temperature gauge
    c. Tachometer
    d. Exhaust pyrometer
8392: You are preparing for what promises to be a rough ocean passage. Your 120-foot schooner carries a yard on the foremast about 50 feet above the water. The yard weighs about 1000 pounds. If you take the yard down and stow it on deck for the trip, you will __________.

    a. decrease the GM
    b. give the vessel a gentler roll
    c. increase the metacentric height
    d. decrease the reserve buoyancy
8393: Diesel engines obtain combustion air through turbo chargers, blowers, or __________.

    a. air starters
    b. carburetors
    c. natural aspiration
    d. air receivers
8395: What is the purpose of the intake/exhaust valves in a diesel engine?

    a. They regulate the combustion cycle.
    b. They supply cooling water.
    c. They synchronize the ignition spark.
    d. They supply and regulate the lubricant flow.
8397: What is the best indication of the loading of a diesel engine?

    a. Oil temperature
    b. Manifold pressure
    c. Exhaust gas temperature
    d. Fuel consumption
8403: What is the most probable cause of reduced capacity in a reciprocating air compressor?

    a. Carbon on cylinder heads
    b. Faulty unloader
    c. Leaking air valves
    d. Plugged air cooler
8405: The most serious effect of oxygen retained in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it __________.

    a. causes corrosion
    b. reduces the effectiveness of the coolant
    c. can form air pockets which exclude coolant contact with hot surfaces
    d. accelerates formation of hydrogen peroxide deposits
8407: If you are unable to stop a diesel engine by any other means, you should __________.

    a. discharge a CO2 extinguisher in the air inlet
    b. pull off the distributor cap
    c. secure the jacket water
    d. secure the starting air supply valve
8411: What is one effect of running a diesel engine at too cool a temperature?

    a. Buildup of sludge in the lubricating system
    b. Excessive fuel consumption
    c. Severe heat stresses on mechanical parts
    d. Foaming of the lubricating oil
8412: When abandoning ship and jumping into the water from a substantial height, you should __________.

    a. dive head first using your hands to break the surface of the water
    b. hold your arms firmly at your sides and jump feet first
    c. throw your life jacket into the water first and then jump feet first into the water next to it
    d. jump feet first, holding onto your life jacket with one hand while covering your nose and mouth with the other
8415: The three conditions which cause engine shutdown are overspeed, low lube oil pressure, and __________.

    a. high lube oil pressure
    b. high jacket water pressure
    c. high jacket water temperature
    d. low jacket water pressure
8417: Sudden unloading of a diesel engine can cause __________.

    a. decreased fuel efficiency
    b. increased exhaust temperature
    c. black smoke
    d. overspeed trip
8421: If an engine shuts down due to high jacket water temperature, what action should be taken?

    a. Open crankcase explosion covers
    b. Allow engine to cool gradually
    c. Slowly add cool water to the expansion tank
    d. Back flush the cooling water system
8431: The International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificate required by MARPOL is issued to U.S. flag MODUs by the __________.

    a. International Maritime Organization
    b. U.S. Coast Guard
    c. American Bureau of Shipping
    d. Environmental Protection Agency
8433: The International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate on a MODU is valid for a period of __________.

    a. one year from the date of issue
    b. two years from the date of issue
    c. three years from the date of issue
    d. four years from the date of issue
8435: A MODU which is required to carry an Oil Record Book must log in the book __________.

    a. discharge of ballast or cleaning water from fuel tanks
    b. sounding levels of all fuel tanks on a daily basis
    c. the grade and specific gravity of all fuel oil carried
    d. fuel consumption rates on a weekly basis
8437: A MODU required to carry an Oil Record Book must maintain the book on board for __________.

    a. one year
    b. two years
    c. three years
    d. four years
8440: Addition of weight above the center of gravity of a vessel will ALWAYS __________.

    a. reduce initial stability
    b. increase righting moments
    c. increase GM
    d. All of the above
8441: The regulations regarding Oil Record Books do not apply to MODU's that __________.

    a. are on an international voyage
    b. are on a voyage of more than 24 hours
    c. have a valid International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate
    d. have a valid National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit
8443: The requirement to carry an Oil Record Book does not apply to a MODU that __________.

    a. is not equipped to discharge overboard any oil or oily mixture
    b. is on an international voyage to a country that is a party to MARPOL
    c. has an International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate
    d. has an oily water separator of sufficient capacity for the oil wastes generated
8445: Under the regulations implementing MARPOL, a mobile offshore drilling unit is required to have an International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificate when the unit __________.

    a. is drilling on the Outer Continental Shelf
    b. moves to a new drilling location in U.S. waters
    c. engages in a voyage to a port of another country which is a party of MARPOL
    d. All of the above
8447: Where is thicker plating usually found in the construction of integral tanks on a MODU?

    a. On the outside of the tank
    b. At the bottom of the tank
    c. At the top of the tank
    d. At the center of the tank
8477: You are on a semisubmersible being towed and are concerned that a fishing vessel is not taking sufficient action to avoid you. To signal your concern, you should __________.

    a. fire a red flare at 15 second intervals
    b. fire a green flare at 15 second intervals
    c. sound five or more short blasts on the whistle
    d. broadcast a Mayday message on the radiotelephone
8481: A jack-up 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AF0 has a true mean draft (draft at LCF) of 10 feet. If the trim is 3 feet by the stern, what is the draft at the stern?

    a. 8.0 feet
    b. 9.0 feet
    c. 11.0 feet
    d. 12.0 feet
8483: A jack-up 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AFO has a true mean draft (draft at LCF) of 10 feet. If the trim is 3 feet by the stern, what is the draft at the stern?

    a. 8.0 feet
    b. 9.0 feet
    c. 11.0 feet
    d. 12.0 feet
8485: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has a KGL of 55.4 feet and an LCG of 2.43 feet. What is the trim angle?

    a. 2° by the head
    b. 2° by the stern
    c. 4° by the head
    d. 4° by the stern
8487: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 19 feet, has a KGL of 59.91 feet and an LCG of 1.57 feet. What is the trim angle?

    a. 0.2° by the stern
    b. 0.3° by the stern
    c. 0.4° by the stern
    d. 0.5° by the stern
8487: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 19 feet, has a KGL of 59.91 feet and an LCG of 1.57 feet. What is the trim angle?

    a. 0.2° by the stern
    b. 0.3° by the stern
    c. 0.4° by the stern
    d. 0.5° by the stern
8491: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 50 feet, has a KGT of 52.12 feet and TCG of 0.5 foot to port of the longitudinal centerline. What is the list in feet?

    a. 2.7 feet to port
    b. 5.4 feet to port
    c. 5.7 feet to port
    d. 10.8 feet to port
8493: What is the value of KML for the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet?

    a. 59.63 feet
    b. 60.16 feet
    c. 61.68 feet
    d. 61.13 feet
8505: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the improvement in KGL?

    a. 0.67 foot
    b. 0.98 foot
    c. 1.15 feet
    d. 2.06 feet
8511: An elevated jack-up weighs 17,000 kips. Its center of gravity is located 110 feet aft of frame zero (AF0). What would be the new LCG if the cantilever (weight 900 kips) and drill floor (weight 800 kips) were skidded 70 feet aft?

    a. 103.0 feet AF0
    b. 113.4 feet AF0
    c. 117.0 feet AF0
    d. 180.0 feet AF0
8513: An elevated jack-up weighs 14,000 kips. Its TCG is located 1.0 foot to port of the centerline. What would be the new TCG for the jack-up if the drill floor, weighing 700 kips, is skidded 10 feet to starboard?

    a. 9.00 feet starboard
    b. 0.50 foot starboard
    c. 0.50 foot port
    d. 1.0 foot port
8515: While preparing for a storm when elevated, the total weight of the COASTAL DRILLER is 14,150 kips, LM are 1,712,150 ft-kips, and TM are -9,905 ft-kips. The starboard leg reaction is __________.

    a. 4,536 kips
    b. 4,698 kips
    c. 4,725 kips
    d. 4,890 kips
8517: While preparing for a storm when elevated, the total weight of the COASTAL DRILLER is 14,150 kips. LM are 1,712,150 ft-kips, and TM are -9,905 ft-kips. The port leg reaction is __________.

    a. 4,536 kips
    b. 4,716 kips
    c. 4,824 kips
    d. 4,890 kips
8521: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,435 kips. The LM are 1,975,680 ft-kips and the TM are -15,435 ft-kips. What is the bow leg reaction?

    a. 4,060 kips
    b. 5,145 kips
    c. 5,559 kips
    d. 5,816 kips
8523: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling has a total weight of 15,435 kips. The LM are 1,975,680 ft-kips and the TM are -15,435 ft-kips. What is the starboard leg reaction?

    a. 4,060 kips
    b. 5,145 kips
    c. 5,559 kips
    d. 5,816 kips
8527: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,435 kips. The LM are 1,975,680 ft-kips and the TM are -15,435 ft-kips. What is the port leg reaction?

    a. 4,060 kips
    b. 5,145 kips
    c. 5,559 kips
    d. 5,816 kips
8533: If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations on a MODU, what action should you take FIRST?

    a. Wait for the person in charge to act.
    b. Notify the ballast control operator.
    c. Shut down the transfer operation.
    d. Sound the fire alarm.
8535: You are transferring fuel from a supply vessel to your MODU. If you close off one tank in the line of tanks being filled, the rate of flow to other open tanks on the same line will __________.

    a. increase
    b. decrease
    c. stop
    d. stabilize
8537: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while in transit is 7 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 7°. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.

    a. satisfactory, keep the unit at transit draft
    b. satisfactory, put the unit in standby
    c. unsatisfactory, ballast to survival draft
    d. unsatisfactory, place unit in standby
8541: The process of waiting a period of time before pretensioning an anchor is known as __________.

    a. soaking
    b. settling
    c. sinking
    d. bedding in
8543: It is proposed to moor the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet of water in a region in which the effective wind velocity could reach 80 knots, significant wave height could reach 30 feet, and the current could be 1.5 knots. If these conditions occurred at the same time from the bow, the environmental force due to the wind would be __________.

    a. 595 kips
    b. 475 kips
    c. 425 kips
    d. 300 kips
8545: It is proposed to moor the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet of water in a region in which the effective wind velocity could reach 80 knots, significant wave height could reach 30 feet, and the current could be 1.5 knots. If these conditions occurred at the same time from the bow, the total environmental force would be __________.

    a. 620 kips
    b. 595 kips
    c. 475 kips
    d. 425 kips
8547: What does the term "head" mean when applied to a pump?

    a. Length of its discharge pipe
    b. Height of its discharge pipe
    c. Difference between the discharge and suction pressures
    d. Sum of discharge and suction pressures
8551: On offshore drilling units, each fire station is required to be fitted with at least one spanner and at least one __________.

    a. fire axe
    b. hose rack
    c. sandbag
    d. scupper
8553: On offshore drilling units, each fire station is required to be fitted with a hose which has a nominal diameter of __________.

    a. 1-1/2 or 2-1/2 inches
    b. 2 or 3 inches
    c. 2-1/2 or 3-1/2 inches
    d. 3 or 4 inches
8555: The discharge side of every fire pump must be equipped with a __________.

    a. gate valve
    b. pressure gauge
    c. check valve
    d. strainer
8557: Each fire pump on a MODU must have a pressure gauge located at __________.

    a. the pump discharge
    b. the manifold connection
    c. each fire station discharge
    d. the pump station
8561: On a MODU, a fire pump may be used for other purposes if __________.

    a. the other services are run off a reducing station with a pressure gage
    b. a separate fire pump is available for use on the fire main
    c. all other services are operated by a manifold near the pump
    d. All of the above
8563: How often must CO2 systems be inspected to confirm cylinders are within 10% of the stamped full weight of the charge?

    a. quarterly
    b. semiannually
    c. annually
    d. biannually
8575: If a man falls overboard from a rig under tow, you should FIRST __________.

    a. notify the tug
    b. deploy life buoys
    c. launch a boat
    d. sound the general alarm
8576: The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE?

    a. A fusible link will automatically open after a fire is extinguished and reset the damper.
    b. Fusible links must be replaced if a damper is activated.
    c. Fusible links are tested by applying a source of heat to them.
    d. Fusible links must be replaced at every inspection for certification.
8577: The indication of a slipping anchor is a(n) __________.

    a. decrease in mooring line length
    b. increase in the opposite amperage
    c. increase in the opposite line tension
    d. decrease in mooring line tension and amperage
8581: Survival practice in the mooring system is to slack off the tensions on the leeward side and __________.

    a. deballast the unit to transit draft
    b. adjust as evenly as practical the windward tensions
    c. release the anchors on the windward side
    d. tighten the anchor buoys on the leeward side anchors
8583: After cranes have been installed on offshore drilling units the hooks, hook block, slings, rib and other rigging must be load tested. This test must be performed once each __________.

    a. 12 months
    b. 24 months
    c. 36 months
    d. 48 months
8584: When transferring survivors from an enclosed lifeboat to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the boat should __________.

    a. remove their life preservers to make it easier to climb on board the rescue vessel
    b. climb on top of the boat while waiting for their turn to transfer to the rescue vessel
    c. remain seated inside and make the transfer one person at a time
    d. enter the water and swim over to the rescue vessel
8585: A MODU must have on board a first-aid kit that is approved by the __________.

    a. Minerals Management Service
    b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
    c. Mine Safety and Health Administration
    d. American Bureau of Shipping
8587: The person assigned to command a lifeboat or inflatable liferaft on a MODU shall have a list of the persons assigned to the lifeboat or liferaft. The list shall include each person's __________.

    a. home address
    b. duties
    c. home phone number
    d. nearest relative's address
8591: Prior to burning or welding on a fuel tank on a MODU, regulations require that an inspection be made. An entry in the unofficial logbook is required if this inspection is made by __________.

    a. a marine chemist
    b. the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection
    c. the Master or person in charge of the MODU
    d. the National Fire Protection Association
8593: Who is responsible for insuring that the accommodations on a mobile offshore drilling unit are maintained in a clean and sanitary condition?

    a. The galley personnel
    b. The safety man
    c. The relief toolpusher
    d. The designated person in charge
8595: When a survival craft drill is held, the person in charge must insure that __________.

    a. all survival craft are lowered to the water, launched, and operated for thirty minutes
    b. all davits used for launching liferafts are operated
    c. each emergency position indicating radio beacon is tested for thirty minutes
    d. the helicopter pad landing lights are operating in a quick-flashing mode
8597: On offshore drilling units, the EPIRB on board is required to be tested __________.

    a. daily
    b. weekly
    c. monthly
    d. yearly
8601: Offshore drilling units must have at least two ring buoys with water lights that, when released from the mounting rack, activate a __________.

    a. smoke signal
    b. steam whistle
    c. battery powered horn
    d. radio signal
8603: On offshore drilling units, the lifeboats must be lowered to the water and maneuvered at least once every __________.

    a. 2 months
    b. 3 months
    c. 6 months
    d. 12 months
8605: On offshore drilling units, the lifeboat motors shall be operated in the ahead and astern position at least once each __________.

    a. day
    b. week
    c. month
    d. year
8615: The LWT anchor has two angular positions for the flukes. These are __________.

    a. 30° and 40°
    b. 30° and 50°
    c. 30° and 60°
    d. 40° and 60°
8621: What is the transverse shift in the center of gravity if 200 short tons are placed 10 feet to port of the centerline on a MODU with TCG 0.7 foot starboard of the centerline, and the displacement is 9,000 short tons?

    a. 0.03 foot
    b. 0.20 foot
    c. 0.23 foot
    d. 0.62 foot
8623: What is the new location of the transverse center of gravity if 200 short tons are placed 10 feet to port of the centerline on a MODU with TCG 0.7 foot starboard of the centerline, and displacement 9,000 short tons?

    a. 0.47 foot starboard of centerline
    b. 0.40 foot starboard of centerline
    c. 0.23 foot port of centerline
    d. 0.20 foot port of centerline
8625: What is the new location of the transverse center of gravity if 200 short tons are discharged from 10 feet to port of the centerline on a MODU with TCG 0.7 foot starboard of the centerline, and the displacement is 9,000 short tons?

    a. 0.94 foot starboard of centerline
    b. 0.90 foot starboard of centerline
    c. 0.47 foot port of centerline
    d. 0.23 foot port of centerline
8627: What is the shift in the longitudinal center of gravity if 200 short tons are discharged from 30 feet forward of amidships on a MODU with LCG 1.5 feet forward of amidships, and displacement 9,000 short tons?

    a. 0.62 foot aft
    b. 0.65 foot aft
    c. 0.68 foot aft
    d. 0.71 foot aft
8631: What is the new location of the longitudinal center of gravity if 200 short tons are discharged from 30 feet forward of amidships on a MODU with LCG 1.5 feet forward of amidships, and displacement 9,000 short tons?

    a. 0.88 foot forward of amidships
    b. 0.85 foot forward of amidships
    c. 0.82 foot forward of amidships
    d. 0.79 foot forward of amidships
8635: A weight of 1,000 kips is equivalent to __________.

    a. 1,000 pounds
    b. 2,000 short tons
    c. 2,240 pounds
    d. 500 short tons
8637: Which type of hull damage on a floating MODU should be repaired first?

    a. Damage below the waterline
    b. Damage to interior watertight boundaries
    c. Damage to/in machinery rooms
    d. Damage at or just above the waterline
8643: The analysis of damaged stability for the DEEP DRILLER, disregards the beneficial effects of countermeasures and __________.

    a. horizontal area of the platform
    b. vertical area of the platform
    c. wind strength
    d. mooring system
8645: In the analysis of damaged stability for the DEEP DRILLER, disregarded are the beneficial effects of moorings and __________.

    a. horizontal area of the platform
    b. vertical area of the platform
    c. countermeasures
    d. wind strength
8647: While the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. Because the tank sounding level and port forward inclination are rapidly increasing, you decide that tank 1P is damaged. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

    a. deballast from tank 2P
    b. dump the mud
    c. counterflood into 9S
    d. counterflood into C3S
8651: While the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. Because the sounding level and port aft inclination are slowly increasing, you decide that tank 10P has minor damage. Among the possible corrective actions is __________.

    a. deballast from tank 9P
    b. dump the mud
    c. counterflood into 2S
    d. counterflood into 10P
8653: While the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the starboard side. Because the sounding level and starboard inclination are rapidly increasing, you decide that tank 1S is damaged. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

    a. deballast from tank 2S
    b. dump the mud
    c. counterflood into 9P
    d. place a wooden plug into the vent of tank 2S
8655: While the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped on the starboard side. Because the sounding level and starboard aft inclination are slowly increasing, you decide that tank 10S has minor damage. Among the possible corrective actions is __________.

    a. deballast from tank 9P
    b. dump the mud
    c. counterflood into 2P
    d. place a wooden plug into the vent of tank 10S
8657: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. If the port aft inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?

    a. 10P
    b. 9P
    c. 10S
    d. 1P
8661: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the starboard side. If the starboard aft inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?

    a. 9S
    b. 8S
    c. 10S
    d. 10P
8662: When may a work vest be substituted for a required life preserver?

    a. To replace a damaged life preserver
    b. For use during fire drills
    c. For use during boat drills
    d. At no time
8663: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the starboard side. If the starboard forward inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?

    a. 1S
    b. 2S
    c. 3S
    d. 1P
8663: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the starboard side. If the starboard forward inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?

    a. 1S
    b. 2S
    c. 3S
    d. 1P
8665: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival) loads an additional 137.88 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 2 feet and the list to port is 3 feet. What is the draft at the port forward draft mark?

    a. 45 feet 6 inches
    b. 46 feet 0 inches
    c. 46 feet 6 inches
    d. 47 feet 0 inches
8671: The plans, for use during emergencies aboard the DEEP DRILLER, are readily available in the __________.

    a. wheelhouse under glass
    b. pump room
    c. OIM's office
    d. ballast control room
8673: The DEEP DRILLER is operating at the maximum allowable KGT at 60 feet draft. What is the value of GMT?

    a. 0.05 foot
    b. 1.02 feet
    c. 2.63 feet
    d. 4.34 feet
8675: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, discharges 275.8 long tons. What is the new draft?

    a. 56 feet
    b. 58 feet
    c. 60 feet
    d. 62 feet
8681: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5, loads 275.8 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 3 feet and list to port is 2 feet. What is the draft at the starboard aft draft mark?

    a. 44 feet 6 inches
    b. 47 feet 0 inches
    c. 47 feet 6 inches
    d. 48 feet 6 inches
8683: With no environmental forces on the DEEP DRILLER, the average of the forward drafts is 61.0 feet, and the average of the aft drafts is 59.0 feet. KGL is 51.13 feet. What is the value of LCG?

    a. -0.12 foot
    b. 0.12 foot
    c. 2.11 feet
    d. 2.35 feet
8685: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, places 275.8 long tons on board. What is the new draft?

    a. 56 feet
    b. 58 feet
    c. 60 feet
    d. 62 feet
8687: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, places 200 long tons on board. What is the new draft?

    a. 56.55 feet
    b. 59.45 feet
    c. 60.00 feet
    d. 75.41 feet
8688: Life floats must be equipped with __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. a sea anchor
    b. a signal mirror
    c. an EPIRB
    d. paddles
8691: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, discharges 200 long tons. What is the new draft?

    a. 55.55 feet
    b. 56.55 feet
    c. 57.05 feet
    d. 59.45 feet
8693: While in transit at a draft of 20.5 feet, the DEEP DRILLER has a KGT of 65.00 feet. What is the GMT?

    a. 7.55 feet
    b. 5.42 feet
    c. 5.30 feet
    d. 5.10 feet
8695: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, discharges 200 long tons. What is the new displacement?

    a. 16,263 long tons
    b. 17,642 long tons
    c. 17,842 long tons
    d. 18,118 long tons
8697: The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, loads 200 long tons. What is the new displacement?

    a. 17,642 long tons
    b. 17,842 long tons
    c. 18,042 long tons
    d. 18,118 long tons
8699: What are the transverse moments for the contents of P-tank #1 of the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 2.3 feet?

    a. 3,049 ft-tons
    b. 3,977 ft-tons
    c. 6,412 ft-tons
    d. 8,362 ft-tons
8701: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). While the unit is deballasting, starboard valve 19 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 9S by pumping from tank 8S by opening valves 20 and __________.

    a. 35
    b. 21
    c. 18
    d. 17
8702: An oil fire is classified as class __________.

    a. D
    b. C
    c. B
    d. A
8703: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival). While the unit is deballasting, port valve 5 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 2P by pumping from tank 1P after opening valves 6 and __________.

    a. 35
    b. 7
    c. 4
    d. 2
8705: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival). While the unit is deballasting, starboard valve 5 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 2S by pumping from tank 1S after opening valves 6 and __________.

    a. 8
    b. 7
    c. 2
    d. 1
8707: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). If port valves 24 and 2 are mistakenly opened, the change in inclination will be increasing trim by the __________.

    a. bow with port list
    b. bow
    c. stern
    d. stern with starboard list
8711: Starboard ballast pump #1 on the DEEP DRILLER has failed. If you want to deballast from the forward-starboard column using starboard pump #2, it is necessary to open valves __________.

    a. 3, 34, 35, 36, 46, and 48
    b. 4, 34, 35, 36, 46, and 48
    c. 3, 34, 36, 46, and 48
    d. 4, 34, 36, 46, and 48
8712: Jettisoning weight from topside __________.

    a. returns the vessel to an even keel
    b. reduces free surface effect
    c. lowers the center of gravity
    d. raises the center of buoyancy
8713: Port ballast pump #1 on the DEEP DRILLER has failed. If you want to deballast the forward-port column using port ballast pump #2, it is necessary to open valves __________.

    a. 3, 34, 35, 36, 46, and 48
    b. 4, 34, 35, 36, 46, and 48
    c. 3, 34, 36, 46, and 48
    d. 4, 34, 36, 46, and 48
8715: Starboard ballast pump #1 on the DEEP DRILLER has failed. To deballast from tank C2SA using starboard ballast pump #2, it is necessary to open the manual valve and which motor driven valves?

    a. 15, 34, 35, 36, 46, 48
    b. 16, 27, 32, 35, 36, 48
    c. 15, 33, 43, 48
    d. 14, 34, 35, 36, 46, 48
8715: Starboard ballast pump #1 on the DEEP DRILLER has failed. To deballast from tank C2SA using starboard ballast pump #2, it is necessary to open the manual valve and which motor driven valves?

    a. 15, 34, 35, 36, 46, 48
    b. 16, 27, 32, 35, 36, 48
    c. 15, 33, 43, 48
    d. 14, 34, 35, 36, 46, 48
8716: The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept open when underway?

    a. They may be kept open if they can be automatically closed from the bridge.
    b. They are to be kept closed at all times.
    c. They may be kept open if the ventilation or air conditioning system is shut down.
    d. They can be kept open if the Muster List ("Station Bill") has personnel designated to close them in case of fire.
8717: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the uncorrected height of the center of gravity?

    a. 52.14 feet
    b. 53.78 feet
    c. 55.03 feet
    d. 58.50 feet
8721: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the transverse free surface correction to KG?

    a. 0.00 feet
    b. 1.03 feet
    c. 1.69 feet
    d. 2.22 feet
8723: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the LCG?

    a. 0.00 feet
    b. 1.69 feet
    c. 2.22 feet
    d. 3.91 feet
8727: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the longitudinal free surface correction to KG?

    a. 0.00 feet
    b. 1.03 feet
    c. 1.69 feet
    d. 2.22 feet
8731: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is TCG?

    a. 0.00 feet
    b. 1.03 feet
    c. 2.22 feet
    d. 3.91 feet
8733: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new LCG?

    a. 0.59 foot
    b. 1.64 feet
    c. 2.23 feet
    d. 2.82 feet
8734: All personnel should be familiar with the lifeboats __________.

    a. boarding and operating procedures
    b. maintenance schedule
    c. navigational systems
    d. fuel consumption rates
8735: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of FSML for Fresh Water if the entire contents of Drill Water Tank #5P are transferred to Tank #5S?

    a. 3,645 ft-tons
    b. 3,328 ft-tons
    c. 317 ft-tons
    d. 0 ft-tons
8737: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the weight of the mud in pit #4 if the mud weight was changed from 16 to 14 pounds per gallon?

    a. No change
    b. 93.34 long tons
    c. 121.91 long tons
    d. 135.13 long tons
8747: If a severe storm threatens the COASTAL DRILLER while elevated, the setback in the derrick should be lowered and placed in the pipe rack. Its weight should be accounted for as __________.

    a. variable loads
    b. drilling loads
    c. environmental loads
    d. fixed weight
8751: When threatened with a severe storm while operating in 250 feet of water, the COASTAL DRILLER should be placed at an air gap of __________.

    a. 35 feet
    b. 32 feet
    c. 30 feet
    d. 25 feet
8753: The maximum weight for the COASTAL DRILLER in severe storm conditions is __________.

    a. 14,158 kips
    b. 14,400 kips
    c. 15,158 kips
    d. 17,280 kips
8755: While elevated, the COASTAL DRILLER prepares for a severe storm. When the setback is lowered and placed in the pipe racks, it is considered as part of the __________.

    a. fixed loads
    b. basic loads
    c. variable loads
    d. storm loads
8757: The routes to be used during evacuation of the COASTAL DRILLER are shown in the __________.

    a. official log
    b. Muster List ("Station Bill")
    c. posted Fire Control/Lifesaving Plan
    d. control room under glass
8761: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while tripping is 7 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 4°. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.

    a. unsatisfactory, place setback in the pipe racks
    b. satisfactory, continue tripping
    c. unsatisfactory, deballast to survival draft
    d. satisfactory, but prepare to hang off
8763: After deploying the anchor, a permanent chain chaser is __________.

    a. removed from the anchor chain
    b. connected to a buoy at the anchor
    c. stripped back to the rig and secured
    d. connected to a buoy halfway down the chain
8767: In securing deck loads for an ocean tow, drill pipe should be __________.

    a. galvanized to protect against corrosion
    b. held in place with heavy materials such as spare pendant wire
    c. limited to no more than five courses high
    d. provided with bulwarks at both ends of their bays
8771: Hydrogen sulfide in explosive concentrations has been detected on the drill floor. The abandon rig signal has been sounded. To evacuate the rig, the crew should use __________.

    a. all survival capsules and liferafts
    b. only the leeward survival capsules and liferafts
    c. only the windward survival capsules
    d. only the windward liferafts
8773: The muster list shows each rig hand's muster station, his duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and __________.

    a. all emergency signals
    b. instructions for lowering the survival craft
    c. the time each weekly drill will be held
    d. work schedule
8775: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected forward inclination. The wind and waves are light from the starboard bow. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.

    a. failure of mooring lines 2 and 3
    b. drilling crew has dumped the mud
    c. the drill string has broken
    d. ballast tanks equalizing into tank 1P
8777: On a MODU, an obvious indicator of lost circulation of drilling fluid is __________.

    a. fluid level in the mud pits increases rapidly
    b. fluid level in the mud pits decreases rapidly
    c. increased cuttings on the shale shaker
    d. decreased cuttings on the shale shaker
8781: To determine the number of certificated Lifeboatmen required on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the __________.

    a. load line certificate
    b. Certificate of Inspection
    c. Safety of Life at Sea Certificate
    d. Operations Manual
8782: Control of fire should be addressed __________.

    a. immediately after restoring vital services
    b. immediately
    c. following control of flooding
    d. following establishment of fire boundaries
8783: When using a hand held smoke signal aboard a survival craft, you should activate the signal __________.

    a. on the downwind side of the craft
    b. on the upwind side of the craft
    c. inside the craft
    d. at the stern of the craft
8793: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to port and aft. Strong winds and high waves are from the starboard bow. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.

    a. failure of mooring lines 1 or 2
    b. failure of mooring lines 3 or 4
    c. leak in ballast tank #9P
    d. ballast tanks equalizing into tank 10P
8807: The prohibition against displaying lights which may be confused with required navigation lights applies __________.

    a. from sunset to sunrise and during restricted visibility
    b. only when other vessels are in the area
    c. only when operating in a traffic separation scheme
    d. only when under tow
8817: A jack-up has 8 inches of trim by the stern. Calculations show that the moment required to change trim one inch (MCT1") is 500 foot-kips. To level the unit, how far must a weight of 50 kips be transferred toward the bow?

    a. 10.0 feet
    b. 62.5 feet
    c. 80.0 feet
    d. 100.0 feet
8821: A jack-up is trimmed six inches by the bow. The moment required to change trim one inch (MCT1") is 1200 foot-kips. Transferring 200 kips of drill water from a tank with an LCG of 20 feet to a tank with an LCG of 140 feet results in a final trim of __________.

    a. zero trim (level)
    b. 1 foot 2 inches by the stern
    c. 1 foot 8 inches by the stern
    d. 2 feet 2 inches by the stern
8823: The draft at the forward draft mark of a jack-up is 11 feet 3 inches while the draft at the aft draft mark is 12 feet 9 inches. The value of trim is __________.

    a. six inches to the stern
    b. 1 foot 6 inches to the stern
    c. 3 feet to the stern
    d. 24 feet to the stern
8825: A jack-up, while level in transit at 10 feet draft, experiences a wind gust which results in a starboard draft of 11 feet 6 inches. What is the heel?

    a. 1 foot 6 inches to starboard
    b. 3 feet to starboard
    c. 3 feet to port
    d. 1 foot 6 inches to port
8827: A jack-up, while level in transit at 10 feet draft, experiences a wind gust which results in a port draft of 11 feet. What is the heel?

    a. 1 foot to starboard
    b. 2 feet to starboard
    c. 2 feet to port
    d. 1 foot to port
8831: A jack-up, while level in transit at 10 feet draft, experiences a wind gust which results in a port draft of 11 feet. What is the new starboard draft?

    a. 12 feet
    b. 11 feet
    c. 10 feet
    d. 9 feet
8833: A jack-up level at 12.5 feet draft transfers 100 kips of drill water from a tank with a TCG of -30 feet to a starboard tank with a TCG of 70 feet. The resulting starboard draft is 13 feet. The moment required to change list one inch (MCL1") is __________.

    a. 667 foot-kips
    b. 833 foot-kips
    c. 1,400 foot-kips
    d. 1,667 foot-kips
8835: A jack-up with a calculated moment to change list one inch (MCL1") of 1,350 foot-kips intends to transfer drill water from a tank with a TCG of 82 feet to a tank with a TCG of 18 feet. How much weight should be transferred to change the draft on the port side from 11.0 to 11.5 feet?

    a. 67.5 kips
    b. 81.0 kips
    c. 126.6 kips
    d. 253.1 kips
8837: A jack-up with a calculated moment to change list one inch (MCL1") of 1,200 foot-kips intends to transfer 100 kips of weight in a transverse direction. How far should the weight be transferred to change the draft on the port side from 11.5 to 11.0 feet?

    a. 12 feet
    b. 48 feet
    c. 120 feet
    d. 144 feet
8843: A semisubmersible in transit is at a draft of 19 feet. The depth of the lower hulls is 21 feet. How much bunker fuel at 54.0 lbs/cu ft could be taken on and still provide one foot of freeboard if the TPI is 52.3?

    a. 627.6 long tons
    b. 648.0 long tons
    c. 843.9 long tons
    d. 255.2 long tons
8845: A semisubmersible at a draft of 19 feet 9 inches arrives on location planning to deploy eight mooring lines. Each anchor weighs 15 long tons and each mooring line consists of 3,000 feet of 3-inch chain (89.6 lbs/ft). If no ballast corrections are made, what is the expected draft if the average TPI is 60?

    a. 17 feet 9 inches
    b. 18 feet 3 inches
    c. 18 feet 9 inches
    d. 21 feet 3 inches
8847: A semisubmersible 300 feet long and an LCF of 0 (amidships) is in transit with hulls awash and an MT1" of 87.67 foot-tons. Work on the BOP (weight 263 long tons) requires that it be moved aft 12 feet. What is the resulting trim change?

    a. 1.5 feet
    b. 3.0 feet
    c. 6.0 feet
    d. 7.3 feet
8848: Enclosed lifeboats which have been afloat over a long period of time require __________.

    a. frequent opening of hatches to permit entry of fresh air
    b. regular checks of bilge levels
    c. use of ear plugs to dampen engine noise
    d. frequent flushing of the water spray system with fresh water
8849: What is the minimum number of bolts required in a permanently bolted flange oil hose coupling?

    a. 3
    b. 4
    c. 6
    d. A bolt must be used in every hole.
8851: While underway in a field move with the lower hulls awash, a semisubmersible has an allowable KG of 63.69 feet; KMT is 65.12 and KML is 64.92. The KGT is 56.13 and KGL is 55.89. What is the GML?

    a. 1.43 feet
    b. 7.56 feet
    c. 7.80 feet
    d. 9.03 feet
8853: While underway in a field move with the lower hulls awash, a semisubmersible has a maximum allowable KG of 63.69 feet; KMT is 65.12 and KML is 64.92. The KGT is 56.13 and KGL is 55.89. What is the margin on the maximum allowable KG?

    a. 1.43 feet
    b. 7.56 feet
    c. 7.80 feet
    d. 8.99 feet
8855: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). If weather conditions make it necessary to ballast down to survival, how much ballast would be required?

    a. 3,998.3 long tons
    b. 4,086.5 long tons
    c. 4,188.0 long tons
    d. 5,087.0 long tons
8861: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions require ballasting to survival draft. Assume that upon arrival at 45 feet, port and starboard ballast tanks 2 and 9 will be full and that port and starboard ballast tanks 1, 3, and 8 will be slack. What would be the new value of the total longitudinal free surface moments (FSML)?

    a. 69,658 foot-tons
    b. 56,244 foot-tons
    c. 42,830 foot-tons
    d. 30,168 foot-tons
8863: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions require ballasting to survival draft. Assume that 4087 long tons of ballast are added at an average VCG of 8.32 feet, and upon arrival at 45 feet, port and starboard ballast tanks 1, 3, and 8 are slack. What is the new KGL?

    a. 51.65 feet
    b. 52.67 feet
    c. 55.16 feet
    d. 62.24 feet
8865: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Although winds are less than 70 knots, excessive motion requires ballasting to survival draft. Assume that 4087 long tons of ballast are added at an average VCG of 8.32 feet, and upon arrival at 45 feet, port and starboard ballast tanks 1, 3, and 8 are slack. What will be the new margin on the maximum allowable KG?

    a. 7.08 feet
    b. 8.12 feet
    c. 8.44 feet
    d. 8.96 feet
8867: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions make it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. How much ballast is required to ballast to 32 feet?

    a. 2,094 long tons
    b. 2,194 long tons
    c. 2,294 long tons
    d. 3,294 long tons
8871: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions make it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. If the added ballast has an average VCG of 9.03 feet, what is the new KG?

    a. 54.76 feet
    b. 55.76 feet
    c. 57.22 feet
    d. 57.76 feet
8873: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions make it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. If the added ballast has an average VCG of 9.03 feet, and the sum of free surface moments is 56,244 foot-tons, what is the new KGL?

    a. 54.76 feet
    b. 55.76 feet
    c. 57.22 feet
    d. 61.16 feet
8875: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Excessive motion makes it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. If the added ballast has an average VCG of 9.03 feet, and the sum of free surface moments is 56,244 foot-tons, what is the new margin on the maximum allowable KG?

    a. 6.23 feet
    b. 5.11 feet
    c. 4.86 feet
    d. 4.06 feet
8877: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Severe motion makes it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. If the added ballast has an average VCG of 9.03 feet, and the sum of free surface moments is 56,244 foot-tons, what is the new GML?

    a. 6.23 feet
    b. 5.11 feet
    c. 4.86 feet
    d. 4.06 feet
8881: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). How much additional deck load can be placed aboard without exceeding the deck load limit?

    a. 1,335.6 long tons
    b. 1,086.6 long tons
    c. 585.4 long tons
    d. 435.6 long tons
8883: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Additional deck load may be placed aboard. If the maximum permissible deck load were placed in the pipe racks at a VCG of 130 feet, the KG increases __________.

    a. 1.43 feet
    b. 1.89 feet
    c. 2.23 feet
    d. 2.43 feet
8885: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). If the maximum permissible deck load were placed aboard at a VCG of 130 feet, what would be the new draft?

    a. 19 feet 9 inches
    b. 20 feet 4 inches
    c. 20 feet 8 inches
    d. 21 feet 4 inches
8887: In observing rig motion while under tow, the period of roll is the time difference between __________.

    a. zero inclination to full inclination on one side
    b. full inclination on one side to full inclination on the other side
    c. full inclination on one side to the next full inclination on the same side
    d. zero inclination to the next zero inclination
8891: Which type of respiratory protection is preferable for repair/investigation personnel on a MODU in a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) environment?

    a. U.S. Navy Oxygen Breathing Apparatus (OBA)
    b. Emergency Escape Breathing Apparatus (EEBA)
    c. Demand Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA)
    d. Pressure-Demand Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA)
8893: AMVER is a system which provides __________.

    a. satellite communications
    b. navigational information
    c. weather information
    d. position reporting service
8895: The AMVER system for vessels in the Gulf of Mexico is administered by the __________.

    a. U.S. Coast Guard
    b. Minerals Management Service
    c. Department of Energy
    d. Corps of Engineers
8897: The international body responsible for drafting the convention prohibiting marine pollution (MARPOL) is the __________.

    a. Maritime Advisory Council
    b. International Maritime Organization
    c. International Association of Shipping
    d. Association of Seafaring Nations
8901: The Safety of Life at Sea Convention was developed by the __________.

    a. U.S. Coast Guard
    b. American Bureau of Shipping
    c. International Maritime Organization
    d. American Institute of Maritime Shipping
8903: The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately __________.

    a. apply ointment to the burned area
    b. flood the affected area with water
    c. wrap the burn with sterile dressing
    d. apply an ice pack to the burned area
8905: When it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, the person giving first aid must __________.

    a. pull the victim by the feet
    b. avoid subjecting the victim to any unnecessary disturbance
    c. carry the victim to a location where injuries can be assessed
    d. place the victim on a stretcher before attempting removal
8907: When giving first aid, you should understand how to conduct primary and secondary surveys and know __________.

    a. which medications to prescribe
    b. how to diagnose an illness from symptoms
    c. the limits of your capabilities
    d. how to set broken bones
8911: If a victim is unconscious, you should first look for evidence of __________.

    a. high fever
    b. head injury
    c. broken limbs
    d. irregular breathing
8913: In a semisubmersible MODU, the columns contain void spaces above the waterline that used principally for __________.

    a. equipment storage
    b. machinery
    c. elevators
    d. reserve buoyancy
8917: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). While the unit is deballasting, starboard valve 17 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 8S by pumping from tank 9S and opening valves 18 and __________.

    a. 35
    b. 21
    c. 20
    d. 17
8923: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4. While the unit is deballasting, port valve 5 fails in the closed position. You may deballast from tank 2P by pumping from tank 9P by also opening valves 6 and __________.

    a. 35
    b. 21
    c. 20
    d. 8
8925: A vessel behaves as if all of its weight is acting downward through the center of gravity, and all its support is acting upward through the __________.

    a. keel
    b. center of buoyancy
    c. tipping center
    d. amidships section
8927: On the COASTAL DRILLER, placing the rotary 34 feet aft of the transom and two feet to starboard of the centerline, limits the maximum hook load to __________.

    a. 1000 kips
    b. 875 kips
    c. 750 kips
    d. 450 kips
8971: The change in weight (measured in tons) which causes a draft change of one inch is __________.

    a. MT1 inch
    b. ML1 inch
    c. MH1 inch
    d. TPI
8973: For a floating vessel, the result of subtracting KG from KM is the __________.

    a. height of the metacenter
    b. height of the righting arm
    c. height of the center of buoyancy
    d. metacentric height
8977: The important stability parameter, KG, is defined as the __________.

    a. metacentric height
    b. height of the metacenter above the keel
    c. height of the center of buoyancy above the keel
    d. height of the center of gravity above the keel
8981: The important initial stability parameter, GM, is the __________.

    a. metacentric height
    b. height of the metacenter above the keel
    c. height of the center of buoyancy above the keel
    d. height of the center of gravity above the keel
8983: The time required to incline from port to starboard and back to port again is called __________.

    a. initial stability
    b. range of stability
    c. inclining moment
    d. rolling period
8985: The time required to incline from bow down to stern down and return to bow down again is called __________.

    a. rolling period
    b. amplitude moment
    c. inclining moment
    d. pitching period
8987: The tendency of a vessel to return to its original trim after being inclined by an external force is __________.

    a. equilibrium
    b. buoyancy
    c. transverse stability
    d. longitudinal stability
8991: The enclosed area defined as the intersection of the surface of the water and the hull of a vessel is the __________.

    a. amidships plane
    b. longitudinal reference plane
    c. baseline
    d. waterplane
8993: The waterplane area is described as the intersection of the surface of the water in which a vessel floats and the __________.

    a. baseline
    b. vertical reference plane
    c. hull
    d. horizontal reference plane
8994: Two types of anchor shackles which are currently available are __________.

    a. U-Type and posilok shackles
    b. C-Type and wedge shackles
    c. D-Type and bow shackles
    d. wedge and kenter shackles
8997: Aboard a vessel, multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity from the centerline results in the load's __________.

    a. TCG
    b. transverse moment
    c. righting moment
    d. transverse free surface moment
9001: The difference between the starboard and port drafts caused by shifting a weight transversely is __________.

    a. list
    b. heel
    c. trim
    d. flotation
9002: On all mobile offshore drilling units, the deckhead of each accommodation space must be located above __________.

    a. the operating draft
    b. the survival draft
    c. the transit draft
    d. the deepest load line
9021: Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the longitudinal moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.

    a. inclining moments
    b. righting moments
    c. vertical moments
    d. longitudinal position of the center of gravity
9067: The TCG of a vessel may be found by dividing the displacement of the vessel into the __________.

    a. transverse center of gravity of the vessel
    b. sum of the vertical moments of the vessel
    c. sum of the transverse moments of the vessel
    d. transverse baseline of the vessel
9087: No outlet on a fire hydrant may point above the horizontal in order to __________.

    a. avoid kinking the hose
    b. avoid personal injury during connection
    c. make connecting easier
    d. prevent spray on electrical equipment
9091: The outlet at a fire hydrant may be positioned anywhere from horizontal to pointing __________.

    a. 45° upward
    b. vertically upward
    c. vertically downward
    d. all of the above
9093: In addition to weighing the cartridge, which other maintenance is required for a cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher?

    a. Weigh the powder in the canister.
    b. Discharge a small amount to see that it works.
    c. Check the hose and nozzle for clogs.
    d. Check the external pressure gage.
9097: When must a dry chemical fire extinguisher be recharged?

    a. After each use
    b. When the air temperature exceeds 90°F
    c. Every 6 months
    d. Every 12 months
9098: When a rescue vessel approaches a lifeboat in heavy seas, the person in charge of the lifeboat should __________.

    a. tie up to the rescue vessel
    b. transfer only those personnel who are not seasick
    c. wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel
    d. transfer all personnel immediately
9101: Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry-chemical extinguisher is accomplished by __________.

    a. authorized fire equipment servicing personnel only
    b. replacing the propellant cartridge and refilling with powder
    c. puncturing the cartridge seal after installation
    d. recharging the cartridge and refilling it with powder
9105: Each ventilation system for an enclosed classified location on a MODU must provide a complete change of air every __________.

    a. 3 minutes
    b. 5 minutes
    c. 7 minutes
    d. 10 minutes
9107: The amount of Halon remaining in an extinguisher is determined by __________.

    a. internal inspection
    b. checking the gage
    c. weighing the cylinder
    d. checking the tag
9111: Inspection of a Halon extinguisher involves checking the hose, handle, nozzle, and __________.

    a. sight glass
    b. weighing the extinguisher
    c. service technicians report
    d. last date it was charged
9113: After using a Halon extinguisher, it should be __________.

    a. put back in service if more than 50% of the charge remains
    b. repainted
    c. discarded
    d. recharged
9115: An airplane should NOT send which signal in reply to a surface craft?

    a. Opening and closing the throttle
    b. Rocking the wings
    c. Flashing the navigational lights off and on
    d. Flashing Morse T
9121: The blocking or absence of fire dampers can cause __________.

    a. the accumulation of explosive gases
    b. faster cooling of the fire
    c. the fire to spread through the ventilation system
    d. fixed foam systems to be ineffective
9125: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by a __________.

    a. remote operated valve
    b. fusible link
    c. CO2 system pressure switch
    d. heat or smoke detector
9129: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of a __________.

    a. heat or smoke detector
    b. fusible link
    c. remote operated valve
    d. C02 system pressure switch
9130: When administering first aid you should avoid __________.

    a. any conversation with the patient
    b. instructing bystanders
    c. unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainty
    d. touching the patient before washing your hands
9137: Fighting a fire in the galley poses the additional threat of __________.

    a. contaminating food with extinguishing agent
    b. spreading through the engineering space
    c. loss of stability
    d. a grease fire in the ventilation system
9153: The two factors which make underwater hull repair of a MODU difficult are accessibility and the __________.

    a. availability of tools
    b. shape of the hull
    c. pressure exerted by the water
    d. threat of progressive flooding
9155: In plugging submerged holes on a MODU, rags, wedges, and other materials should be used in conjunction with plugs to __________.

    a. reduce the water pressure on the hull
    b. reduce the water leaking around the plugs
    c. prevent progressive flooding
    d. reduce the possibility of stress fractures
9167: To release the davit cable of a davit launched liferaft, you must __________.

    a. pull the release lanyard
    b. pull the hydraulic release
    c. push the release button
    d. pull on the ratchet handle
9185: The external flotation bladder of an immersion suit should be inflated __________.

    a. only after two hours in the water
    b. only after four hours in the water
    c. before entry into the water
    d. upon entry into the water
9187: The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated __________.

    a. before you enter the water
    b. after you enter the water
    c. after one hour in the water
    d. after you notice that your suit is losing buoyancy
9191: After abandoning a vessel, water that is consumed within the first 24 hours will __________.

    a. pass through the body with little absorbed by the system
    b. help to prevent fatigue
    c. quench thirst for only 2 hours
    d. help to prevent seasickness
9192: The locker or space containing the self-contained breathing apparatus must be __________.

    a. located in close proximity to the bridge
    b. equipped with battery powered emergency lighting
    c. marked "SELF-CONTAINED BREATHING APPARATUS"
    d. All of the above
9193: Drinking salt water will __________.

    a. be safe if mixed with fresh water
    b. prevent seasickness
    c. dehydrate you
    d. protect against heat cramps
9195: When using the rain water collection tubes on a liferaft, the first collection should be __________.

    a. passed around so all can drink
    b. poured overboard because of salt washed off the canopy
    c. saved to be used at a later time
    d. used to boil food
9197: In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to personnel who are __________.

    a. thirsty
    b. sick or injured
    c. wet
    d. awake
9205: When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed __________.

    a. horizontally and directly abeam of your vessel
    b. at the vessel whose attention you want to attract
    c. into the wind
    d. at greater than 60 degrees above the horizon
9217: Apparent wind speed blowing across a MODU under tow can be measured by a(n) __________.

    a. barometer
    b. wind vane
    c. anemometer
    d. thermometer
9227: The longitudinal free surface correction of a floating MODU displacing 12,000 kips is 1.20 feet. What would be the new FSCL if 2,400 kips of solid variable loads are added?

    a. 1.50 feet
    b. 1.20 feet
    c. 1.00 foot
    d. 0.83 foot
9231: The transverse free surface correction of a floating MODU displacing 24,000 long tons is 1.0 foot. When the MODU is deballasted by discharging 8,000 long tons of ballast, the FSMT decreases by 4,000 ft-long tons. What is the new FSCT?

    a. 1.50 feet
    b. 1.25 feet
    c. 1.00 foot
    d. 0.83 foot
9233: A ballast tank in a floating MODU has a maximum FSML of 7,000 ft-long tons. If the tank is converted to drill water storage, what would be the new maximum FSML?

    a. 7,179 ft-long tons
    b. 7,000 ft-long tons
    c. 6,825 ft-long tons
    d. 2,125 ft-long tons
9235: The longitudinal free surface moments of a drilling mud pit aboard a MODU displacing 24,000 long tons in sea water is 1,200 ft-long tons. If the sounding level in the mud pit is reduced from 8 to 6 feet and the mud weight increases from 10 to 12 lbs/gallon, what is the new FSML for the mud pit?

    a. 750 ft-long tons
    b. 1,000 ft-long tons
    c. 1,440 ft-long tons
    d. 1,920 ft-long tons
9237: A MODU floating in sea water while displacing 20,000 long tons has transverse free surface moments of 7,500 ft-long tons and longitudinal free surface moments of 10,000 ft-long tons. The maximum virtual rise in the height of the center of gravity due to free surfaces is __________.

    a. 0.35 foot
    b. 0.50 foot
    c. 0.88 foot
    d. 2.00 feet
9241: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5, discharges 137.88 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 3 feet and list to port is 2 feet. What is the draft at the starboard forward draft mark?

    a. 41 feet 6 inches
    b. 42 feet 6 inches
    c. 43 feet 6 inches
    d. 44 feet 0 inches
9243: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load #5, discharges 275.8 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 3 feet and list to port is 2 feet. What is the draft at the port aft draft mark?

    a. 43 feet 6 inches
    b. 45 feet 6 inches
    c. 48 feet 0 inches
    d. 49 feet 6 inches
9245: The object of plugging holes below the waterline on a MODU should be to __________.

    a. eliminate all water entering the hole
    b. only plug holes in machinery or other vital spaces
    c. reduce the entry of water as much as possible
    d. plug the largest holes first
9247: What type of test determines the pressure at which the formation immediately below the last set casing will take fluid?

    a. Production
    b. Drill stem
    c. Leak-off
    d. Conductor
9251: For well control, the American Petroleum Institute recommends that hydraulic units have sufficient horsepower to close the annular preventer in __________.

    a. 15 seconds
    b. 30 seconds
    c. 45 seconds
    d. 60 seconds
9253: At the instant when a string of casing being run from a MODU is landed in the well head, __________.

    a. the total weight in air of the casing string is removed from the MODU
    b. the hook load (weight of the casing string) is removed from the MODU
    c. the weight of the casing inside the riser is removed from the MODU
    d. the weight of the casing string added to the weight of the fill-up mud is removed from the MODU
9255: A low pressure annular preventer which is used to direct flow of kick fluids away from the rig floor is called a __________.

    a. dump valve
    b. deflector
    c. separator
    d. diverter
9257: The shear rams of a MODU blowout preventer stack are used in emergency well control to __________.

    a. close and seal around the drill pipe
    b. close and seal around casing
    c. cut off pipe inside the preventer stack
    d. close and seal around drill collars
9261: The retrievable subsea units that contain the pilot valves and regulators for operating the subsea blowout preventers are called __________.

    a. accumulators
    b. control pods
    c. consoles
    d. shuttle controls
9263: A casing string that is run below the previous casing string, but does not extend to the wellhead is called a __________.

    a. production string
    b. liner
    c. packer
    d. squnch joint
9265: Oil well casing will fail when the external pressure exceeds the internal pressure by a differential equal to the casing's rated __________.

    a. tensile strength
    b. hoop stress
    c. collapse pressure
    d. burst pressure
9267: Lifeboat winches on a MODU are required to be inspected and an entry made in the logbook. What should this entry include?

    a. The time required to lower a lifeboat
    b. The time required to raise a lifeboat
    c. The date of inspection and condition of the winch
    d. All of the above
9271: You are involved in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water. You should inflate your life jacket __________.

    a. upon entering the helicopter
    b. prior to reaching the water
    c. after reaching the water, but prior to exiting the helicopter
    d. after exiting clear of the helicopter
9273: After being launched from MODUs, totally enclosed survival craft which have been afloat over a long period require __________.

    a. frequent opening of hatches to permit entry of fresh air
    b. regular checks of bilge levels
    c. use of ear plugs to dampen engine noise
    d. frequent flushing of the water spray system with fresh water
9275: A jack-up displacing 15,000 kips has a KG of 20 feet. The legs weighing 3,500 kips are lowered 100 feet. What is the new KG?

    a. 23.33 feet
    b. 18.67 feet
    c. 4.67 feet
    d. -3.33 feet
9276: You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________.

    a. call for assistance
    b. put the vessel's stern into the wind
    c. abandon ship to windward
    d. keep going at half speed
9277: A floating jack-up with displacement of 15,000 kips has its LCG 108 feet aft of frame zero (AFO). If 400 kips are loaded at 120 feet AFO and 800 kips are loaded 150 feet AF0, what is the new LCG?

    a. 100.0 feet
    b. 109.2 feet
    c. 110.4 feet
    d. 119.2 feet
9281: A floating jack-up with displacement of 15,000 kips has its LCG 106 feet aft of frame zero (AF0). If 200 short tons are loaded at 20 feet AF0 and 400 short tons are loaded 149 feet AF0, what is the new LCG?

    a. 105.5 feet
    b. 106.0 feet
    c. 108.3 feet
    d. 111.8 feet
9282: There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should put the __________.

    a. wind off either beam
    b. stern into the wind and increase speed
    c. bow into the wind and decrease speed
    d. stern into the wind and decrease speed
9283: A jack-up with displacement of 10,000 kips has its LCG 100 feet aft of frame zero (AFO). If 200 kips are loaded at 60 feet AFO and 100 kips are discharged from 20 feet AFO, what is the new LCG?

    a. 100.0 feet
    b. 100.4 feet
    c. 100.8 feet
    d. 101.2 feet
9285: A floating jack-up with displacement of 16,200 kips has its LCG 110.37 feet aft of frame zero (AF0). If 200 short tons are discharged from 120 feet AF0 and 400 short tons are discharged from 150 feet AF0, what is the new LCG?

    a. 108.0 feet
    b. 109.2 feet
    c. 110.4 feet
    d. 115.8 feet
9287: What is the longitudinal shift in the center of gravity if 200 short tons is moved ten feet to port and 30 feet forward on a MODU with a displacement of 8,960 long tons?

    a. 0.20 foot
    b. 0.22 foot
    c. 0.67 foot
    d. 0.84 foot
9291: An elevated jack-up weighs 14,000 kips. Its TCG is located 1.0 foot to starboard of the centerline. What would be the new TCG for the jack-up if the drill floor, weighing 700 kips, is skidded 10 feet to port?

    a. 9.00 feet port
    b. 0.50 foot starboard
    c. 0.50 foot port
    d. 1.00 foot port
9293: An elevated jack-up weighs 14,000 kips. The drill floor, weighing 700 kips, is skidded 10.0 feet to starboard. The change in TCG is __________.

    a. 9.00 feet starboard
    b. 0.50 foot starboard
    c. 1.50 foot starboard
    d. 1.00 foot starboard
9295: A jack-up 210 feet in length is level during transit. The LCF is 140 feet aft of the bow. How much weight should be applied at the bow to level the jack-up if 150 kips are loaded at the transom?

    a. 50 kips
    b. 75 kips
    c. 100 kips
    d. 200 kips
9301: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions require ballasting to survival draft. Assume that 4087 long tons of ballast are added at an average VCG of 8.32 feet. What would be the value of uncorrected KG?

    a. 51.65 feet
    b. 52.67 feet
    c. 55.15 feet
    d. 62.24 feet
9303: When displacement increases, the free surface corrections for slack tanks __________.

    a. increase
    b. decrease
    c. are directly proportional
    d. remain unchanged
9306: When two generators are operating in parallel, what will happen if one engine driving a generator shuts down?

    a. The generator that's still running will motorize.
    b. Both generators will immediately shut down.
    c. The running generator's circuit breaker will immediately trip on overload.
    d. The stalled generator's circuit breaker will trip on reverse power.
9307: When a rescuer finds an electrical burn victim in the vicinity of live electrical equipment or wiring, his first step is to __________.

    a. flush water over any burned area of the patient
    b. apply ointment to the burned areas on the patient
    c. get assistance to shut down electrical power in the area
    d. remove the patient from the vicinity of the live electrical equipment or wiring
9311: Basic emergency care for third degree electrical burn is to __________.

    a. flood the burned area with warm water for two minutes
    b. brush away the charred skin and wrap the burned area
    c. cover the burned area with a clean cloth and transport the patient to a medical facility
    d. apply ointment or spray to the burned area and wrap with a clean cloth
9313: When a patient has an electrical burn, it is important to __________.

    a. look for a second burn, which may have been caused by the current passing through the body
    b. locate the nearest water source and flood the burn with water for five minutes
    c. remove any dirt or charred skin from the area of the burn
    d. apply ointment to the burn area and wrap with clean cloth
9315: Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, the FIRST medical response is to check for __________.

    a. indication of broken bones
    b. breathing and heartbeat
    c. symptoms of concussion
    d. bleeding injuries
9317: Which statement is CORRECT with respect to inserting an airway tube?

    a. Only a trained person should attempt to insert an airway tube.
    b. A size 2 airway tube is the correct size for an adult.
    c. The airway tube will not damage the victim's throat.
    d. Inserting the airway tube will prevent vomiting.
9321: In battery charging rooms, exhaust ventilation should be provided __________.

    a. at the lowest point
    b. near the batteries
    c. at the highest point
    d. only when charging is in progress
9323: A fuel-air mixture below the lower explosive limit is too __________.

    a. rich to burn
    b. lean to burn
    c. cool to burn
    d. dense to burn
9325: Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by __________.

    a. allowing better access in an emergency
    b. eliminating potential fuel sources
    c. eliminating trip hazards
    d. improving personnel qualifications
9327: Accumulations of oily rags should be __________.

    a. kept in nonmetal containers
    b. discarded as soon as possible
    c. cleaned thoroughly for reuse
    d. kept in the paint locker
9331: Paints and solvents on a vessel should be __________.

    a. stored safely at the work site until work is completed
    b. returned to the paint locker after each use
    c. covered at all times to protect from ignition sources
    d. stored in a suitable gear locker
9333: After extinguishing a fire with CO2, it is advisable to __________.

    a. use all CO2 available to cool the surrounding area
    b. stand by with water or other agents
    c. thoroughly ventilate the space of CO2
    d. jettison all burning materials
9335: The disadvantage of using CO2 is that the __________.

    a. CO2 does not cool the fire
    b. cylinders are regulated pressure vessels
    c. C02 is not effective on class "B" fires
    d. C02 is not effective on class "C" fires
9337: Size I and II fire extinguishers are designated as __________.

    a. portable
    b. semi-portable
    c. fixed
    d. compact
9341: Dry chemical extinguishers may be used on what class of fires?

    a. A only
    b. B only
    c. B and C only
    d. A, B or C as marked on the extinguisher
9342: The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE?

    a. Fusible links must be replaced if a damper is activated.
    b. Fusible links are tested by applying a source of heat to them.
    c. Fusible links must be replaced at every inspection for certification.
    d. A fusible link will automatically open after a fire is extinguished and reset the damper.
9347: CO2 cylinders must be recharged when the weight of the charge in the cylinder is less than what percent of the stamped full weight of the charge?

    a. 80%
    b. 85%
    c. 90%
    d. 95%
9351: Halon from extinguishers used on a class B fire, should be directed __________.

    a. at the top of the flames
    b. at the base of the fire near the edge
    c. in short quick bursts
    d. toward the upwind side of the fire
9357: Halon extinguishers used on a class C fire should be directed at the __________.

    a. base of the equipment
    b. top of the equipment
    c. power source
    d. source of the fire
9361: The principal personnel hazard unique to Halon extinguishers is __________.

    a. displacement of oxygen
    b. skin irritation
    c. inhaling toxic vapors
    d. eye irritation
9362: You are releasing carbon dioxide gas (CO2) into an engine compartment to extinguish a fire. The CO2 will be most effective if the __________.

    a. compartment is closed and ventilators are opened
    b. compartment is left open to the air
    c. compartment is closed and airtight
    d. air flow to the compartment is increased with blowers
9363: The primary function(s) of an automatic sprinkler system is(are) to __________.

    a. extinguish the fire which triggers it
    b. limit the spread of fire and control the amount of heat produced
    c. protect people in the areas which have sprinkler heads
    d. alert the crew to the fire
9365: When flammable liquids are handled in a compartment on a vessel, the ventilation for that area should be __________.

    a. operated continuously while vapors may be present
    b. operated intermittently to remove vapors
    c. available on standby for immediate use
    d. shut down if an explosive mixture is present
9367: A galley grease fire on the stove may be extinguished using_______.

    a. water
    b. foam
    c. the range hood extinguishing system
    d. fire dampers
9371: Overhauling a fire in the living quarters on a vessel must include __________.

    a. opening dead spaces to check for heat or fire
    b. evacuation of the vessel
    c. sounding the "all clear" signal
    d. operation of the emergency generator
9373: If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, the FIRST firefighting response should be to __________.

    a. release the CO2 flooding system
    b. open the door to evaluate the extent of the fire
    c. enter and use a portable extinguisher
    d. secure the ventilation
9375: After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next action is to have the space __________.

    a. opened and burned material removed
    b. left closed with vents off until all boundaries are cool
    c. checked for oxygen content
    d. doused with water to prevent reflash
9377: After abandoning ship, you should deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft to __________.

    a. keep the liferaft from capsizing
    b. navigate against the current
    c. keep personnel from getting seasick
    d. stay in the general location
9381: If the liferaft capsizes, all personnel should leave the raft and __________.

    a. climb onto the bottom
    b. swim away from the raft
    c. right the raft using the righting strap
    d. inflate the righting bag
9382: Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by __________.

    a. completely closing the compartment
    b. closing the compartment except for the ventilators
    c. leaving the compartment open to the air
    d. increasing the air flow to the compartment by blowers
9383: Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________.

    a. survivors in the water
    b. food and water
    c. land
    d. bad weather
9385: When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable liferaft, the personnel on the raft should __________.

    a. deflate the floor of the raft to reduce the danger of the raft overturning
    b. inflate the floor of the raft to provide for additional stability
    c. remove their life preservers to prepare for the transfer
    d. take in the sea anchor to prevent fouling of the rescue sling
9387: When should you use distress flares and rockets?

    a. Only when there is a chance of their being seen by rescue vessels
    b. At half-hour intervals
    c. At one-hour intervals
    d. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel
9391: Once you have established the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation, how should you drink it?

    a. Small sips at regular intervals during the day
    b. The complete daily ration at one time during the day
    c. One-third the daily ration three times daily
    d. Small sips only after sunset
9397: CATEGORY I EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that are monitored by __________.

    a. orbiting satellites in space
    b. commercial radio stations
    c. private, commercial, and military aircraft
    d. Both A & C
9411: When anchoring in an area with a soft bottom, the fluke angle of an anchor should be set at __________.

    a. 20°
    b. 30°
    c. 40°
    d. 50°
9412: Radiation spreads a fire by __________.

    a. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal
    b. burning liquids flowing into another space
    c. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
    d. the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space
9413: When anchoring in an area with a hard bottom, the fluke angle of an anchor should be set at __________.

    a. 20°
    b. 30°
    c. 40°
    d. 50°
9414: Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause __________.

    a. the fire to spread through the ventilation system
    b. fixed foam systems to be ineffective
    c. faster cooling of the fire
    d. the accumulation of explosive gases
9415: A solution to overcome tripping defects is an arrangement of special plates on either side of the flukes, designed to set them in the correct tripping position. These special plates are called __________.

    a. trippers
    b. stocks
    c. stabilizers
    d. palms
9425: Which formula can be used to calculate metacentric height?

    a. KM + GM
    b. KM - GM
    c. KM - KG
    d. KB + BM
9427: In the absence of external forces, adding weight on one side of a floating vessel causes the vessel to __________.

    a. heel until the angle of loll is reached
    b. list until the center of buoyancy is aligned vertically with the center of gravity
    c. trim to the side opposite TCG until all moments are equal
    d. decrease draft at the center of flotation
9431: Subtracting FSCT from KGT yields __________.

    a. BL
    b. GMT
    c. FSCT
    d. KG
9432: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise is __________.

    a. green
    b. white
    c. red
    d. yellow
9435: For an upright vessel, draft is the vertical distance between the keel and the __________.

    a. waterline
    b. freeboard deck
    c. Plimsoll mark
    d. amidships section
9437: A wind has caused a difference between drafts starboard and port. This difference is __________.

    a. list
    b. heel
    c. trim
    d. flotation
9441: The moment of a force is a measure of the __________.

    a. turning effect of the force about a point
    b. instantaneous value of the force
    c. stability characteristics of the vessel
    d. center of gravity location
9443: The magnitude of a moment is the product of the force and __________.

    a. time
    b. lever arm
    c. displacement
    d. angle of inclination
9445: The difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity is known as the __________.

    a. metacentric height
    b. height of the righting arm
    c. fore and aft perpendicular
    d. height of the center of buoyancy
9447: When initial stability applies, the height of the center of gravity plus the metacentric height equals the __________.

    a. free surface moments
    b. righting arm
    c. height of the metacenter
    d. corrected height of the center of gravity
9451: Initial stability is indicated by __________.

    a. GM
    b. KM
    c. Deck load
    d. Maximum allowed KG
9453: At all angles of inclination, the metacenter is __________.

    a. vertically above the center of buoyancy
    b. vertically above the center of gravity
    c. at the intersection of the upright vertical centerline and the line of action of the buoyant force
    d. at the geometric center of the underwater volume
9454: If water is rising in the bilge of a lifeboat, you should FIRST __________.

    a. abandon the survival craft
    b. check for cracks in the hull
    c. shift all personnel to the stern
    d. check the bilge drain plug
9455: The original equilibrium position is stable when __________.

    a. metacentric height is positive
    b. metacentric radius is positive
    c. KG exceeds maximum allowable limits
    d. free surfaces are excessive
9457: The center of buoyancy is located at the __________.

    a. geometric center of the waterplane area
    b. intersection of the vertical centerline and line of action of the buoyant force
    c. center of gravity of the vessel corrected for free surface effects
    d. geometric center of the displaced volume
9463: The value of the righting arm at an angle of loll is __________.

    a. negative
    b. zero
    c. positive
    d. equal to GM
9465: When inclined to an angle of list, the value of the righting arm is __________.

    a. negative
    b. zero
    c. positive
    d. maximum
9467: When inclined to an angle of list, the value of the righting moment is __________.

    a. negative
    b. zero
    c. positive
    d. maximum
9471: What is used as an indicator of initial stability?

    a. GM
    b. KG
    c. KM
    d. GZ
9473: What is the stability term for the distance from the center of gravity (G) to the Metacenter (M), when small-angle stability applies?

    a. metacentric height
    b. metacentric radius
    c. height of the metacenter
    d. righting arm
9477: The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as the center of __________.

    a. effort
    b. flotation
    c. gravity
    d. buoyancy
9481: The difference between the initial trim and the trim after loading is known as __________.

    a. trim
    b. change of trim
    c. final trim
    d. change of draft
9483: A tank which is NOT completely full or empty is called __________.

    a. pressed
    b. slack
    c. inertial
    d. elemental
9485: The difference between the starboard and port drafts due to wind or seas is called __________.

    a. list
    b. heel
    c. trim
    d. flotation
9487: The geometric center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel is the center of __________.

    a. hydrodynamic forces
    b. flotation
    c. gravity
    d. buoyancy
9491: The difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity is __________.

    a. KB
    b. KG
    c. KM
    d. GM
9493: On a vessel, multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity above the baseline results in a(n) __________.

    a. transverse moment
    b. vertical moment
    c. righting moment
    d. inclining moment
9495: Reducing the liquid free surfaces in a vessel reduces the __________.

    a. roll period
    b. metacentric height
    c. waterplane area
    d. vessel's draft
9497: Stability is determined principally by the location of the point of application of two forces: the upward-acting buoyant force and the __________.

    a. upward-acting weight force
    b. downward-acting weight force
    c. downward-acting buoyant force
    d. environmental force
9501: Stability is determined principally by the location of the point of application of two forces: the downward-acting gravity force and the __________.

    a. upward-acting weight force
    b. downward-acting weight force
    c. upward-acting buoyant force
    d. environmental force
9503: Stability is determined principally by the location of two points in a vessel: the center of buoyancy and the __________.

    a. metacenter
    b. geometric center of the waterplane area
    c. center of gravity
    d. center of flotation
9505: With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.

    a. longitudinal centerline
    b. center of flotation
    c. original vertical centerline
    d. metacenter
9507: With no environmental forces, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.

    a. longitudinal centerline
    b. center of flotation
    c. original vertical centerline
    d. center of buoyancy
9511: In the absence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned directly below the __________.

    a. center of gravity
    b. amidships station
    c. center of flotation
    d. geometric center of the waterplane area
9513: In the presence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.

    a. center of gravity
    b. metacenter
    c. center of flotation
    d. keel
9515: With no environmental forces, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned directly above the __________.

    a. longitudinal centerline
    b. center of buoyancy
    c. original vertical centerline
    d. center of flotation
9515: With no environmental forces, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned directly above the __________.

    a. longitudinal centerline
    b. center of buoyancy
    c. original vertical centerline
    d. center of flotation
9517: Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the transverse moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.

    a. vertical moments
    b. transverse position of the center of gravity
    c. inclining moments
    d. righting moments
9521: Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the vertical moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.

    a. height of the center of gravity
    b. vertical moments
    c. righting moments
    d. inclining moments
9523: When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is __________.

    a. stable
    b. neutral
    c. unstable
    d. negative
9525: When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity a vessel has which type of stability?

    a. Stable
    b. Neutral
    c. Unstable
    d. Negative
9527: When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the center of gravity, a vessel has which type of stability?

    a. Stable
    b. Neutral
    c. Negative
    d. Positive
9528: You are in Inland Waters of the United States. You may discharge overboard __________.

    a. bottles
    b. metal
    c. dunnage
    d. None of the above
9531: When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is stable and stability is __________.

    a. unstable
    b. neutral
    c. negative
    d. positive
9533: Unstable equilibrium exists at small angles of inclination when __________.

    a. G is above M
    b. G is off the centerline
    c. B is off the centerline
    d. B is above G
9535: When stability of a vessel is neutral, the value of GM __________.

    a. only depends on the height of the center of gravity
    b. only depends on the height of the metacenter
    c. is greater when G is low
    d. is zero
9537: When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the center of gravity of a vessel, the upright equilibrium position is __________.

    a. stable
    b. neutral
    c. unstable
    d. negative
9541: When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity of a vessel, the upright equilibrium position is __________.

    a. stable
    b. neutral
    c. unstable
    d. negative
9543: Stable equilibrium for a vessel means that the metacenter is __________.

    a. at a lower level than the baseline
    b. on the longitudinal centerline
    c. higher than the center of gravity
    d. at amidships
9545: An unstable upright equilibrium position on a vessel means that the metacenter is __________.

    a. lower than the center of gravity
    b. at the same height as the center of gravity
    c. higher than the baseline
    d. on the longitudinal centerline
9547: A neutral equilibrium position for a vessel means that the metacenter is __________.

    a. lower than the keel
    b. at the same height as the center of gravity
    c. exactly at midships
    d. at the center of the waterplane area
9551: When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the center of gravity, a vessel has which type of stability?

    a. Stable
    b. Neutral
    c. Unstable
    d. Positive
9553: When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, a vessel is in __________.

    a. stable equilibrium
    b. neutral equilibrium
    c. unstable equilibrium
    d. negative equilibrium
9557: Longitudinal moments are obtained by multiplying a vessel's weight and its __________.

    a. VCG or KG
    b. LCB
    c. LCG
    d. TCG
9561: Vertical moments are obtained by multiplying a vessel's weight and its __________.

    a. VCG or KG
    b. LCB
    c. LCG
    d. TCG
9562: The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.

    a. the midships house
    b. in the pumproom
    c. at the vent header
    d. at the main deck manifold
9563: The KG of a vessel is found by dividing the displacement into the __________.

    a. height of the center of gravity of the vessel
    b. sum of the vertical moments of the vessel
    c. sum of the free surface moments of the vessel
    d. sum of the longitudinal moments of the vessel
9564: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of __________.

    a. remotely operated valves
    b. C02 system pressure switches
    c. fusible links
    d. heat or smoke detectors
9565: The LCG of a vessel may be found by dividing displacement into the __________.

    a. longitudinal center of gravity of the vessel
    b. sum of the vertical moments of the vessel
    c. sum of the longitudinal moments of the vessel
    d. longitudinal baseline of the vessel
9567: The correction to KG for transverse free surface effects may be found by dividing the vessel's displacement into the __________.

    a. transverse free surface correction for the vessel
    b. sum of the vertical moments of the vessel
    c. sum of the transverse free surface moments of the vessel
    d. transverse baseline of the vessel
9571: The correction to KG for longitudinal free surface effects for a vessel can be found by dividing the vessel's displacement into the __________.

    a. transverse free surface correction for the vessel
    b. sum of the vertical moments of the vessel
    c. sum of the longitudinal free surface moments of the vessel
    d. longitudinal centerline of the vessel
9573: A floating vessel will behave as if all of its weight is acting downward through the __________.

    a. center of gravity
    b. center of buoyancy
    c. center of flotation
    d. metacenter
9575: While preloading, the COASTAL DRILLER has a total weight of 21,401 kips. The LM are 2,560,416 ft-kips, and the TM are 6,206 ft-kips. What is the bow leg reaction?

    a. 7,099 kips
    b. 7,134 kips
    c. 7,151 kips
    d. 7,203 kips
9577: When is the density of the water required to be logged in the logbook of a MODU?

    a. Any time the vessel moves from water of one density into waters of a different density
    b. Prior to getting underway when the vessel is floating in fresh or brackish water
    c. Only when the vessel moves from fresh water into salt water
    d. The density of the water is not required to be logged in the unofficial logbook
9581: The C02 flooding system is actuated by a sequence of steps which are __________.

    a. break glass, pull valve, break glass, pull cylinder control
    b. sound evacuation alarm, pull handle
    c. open bypass valve, break glass, pull handle
    d. open stop valve, open control valve, trip alarm
9583: Each person on a MODU carrying immersion suits must wear the immersion suit in a boat drill, or participate in a drill which includes donning the suit and being instructed in its use at least once every __________.

    a. month
    b. 2 months
    c. 3 months
    d. 6 months
9585: While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________.

    a. when the craft clears the water
    b. when the cable has been attached
    c. on approach to the platform
    d. at the embarkation deck
9587: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new transverse free surface correction (FSCT) if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?

    a. 0.46 foot
    b. 0.71 foot
    c. 1.08 feet
    d. 1.44 feet
9591: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the new draft if all the bulk materials are discharged?

    a. 36.23 feet
    b. 44.27 feet
    c. 45.73 feet
    d. 53.77 feet
9593: A semisubmersible floating in sea water displaces 717,500 cubic feet. What is the displacement?

    a. 11,211 long tons
    b. 11,498 long tons
    c. 19,977 long tons
    d. 20,500 long tons
9595: A non-symmetrical tank aboard a MODU contains 390 tons of ballast at a VCG of 9.85 feet. Ballast weighing 250 tons and a VCG of 12.0 feet is discharged. The vertical moments for the remaining ballast is __________.

    a. 842 ft-long tons
    b. 3,000 ft-long tons
    c. 3,842 ft-long tons
    d. 6,842 ft-long tons
9597: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), when an unexpected, slowly increasing port list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in C1P is found. By deballasting from ballast tanks 2P and 3P, the inclination slowly decreases. The increase in the longitudinal free surface correction is __________.

    a. 0.90 foot
    b. 0.83 foot
    c. 0.57 foot
    d. 0.49 foot
9601: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival) when an unexpected slowly increasing starboard list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in 1S is found. By deballasting from ballast tanks 2S and 3S, the inclination slowly decreases. The increase in the longitudinal free surface correction is __________.

    a. 1.25 feet
    b. 0.90 foot
    c. 0.83 foot
    d. 0.34 foot
9603: During the passage of a severe storm the maximum vertical moments, including free surface moments, permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at survival draft is __________.

    a. 998,942 ft-tons
    b. 996,522 ft-tons
    c. 990,430 ft-tons
    d. 889,555 ft-tons
9604: Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.

    a. removing the oxygen
    b. removing the fuel
    c. interrupting the chain reaction
    d. removing the heat
9605: The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds less than 70 knots, has a draft of 10 feet 8 inches. The VM are 541,257 ft-kips, FSML are 32,000 ft-kips, and FSMT are 24,000 ft-kips. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.

    a. -2.3 feet
    b. 0.0 feet
    c. 23.7 feet
    d. 26.0 feet
9606: You are fighting a Class B fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.

    a. over the top of the fire
    b. to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire
    c. at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge
    d. at the main body of the fire
9607: There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should __________.

    a. head the bow into the wind and decrease speed
    b. put the wind off either beam
    c. put the stern into the wind and increase speed
    d. put the stern into the wind and decrease speed
9608: On small passenger vessels how many supply and exhaust ducts are required in each enclosed space containing gasoline powered machinery or gasoline fuel tanks?

    a. 4 of each
    b. 3 of each
    c. 2 of each
    d. 1 of each
9611: A crew member reports that the high-pressure alarm light of a low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is illuminated. The most probable cause of this condition would be that __________.

    a. an air leak has developed in the tank
    b. the tank cooling system has malfunctioned
    c. the pilot cylinder discharge valve is leaking
    d. an excessive amount of insulation has been installed on the tank and piping
9612: What would be a major consequence of the refrigeration system for a low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system remaining inoperable?

    a. The entire charge might eventually be lost due to CO2 venting out through the relief valve.
    b. Liquid CO2 would vent out through the safety valve as the temperature increases.
    c. Excessive condensation inside the tank would freeze, causing a restriction in the discharge piping.
    d. The warmed charge of CO2 would not be effective in extinguishing a fire.
9613: When a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is activated from a remote location, what determines the quantity of CO2 being released into a selected space?

    a. The number of discharge nozzles in the space determines the quantity released.
    b. The discharge will continue until the temperature of the space returns to its normal ambient temperature.
    c. The main CO2 tank is partitioned into sections that are individually designated for each of the protected spaces.
    d. A pneumatic timer controls each discharge selector valve, and is preset for each space.
9614: The normal designed CO2 storage tank temperature and pressure associated with a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is approximately __________.

    a. 0°F at 50 PSI
    b. 70°F at 150 PSI
    c. 0°F at 300 PSI
    d. 70°Fat 500 PSI
9621: You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would you do FIRST?

    a. Protect the adjacent spaces on the same deck as the laundry room.
    b. Locate and use the nearest portable extinguisher, if conditions permit.
    c. Protect the compartment directly above the laundry room.
    d. Go to the nearest fire station and break out the hose.
9622: You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would you do FIRST?

    a. Attempt to determine what is burning.
    b. Acquire the nearest self contained breathing apparatus.
    c. Break out the nearest fire hose.
    d. Wait for the fire team to arrive and assist as directed.
9623: You detect an odor of burning electrical insulation and then notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following is the LEAST likely of your next actions?

    a. Close the door to the room.
    b. Locate the nearest CO2 or dry chemical extinguisher.
    c. Secure power to the washers and dryers.
    d. Break out the nearest fire hose.
9624: You detect an odor of burning cotton fabric and then see smoke coming from the top of an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, you might do any of the following next, EXCEPT __________.

    a. begin breaking out the nearest fire hose
    b. secure ventilation to the room
    c. close the door to the room
    d. acquire the nearest self contained breathing apparatus
9631: Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems, for machinery spaces that are normally manned, are actuated by one control to open the stop valve in the line leading to the space, and __________.

    a. the same control releasing the CO2
    b. a separate control to release the CO2
    c. two separate controls to release the CO2
    d. three separate controls to release the CO2
9632: In a fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITH a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, the flow of CO2 is established by actuating __________.

    a. one control
    b. two controls
    c. three controls
    d. none of the above
9633: Which of the following statements is true concerning the control activators, i.e., pull-handles, push-buttons or levers, for a space protected by a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?

    a. Only one control activator is required for discharge piping systems designed without a stop valve.
    b. Two control activators are required when a stop valve is installed in the main discharge line to a space.
    c. An alarm must sound for at least 20 seconds before CO2 is released into a space that is likely to be occupied.
    d. All of the above
9634: A fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITHOUT a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, is actuated by __________.

    a. one control
    b. two controls
    c. three controls
    d. none of the above
9641: The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than __________.

    a. 1 long ton
    b. 300 pounds
    c. 900 pounds
    d. 1,500 pounds
9642: The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than __________.

    a. 300 pounds
    b. 400 pounds
    c. 500 pounds
    d. 600 pounds
9643: The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than __________.

    a. 1,000 pounds
    b. 750 pounds
    c. 500 pounds
    d. 300 pounds
9651: In a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system where pressure from pilot cylinders is used to release the CO2 from the main bank of cylinders, the number of required pilot cylinders shall be at least __________.

    a. 2
    b. 3
    c. 4
    d. 6
9652: When pilot cylinder pressure is used as a means to release the CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system consisting of four storage cylinders, the number of pilot cylinders shall be at least __________.

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
9661: In a fixed CO2 extinguishing system where provision is made for the release of CO2 by operation of a remote control, provision shall also be made for releasing the CO2 __________.

    a. from inside the engine room
    b. from the bridge
    c. from the cargo control station
    d. at the cylinder location
9662: Which of the following statements is FALSE, concerning the regulations pertaining to the cylinder room of a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system?

    a. The compartment must be properly ventilated.
    b. The temperature of the room should never exceed 130°F.
    c. The door must be kept unlocked.
    d. The compartment shall be clearly marked and identifiable.
9671: When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.

    a. rotate personnel, due to heat stress
    b. station personnel on the hot deck immediately above the fire
    c. stay low by crouching or kneeling on deck
    d. All of the above
9672: When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.

    a. not rotate personnel, as the consistent attack can extinguish the fire quickly.
    b. stand erect, to avoid the heat of the deck
    c. station personnel on the hot deck, immediately above the fire, to observe for its potential spread
    d. All of the above
9673: When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.

    a. rotate personnel, due to heat stress
    b. stand erect, to avoid the heat of the deck
    c. cool the deck directly above the space on fire
    d. All of the above
9681: What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?

    a. 10 minutes
    b. 15 minutes
    c. 30 minutes
    d. 45 minutes
9682: What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?

    a. 15 minutes
    b. 30 minutes
    c. 45 minutes
    d. 60 minutes
9700: The regulations governing the sleeping accommodations of a cargo vessel are found in __________.

    a. 46 CFR subchapter S
    b. 46 CFR subchapter T
    c. 46 CFR subchapter B
    d. 46 CFR subchapter I
9701: Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?

    a. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system.
    b. The spaces shall have designated smoking areas.
    c. The spaces are prohibited from being fitted with fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems.
    d. All of the above
9702: Which of the following is/are NOT required on Ro-Ro vessels, regarding spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?

    a. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system.
    b. The spaces shall have designated smoking areas.
    c. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fixed fire extinguishing system.
    d. All of the above
9703: Which of the following statements is/are FALSE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?

    a. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system.
    b. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fixed fire extinguishing system.
    c. The installation of a water sprinkler extinguishing system is prohibited.
    d. All of the above
9704: Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces which are "specially suitable for vehicles"?

    a. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system.
    b. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fixed fire extinguishing system.
    c. The Commandant may permit the installation of an approved water sprinkler extinguishing system.
    d. All of the above
9705: Which of the following statements is/are FALSE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?

    a. The spaces shall NOT be fitted with a flame detecting system.
    b. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system.
    c. As an alternative to a fixed CO2 system, the Commandant may permit a water sprinkler system.
    d. All of the above
9706: Which of the following statements is/are FALSE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?

    a. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system.
    b. The spaces shall NOT be fitted with fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems.
    c. The Commandant may permit the installation of an approved water sprinkler extinguishing system.
    d. All of the above
69354: Which casualty involving a mobile offshore drilling unit would require a report to be filed?

    a. Damage to property of $20,000
    b. An injury treated by first aid
    c. An occurrence materially and adversely affecting the vessel's fitness for service
    d. All of the above

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