Safety 3



These pages contains all possible questions which might be thrown at you in the "Deck General" module exam.  When you go in for your exam, your test questions will be selected from the list below.



3796: Which of the following steps should normally be taken first by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency situation?

    a. Ration food and water supplies
    b. Search for survivors
    c. Determine position and closest point of land
    d. Check pyrotechnic supplies
3797: What are the longitudinal moments for the contents of P-tank #1 of the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 2.3 feet?

    a. -3,096 ft-tons
    b. -3,880 ft-tons
    c. -4,663 ft-tons
    d. -6,509 ft-tons
3799: With no alternative but to jump from an OSV, the correct posture should include __________.

    a. holding down the lifejacket against the chest with one arm, crossing the other, covering the mouth and nose with a hand, and keeping the feet together
    b. knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legs
    c. body straight and arms held tightly at the sides for a feet first entry into the water
    d. both hands holding the lifejacket below the chin with knees bent and legs crossed
3800: If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be __________.

    a. spread apart as far as possible
    b. held as tightly against your chest as possible
    c. in a kneeling position
    d. extended straight down and crossed at the ankles
3801: What are the vertical moments for the cement contents of P-tank #1 of the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 2.3 feet?

    a. 4,198 ft-tons
    b. 7,067 ft-tons
    c. 7,096 ft-tons
    d. 14,921 ft-tons
3803: For the DEEP DRILLER, what are the transverse moments for a sounding of 5 feet in tank C3P?

    a. 1,005 foot-tons
    b. 2,139 foot-tons
    c. -7,130 foot-tons
    d. -10,797 foot-tons
3804: All OSV personnel should be familiar with survival craft __________.

    a. boarding and operating procedures
    b. maintenance schedule
    c. navigational systems
    d. fuel consumption rates
3805: For the DEEP DRILLER, what are the longitudinal moments for a sounding of 15 feet in tank C3P?

    a. 1,055 foot-tons
    b. 7,772 foot-tons
    c. -21,391 foot-tons
    d. -25,669 foot-tons
3806: A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.

    a. should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding the righting straps and leaning backwards
    b. should be righted by standing on the life line, holding the righting straps leaning backwards
    c. will right itself when the canopy tube inflates
    d. must be cleared of the buoyant equipment before it will right itself
3807: For the DEEP DRILLER, What are the vertical moments for a sounding of 10 feet in tank C3P?

    a. 1,055 foot-tons
    b. 4,754 foot-tons
    c. 14,621 foot-tons
    d. 17,113 foot-tons
3809: Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored quantities of water?

    a. Up to 3 days
    b. 8 to 14 days
    c. 15 to 20 days
    d. 25 to 30 days
3810: If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after having abandoned an OSV in a survival craft, you should __________.

    a. go in one direction until the fuel runs out
    b. plot course for the nearest land
    c. take a vote on the direction in which to go
    d. shutdown the engines and put out the sea anchor
3811: The sounding in fuel oil tank 4P on the DEEP DRILLER is 8.75 feet. What are the longitudinal moments for this amount of fuel?

    a. -17,416 ft-long tons
    b. -874 ft-long tons
    c. 3,992 ft-long tons
    d. 17,416 ft-long tons
3812: If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft, your main course of action should be to __________.

    a. remain in the vicinity of the sinking vessel
    b. head for the closest land
    c. head for the closest sea-lanes
    d. get a majority opinion
3813: The sounding in tank 1P of the DEEP DRILLER is 7.58 feet. What are the vertical moments for this quantity of ballast?

    a. 729 ft-long tons
    b. 991 ft-long tons
    c. 19,609 ft-long tons
    d. 27,652 ft-long tons
3814: If you are forced to abandon ship in a rescue boat, you should __________.

    a. remain in the immediate vicinity
    b. head for the nearest land
    c. head for the closest sea-lanes
    d. vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision
3815: Among the valves to open when deballasting using tanks 1P and 10P of the DEEP DRILLER is __________.

    a. 2 Port
    b. 24 Port
    c. 48 Port
    d. 44 Port
3816: When abandoning an OSV, following the launching of the survival craft you should __________.

    a. plot a course for the nearest land
    b. take a vote on the direction in which to go
    c. stay in the immediate area
    d. go in one direction until fuel runs out
3817: What is the change in longitudinal moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 long tons of ballast is discharged from a full ballast tank 1P?

    a. 10,944 foot-tons decrease
    b. 7,761 foot-tons decrease
    c. 6,707 foot-tons decrease
    d. 155 foot-tons decrease
3818: To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning an OSV, when no rescue craft is in sight, they should __________.

    a. be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other survivors in the water
    b. float on their backs with their arms extended for maximum exposure to the air
    c. remove their life jackets and hold on to uninjured survivors
    d. sip seawater at intervals of fifteen minutes
3819: If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning an OSV and no rescue craft are in sight, they should __________.

    a. tie themselves to the unit to avoid drifting with the current
    b. group to form a small circle of survivors to create a warmer pocket of water in the center of the circle
    c. send the strongest swimmer to shore for assistance
    d. from a raft by lashing their life jackets together
3820: Once the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation has been established, the drinking routine should include __________.

    a. small sips at regular intervals during the day
    b. a complete daily ration at one time during the day
    c. one-third the daily ration three times during the day
    d. small sips only after sunset
3821: What is the change in transverse moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 long tons of ballast is discharged from a full ballast tank 1P?

    a. 10,944 foot-tons decrease
    b. 7,761 foot-tons increase
    c. 1,797 foot-tons increase
    d. 155 foot-tons decrease
3822: In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to personnel who are __________.

    a. thirsty
    b. sick or injured
    c. wet
    d. awake
3823: What is the change in vertical moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 long tons of ballast is discharged from a full ballast tank 1P?

    a. 6,707 foot-tons decrease
    b. 4,984 foot-tons decrease
    c. 1,914 foot-tons decrease
    d. 155 foot-tons decrease
3824: After abandoning a vessel, water consumed within the first 24 hours __________.

    a. will pass through the body with very little being absorbed by the system
    b. will help prevent fatigue
    c. will quench thirst for only two hours
    d. help prevent seasickness
3825: What is the change in longitudinal moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 long-tons of ballast is transferred from a full ballast tank 1P to an empty ballast tank 10S?

    a. 21,913 foot-tons decrease
    b. 13,414 foot-tons decrease
    c. 10,944 foot-tons decrease
    d. 6,707 foot-tons decrease
3826: You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft or survival craft. How much water per day should you permit each person to have after the first 24 hours?

    a. 1 can
    b. 1 pint
    c. 1 quart
    d. 1 gallon
3827: What is the change in transverse moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 long-tons of ballast is transferred from a full ballast tank 1P to an empty ballast tank 10S?

    a. 15,522 foot-tons increase
    b. 15,181 foot-tons increase
    c. 3,594 foot-tons increase
    d. 1,797 foot-tons increase
3829: Inflatable liferafts shall be serviced at an approved servicing facility every 12 months or not later than the next vessel inspection for certification. However, the total elapsed time between servicing cannot exceed __________.

    a. 12 months
    b. 15 months
    c. 17 months
    d. 18 months
3830: Inflatable liferafts must be overhauled and inspected at a U. S. Coast Guard approved service facility every __________.

    a. six months
    b. twelve months
    c. eighteen months
    d. twenty-four months
3831: Among the valves to open on the DEEP DRILLER, if you have to transfer ballast from Tank 10P to Tank 1S using #1 ballast pump, is valve __________.

    a. 24 Port
    b. 33 Port
    c. 34 Port
    d. 44 Port
3832: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0148

    a. 229.8 ft
    b. 234.3 ft
    c. 246.8 ft
    d. 251.5 ft
3833: Among the valves to open on the DEEP DRILLER, if you have to transfer ballast from Tank 1P to Tank 10S using #1 ballast pump, is valve __________.

    a. 33 Starboard
    b. 44 Starboard
    c. 33 Port
    d. 44 Port
3835: What port-side valves must be open to transfer ballast from Tank 10P to Tank 1P on the DEEP DRILLER, using the Port #1 ballast pump?

    a. 23, 35, 34, 33, 43, and 2
    b. 23, 43, 33, and 1B
    c. 23, 33, 43, and 1
    d. 23, 35, 34, 33, 43, and 1
3837: What port-side valves must be open to transfer ballast from Tank 1P to Tank 10P on the DEEP DRILLER using the Port #1 ballast pump?

    a. 1, 33, 43, and 24
    b. 1, 33, 44, 45, and 23
    c. 1, 34, 35, and 23
    d. 1, 33, 43, 48, and 23
3838: Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.

    a. convection
    b. conduction
    c. radiation
    d. direct contact
3840: The painter of the inflatable liferaft has a length of __________.

    a. 25 feet
    b. 100 feet
    c. 200 feet
    d. 400 feet
3841: What is the change in the vertical moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 2.0 feet of ballast is transferred from a full ballast tank 3P to an empty ballast tank 10P?

    a. 43 ft-tons increase
    b. 69 ft-tons decrease
    c. 556 ft-tons decrease
    d. 5,575 ft-tons decrease
3842: You must ensure that lifesaving equipment is __________.

    a. locked up
    b. readily accessible for use
    c. inaccessible to passengers
    d. on the topmost deck of the vessel at all times
3843: The sounding in tank 1P of the DEEP DRILLER is 7.58 feet. What are the longitudinal moments for this quantity of ballast?

    a. 729 ft-long tons
    b. 6,707 ft-long tons
    c. 19,609 ft-long tons
    d. 27,652 ft-long tons
3845: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the valves to open when transferring ballast from Tank 1S to Tank 10P using the #1 ballast pump is valve __________.

    a. 33 Starboard
    b. 44 Starboard
    c. 33 Port
    d. 44 Port
3847: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the valves to open when transferring ballast from Tank 10S to Tank 1P using the #2 ballast pump is valve __________.

    a. 33 Starboard
    b. 44 Starboard
    c. 33 Port
    d. 34 Port
3848: Each personal flotation device light on an OSV that has a non-replacement power source must be replaced __________.

    a. every six months after initial installation
    b. every 12 months after initial installation
    c. every 24 months after initial installation
    d. on or before the expiration date of the power source
3849: The capacity of any liferaft on board a vessel can be determined by __________.

    a. examining the Certificate of Inspection
    b. examining the plate on the outside of the raft container
    c. referring to the Muster List ("Station Bill")
    d. referring to the shipping articles
3850: Each personal flotation device light on an OSV that has a non-replaceable power source must be replaced __________.

    a. every six months after initial installation
    b. every 12 months after initial installation
    c. every 24 months after initial installation
    d. on or before the expiration date of the power source
3851: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the valves to open when transferring ballast from Tank 10P to Tank 1S using the #2 ballast pump is valve __________.

    a. 33 Starboard
    b. 36 Starboard
    c. 33 Port
    d. 36 Port
3852: The light on a personal flotation device on an OSV must be replaced __________.

    a. when the power source is replaced
    b. each year after installation
    c. every six months
    d. when it is no longer serviceable
3853: Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require inflatable liferafts to be equipped with __________.

    a. a first aid kit
    b. an instruction manual
    c. a sea anchor
    d. All of the above
3854: According to the regulations, the capacity of a liferaft is required to be marked __________.

    a. on the Muster List ("Station Bill")
    b. at the liferaft stowage location
    c. on the Certificate of Inspection
    d. in the Operations Manual
3855: Which document will describe lifesaving equipment located aboard your vessel?

    a. Muster List ("Station Bill")
    b. Certificate of Inspection
    c. Forecastle Card
    d. Clearance Papers
3856: The immersion suit requirements for OSV apply to units operating in the Atlantic Ocean __________.

    a. above 20 degrees North and below 20 degrees South
    b. above 25 degrees North and below 25 degrees South
    c. above 30 degrees North and below 30 degrees South
    d. above 32 degrees North and below 32 degrees South
3857: Where would you find a list of the lifesaving equipment onboard your supply boat?

    a. Ship's Articles
    b. Muster List ("Station Bill")
    c. Certificate of Inspection
    d. U.S. Coast Guard Regulations
3858: Lifesaving equipment shall be stowed so that it will be __________.

    a. locked up
    b. readily accessible for use
    c. inaccessible to passengers
    d. on the topmost deck of the vessel at all times
3859: When can a work vest be substituted for a lifejacket in the total count of the required lifesaving gear?

    a. When it is approved by the Coast Guard
    b. When working near or over the water
    c. When stowed away from the ring buoys
    d. A work vest may never be counted as a lifejacket.
3860: Lifejackets should be stowed in __________.

    a. the forepeaks
    b. the pumproom
    c. readily accessible spaces
    d. locked watertight containers
3861: Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that life jackets shall be __________.

    a. provided for each person onboard
    b. provided for all personnel of watch
    c. readily accessible to persons in the engine room
    d. All of the above
3862: In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations, Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests __________.

    a. should be stowed in engineering spaces in lieu of approved life jackets because they are less bulky and permit free movement in confined spaces
    b. may be used as a substitute for approved life preservers during routine drills, but never during an emergency
    c. should not be stowed where they could be confused with life jackets in an emergency
    d. All of the above
3863: On an OSV, how many ring buoys are required to have a buoyant line attached?

    a. One ring life buoy
    b. One ring life buoy on each side of the OSV
    c. Three ring life buoys
    d. Two ring life buoys on each side of the OSV
3864: Of the required ring life buoys for an OSV, how many must be equipped with a waterlight?

    a. 8
    b. 4
    c. 2
    d. 1
3865: What is the minimum required number of ring life buoys on an OSV certified for ocean service?

    a. 4
    b. 8
    c. 12
    d. 16
3866: Each distress signal and self-activated smoke signal must be replaced not later than the marked date of expiration, or not more than how many months from the date of manufacture?

    a. 48 months
    b. 42 months
    c. 36 months
    d. 30 months
3867: Each OSV must carry __________.

    a. one category I 406 Mhz satellite EPIRB
    b. at least one life buoy on each side of the vessel fitted with a buoyant life line
    c. at least 12 rocket parachute flares
    d. All of the above
3868: The rescue boat on an OSV shall carry a tow line strong enough to tow the vessel's largest loaded liferaft at a speed of at least __________.

    a. 1 knot
    b. 2 knot
    c. 5 knot
    d. 10 knot
3870: Each EPIRB required on an OSV shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output indicator every __________.

    a. week
    b. two weeks
    c. month
    d. two months
3871: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the port-side valves to open when deballasting from ballast tank 2P is valve __________.

    a. 3
    b. 5
    c. 6
    d. 7
3872: For an OSV not on an international voyage, an approved substitute for an impulse projected type line throwing appliance is a __________.

    a. spring-loaded line thrower
    b. hand thrown buoyant line
    c. shoulder type line throwing gun
    d. heaving line
3873: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when deballasting from ballast tank 8S is valve __________.

    a. 7
    b. 8
    c. 17
    d. 18
3875: The breaking strength of the service lines of the rockets used with an impulse-projected, rocket type line throwing appliances is __________.

    a. 300 lbs
    b. 500 lbs
    c. 1000 lbs
    d. 1500 lbs
3876: What is NOT a requirement for testing the line throwing appliance on a vessel?

    a. A drill should be conducted every three months.
    b. A regular service line must be used when it's fired.
    c. A regular projectile must be used when it's fired.
    d. The actual firing is at the discretion of the Master.
3877: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when deballasting from ballast tank 2S is valve __________.

    a. 8
    b. 19
    c. 20
    d. 48
3879: The signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats is __________.

    a. 1 short blast on the ship's whistle
    b. 3 short blasts on the ship's whistle
    c. 3 long blasts on the ship's whistle
    d. 1 long blast on the ship's whistle
3880: The Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon on an OSV vessel must be stowed __________.

    a. in an inside passageway
    b. in an approved bracket
    c. so that it is accessible from the pilothouse of the vessel
    d. so that it will float free if the vessel sinks
3881: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when deballasting from ballast tank 2S is valve __________.

    a. 3
    b. 5
    c. 6
    d. 7
3883: Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an EPIRB.

    a. A sailing vessel
    b. A fishing vessel
    c. A non self-propelled vessel
    d. A towing vessel
3885: On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when flooding through the overboard discharge into ballast tank 1S is valve __________.

    a. 2
    b. 3
    c. 7
    d. 37
3886: Which type EPIRB must each ocean-going OSV carry?

    a. Class A
    b. Class B
    c. Class C
    d. Category I
3887: The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) is __________.

    a. secured inside the wheelhouse
    b. tested annually
    c. tested monthly
    d. secured in the emergency locker
3888: CATEGORY I EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that are monitored by __________.

    a. orbiting satellites in space
    b. commercial radio stations
    c. private, commercial, and military aircraft
    d. Both A & C
3891: Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a survival craft?

    a. Hand held flares and orange smoke signals are required.
    b. If hand-held rocket-propelled parachute flares are provided, they are the only distress signals required.
    c. Two hand-held smoke signals shall be provided.
    d. A Very pistol with twelve flares is required.
3892: By regulation, orange smoke distress signals will expire not more than how many months from the date of manufacture?

    a. 24 months
    b. 36 months
    c. 42 months
    d. 54 months
3893: When filling fuel-oil tank 4S on the DEEP DRILLER, it is necessary to open valve __________.

    a. 9
    b. 10
    c. 11
    d. 12
3894: A liferaft with a capacity of 8 people used in ocean service is required by regulations to carry __________.

    a. 8 liters of fresh water
    b. 12 units of provisions
    c. 12 liters of fresh water
    d. 24 units of provisions
3895: When filling fuel-oil tank 6P on the DEEP DRILLER, it is necessary to open valve __________.

    a. 9
    b. 10
    c. 11
    d. 12
3896: Life preservers must be marked with the __________.

    a. stowage space assigned
    b. vessel's name
    c. vessel's home port
    d. maximum weight allowed
3897: What is the maximum length of time that distress flares are approved for?

    a. 1 and 1/2 years
    b. 2 years
    c. 3 and 1/2 years
    d. 5 years
3900: The life jackets on all vessels shall be __________.

    a. inspected weekly
    b. worn at all times
    c. readily available
    d. tested yearly
3901: Among the valves on the DEEP DRILLER to open when using the Salt-Water Service Pump to pump water into tank 10S is __________.

    a. 48
    b. 47
    c. 37
    d. 23
3902: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0149

    a. Available GM 3.0 ft
    b. Available GM 3.7 ft
    c. Available GM 4.0 ft
    d. Available GM 4.2 ft
3903: Among the valves on the DEEP DRILLER which may be opened when using the Salt-Water Service Pump to pump water into Tank 1P is __________.

    a. 33
    b. 36
    c. 46
    d. 48
3904: The light on a life jacket must be replaced __________.

    a. when the power source is replaced
    b. each year after installation
    c. every six months
    d. when it is no longer serviceable
3905: On the DEEP DRILLER, when using the starboard #2 ballast pump to provide water to the main deck from the sea, it is necessary to open valves __________.

    a. 37, 35, 36, 45
    b. 37, 36, 46, 47
    c. 38, 47
    d. 38, 47, 45, 46
3906: When a lifeline is required to be attached to a ring life buoy it must be at least __________.

    a. 30 feet long
    b. 60 feet long
    c. 90 feet long
    d. 120 feet long
3907: Line throwing apparatus aboard ship must contain __________.

    a. two rockets, one of which shall be the buoyant type
    b. three rockets, one of which shall be the buoyant type
    c. four rockets, two of which shall be the buoyant type
    d. five rockets, two of which shall be the buoyant type
3909: Which statement is TRUE concerning the testing of the line-throwing appliance?

    a. It shall be fired at least once in every three months.
    b. A drill in its use shall be held once in every 3 months.
    c. Drills shall be held quarterly and it shall be fired annually.
    d. No drills are required.
3910: Your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line throwing appliance. The auxiliary line must __________.

    a. be of a light color
    b. be 250 meters in length
    c. have a breaking strength of 9000 lbs
    d. be made of synthetic material
3911: For the DEEP DRILLER, it is recommended that the number of lower-hull ballast tanks with free surfaces be less than __________.

    a. 2
    b. 4
    c. 6
    d. 8
3912: If you must enter water on which there is an oil fire, you should __________.

    a. protect your life preserver by holding it above your head
    b. enter the water on the windward side of the vessel
    c. keep both hands in front of your face to break the water surface when diving head first
    d. wear very light clothing
3913: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has 50,000 ft-tons of longitudinal moments. How much ballast should be transferred between tanks 1P and 10P to level the unit longitudinally?

    a. 45.3 long tons
    b. 90.6 long tons
    c. 118.1 long tons
    d. 236.1 long tons
3914: If you must jump from a vessel, the correct posture includes __________.

    a. holding down the life preserver against the chest with one arm crossing the other, covering the mouth and nose with a hand, and feet together
    b. knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legs
    c. body straight and arms held tightly at the sides for feet first entry into the water
    d. both hands holding the life preserver below the chin with knees bent and legs crossed
3915: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has 35,000 ft-tons of longitudinal moments. How much ballast should be transferred between tanks 1P and 10P to level the unit longitudinally?

    a. 25.5 long tons
    b. 50.2 long tons
    c. 165.3 long tons
    d. 330.2 long tons
3916: If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by __________.

    a. pushing up on one side
    b. standing on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and throwing your weight backwards
    c. getting at least three or four men to push down on the side containing the CO2 cylinder
    d. doing nothing; it will right itself after the canopy supports inflate
3917: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has 3,765 ft-tons of transverse moments. How much ballast should be transferred between tanks 1P and 1S to level the unit in list?

    a. 25.1 long tons
    b. 50.2 long tons
    c. 62.8 long tons
    d. 252.1 long tons
3918: If your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water, you should FIRST __________.

    a. cut the line to the sea anchor
    b. paddle away from the fire
    c. splash water over the liferaft to cool it
    d. get out of the raft and swim to safety
3920: Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.

    a. shape
    b. shallow draft
    c. large sail area
    d. All of the above
3921: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has -3,600 ft-tons of transverse moments. How much ballast should be transferred between tanks 10P and 10S to level the unit in list?

    a. 25.1 long tons
    b. 50.2 long tons
    c. 62.8 long tons
    d. 252.1 long tons
3922: You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?

    a. The saltwater is activating the batteries of the marker lights on the canopy.
    b. The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the tubes fully inflated.
    c. A deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of CO2.
    d. Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop.
3923: Among the valves that must be opened on the DEEP DRILLER to pump bilge water out of the port pump room using the #1 bilge pump is valve __________.

    a. 28
    b. 36
    c. 41
    d. 42
3924: If you are forced to abandon ship in a liferaft, your course of action should be to __________.

    a. remain in the immediate vicinity
    b. head for the nearest land
    c. head for the closest sea-lanes
    d. let the persons in the boat vote on what to do
3925: Among the valves that must be opened on the DEEP DRILLER to pump bilge water out of the port pump room using both bilge pumps is valve __________.

    a. 26
    b. 28
    c. 36
    d. 41
3926: To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.

    a. be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other survivors in the water
    b. float on their backs with their arms extended for maximum exposure to the air
    c. remove their life preservers and hold on to the uninjured survivors
    d. sip water at intervals of fifteen minutes
3927: What pump may be used to supplement the bilge pump on the DEEP DRILLER?

    a. #1 Ballast
    b. #2 Ballast
    c. Salt-Water Service
    d. Drill water
3928: Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________.

    a. survivors in the water
    b. food and water
    c. land
    d. bad weather
3929: What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an inflatable liferaft?

    a. Open equipment pack.
    b. Post a lookout.
    c. Issue anti-seasickness medicine.
    d. Pick up other survivors.
3930: You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your vessel. One of your FIRST actions should be to __________.

    a. take measures to maintain morale
    b. prepare and use radio equipment
    c. identify the person in charge of liferaft
    d. search for survivors
3931: Aboard the DEEP DRILLER, to use the drill water pump to supplement the bilge pumps, it is necessary to open valves 26 and __________.

    a. 41
    b. 29
    c. 28
    d. 25
3932: You have hand launched an inflatable liferaft. What should be one of your FIRST actions after all persons have boarded the liferaft?

    a. Open the equipment pack.
    b. Inflate the liferaft floor.
    c. Decide on food and water rations.
    d. Cut the sea painter and clear the vessel.
3933: On the DEEP DRILLER, the drill water pump may be used to supplement the bilge pumps. Its normal pumping rate is __________.

    a. 250 gallons per minute
    b. 350 gallons per minute
    c. 500 gallons per minute
    d. 700 gallons per minute
3934: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0150

    a. 228.8 ft
    b. 238.3 ft
    c. 252.4 ft
    d. 266.5 ft
3935: To pump bilge water out of the port pump room on the DEEP DRILLER, using the #2 bilge pump, open port-side valve __________.

    a. 28
    b. 36
    c. 41
    d. 42
3936: After abandoning ship which action should be taken IMMEDIATELY upon entering a liferaft?

    a. Open equipment pack.
    b. Issue anti-seasickness medicine.
    c. Get clear of the ship.
    d. Dry the liferaft floor and inflate.
3937: On the DEEP DRILLER, to pump bilge water out of the starboard pump room using both bilge pumps, it is necessary to open valves __________.

    a. 41 and 42
    b. 39 and 40
    c. 39, 40, 41, and 42
    d. 39, 40, 41, 42, 26, and 28
3938: You have abandoned ship in rough weather. After picking up other survivors in your liferaft, what should you do next?

    a. Close up the entrances.
    b. Top up the buoyancy tubes.
    c. Prepare for the arrival of rescue units.
    d. Decide on food and water rations.
3939: You board an inflatable liferaft that has been hand launched from a sinking vessel. What should you do FIRST after everyone is onboard the liferaft?

    a. Cut the painter.
    b. Operate the radio equipment.
    c. Open the equipment pack.
    d. Ventilate the liferaft of CO2.
3940: If you must swim through an oil fire, you should NOT __________.

    a. wear as much clothing as possible
    b. enter the water feet first
    c. swim with the wind
    d. cover eyes with one hand when entering the water
3941: Aboard the DEEP DRILLER, the drill water pump may be used to provide drill water to the deck and __________.

    a. supplement the bilge pumps
    b. provide saltwater service to the deck
    c. emergency fuel-oil recovery
    d. supplement the ballast pumps
3942: You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a raft?

    a. Wet clothes during the day to decrease perspiration.
    b. Get plenty of rest.
    c. Keep the entrance curtains open.
    d. All of the above
3943: On the DEEP DRILLER, to use the drill water pump to supplement the bilge pumps, it is necessary to open valves 28 and __________.

    a. 25
    b. 26
    c. 29
    d. 48
3944: What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system?

    a. The fire pump
    b. Exposed hard piping
    c. The hydrant valve
    d. The fire hose
3945: Aboard the DEEP DRILLER, the bilge pumps take suction from the pump rooms, cofferdam, void area, access trunk, and __________.

    a. center column chain lockers
    b. backup drill water tank
    c. primary salt-water service tank
    d. forward and after column chain lockers
3946: Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by __________.

    a. a mechanical arm outside the vent duct
    b. the heat of a fire melting the link
    c. electrical controls on the bridge
    d. a break-glass and pull-cable system
3947: The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept open when underway?

    a. They can be kept open if the Muster List ("Station Bill") has personnel designated to close them in case of fire.
    b. They may be kept open if they can be automatically closed from the bridge.
    c. They may be kept open if the ventilation or air conditioning system is shut down.
    d. They are to be kept closed at all times.
3948: While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather __________.

    a. the canopy should be deflated so that it will not block cooling breezes
    b. the pressure valve may be periodically opened to prevent excessive air pressure
    c. deflating the floor panels may help to cool personnel
    d. the entrance curtains should never be opened
3949: When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft?

    a. After 12 hours
    b. After 24 hours
    c. Within 48 hours
    d. Some food and water should be consumed immediately and then not until 48 hours later
3950: You are picking up a conscious person that has fallen overboard. Recovery is easier if you approach with the __________.

    a. victim to leeward
    b. victim to windward
    c. wind on your port side
    d. wind on your starboard side
3951: All personnel on board a vessel should be familiar with the rescue boat's __________.

    a. boarding and operating procedure
    b. maintenance schedules
    c. navigational systems
    d. fuel consumption rates
3952: If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by __________.

    a. filling the stabilizers on one side with water
    b. releasing the CO2 cylinder
    c. pushing up from under one end
    d. standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on the underside of the raft
3953: To turn over a liferaft that is floating upside down, you should pull on the __________.

    a. canopy
    b. manropes
    c. sea painter
    d. righting lines
3954: The float free link attached to a sea painter on an inflatable liferaft has a breaking strength of __________.

    a. 100-134 lbs for buoyant apparatus with a capacity of 10 persons or less
    b. 200-268 lbs for buoyant apparatus with a capacity of 11 to 20 persons
    c. 400-536 lbs for buoyant apparatus with a capacity of 21 persons or more
    d. All of the above
3955: The person-in-charge shall insure that each rescue boat on an OSV is lowered to the water, launched and operated at least once every __________.

    a. week
    b. two months
    c. three months
    d. six months
3956: Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?

    a. Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft container down.
    b. Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down.
    c. Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open the container.
    d. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump.
3957: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the weight of the mud in pit #4 if the sounding level changed from 8 to 6 feet?

    a. 80.00 long tons
    b. 77.75 long tons
    c. 83.34 long tons
    d. 106.67 long tons
3958: If there's a fire aboard your vessel, you should FIRST __________.

    a. notify the Coast Guard
    b. have passengers put on life preservers
    c. sound the alarm
    d. cut off air supply to the fire
3960: A rigid lifesaving device designed to support survivors in the water is a __________.

    a. rigid liferaft
    b. life float
    c. inflatable liferaft
    d. survival capsule
3961: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown is Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the change in vertical moments for Fresh Water if the entire contents of Drill Water Tank 5P are transferred to Drill Water Tank 5S?

    a. 5,683 ft-tons
    b. 2,689 ft-tons
    c. 306 ft-tons
    d. 000 ft-tons
3962: When should food or water be provided to survivors after boarding a liferaft?

    a. After 12 hours
    b. After 24 hours
    c. After 48 hours
    d. Some food and water should be consumed immediately and then not until 48 hours later
3963: Salt water ballast tank 2P on the DEEP DRILLER contains 5.0 feet of ballast. It is decided to fill the tank. What is the VCG of the added liquid?

    a. 7.5 feet
    b. 10.0 feet
    c. 12.5 feet
    d. 15.0 feet
3964: Paints and solvents on a vessel should be __________.

    a. stored safely in a cool dark non-ventilated area until work is completed
    b. resealed and returned to a well ventilated area after each use
    c. covered at all times to protect from ignition sources
    d. stored in a suitable gear locker
3965: In the DEEP DRILLER, the transverse and longitudinal free surface moments for entry into the daily load form are obtained __________.

    a. from tank tables
    b. by multiplying displacement by the free surface correction
    c. by dividing by displacement
    d. by dividing by the free surface correction
3966: In the illustration shown, the righting strap is shown as item number __________. (D014SA )

    a. 8
    b. 9
    c. 12
    d. 16
3967: The sounding in tank 1P of the DEEP DRILLER is 7.58 feet. It is decided to fill tank 1P by flooding through the sea chest. What are the vertical moments for the added ballast?

    a. 6,899 ft-long tons
    b. 6,149 ft-long tons
    c. 5,908 ft-long tons
    d. 2,615 ft-long tons
3969: The sea anchor shown as item number 14 will NOT __________. (D014SA )

    a. check the liferaft's way
    b. keep the liferaft end on to the sea
    c. reduce the possibility of capsizing or broaching
    d. right the raft if it inflates inverted
3971: What weight is added when P-tank #4 in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Transit) is completely filled?

    a. 19.54 long tons
    b. 55.71 long tons
    c. 75.25 long tons
    d. 94.79 long tons
3972: The external recognition light can be seem up to two miles and is shown as item number __________. (D014SA )

    a. 2
    b. 3
    c. 6
    d. 16
3973: What are the additional vertical moments created when P-tank #4 in the DEEP DRILLER sample load form #1 (Transit) is completely filled?

    a. 2,252 foot-tons
    b. 9,413 foot-tons
    c. 11,665 foot-tons
    d. 13,917 foot-tons
3974: In the illustration, the sea anchor is shown as item number_____. (D014SA )

    a. 7
    b. 13
    c. 15
    d. 14
3975: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new uncorrected KG?

    a. 52.09 feet
    b. 52.20 feet
    c. 53.23 feet
    d. 55.36 feet
3976: In the illustration, which item number correctly identifies the ballast bags? (D014SA )

    a. item #2
    b. item #12
    c. item #13
    d. item #22
3977: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new longitudinal free surface correction?

    a. 1.63 feet
    b. 1.65 feet
    c. 1.67 feet
    d. 1.69 feet
3979: In the illustration shown, where would you find the knife? (D014SA )

    a. Item #2
    b. item #4
    c. item #12
    d. item #16
3980: In the illustration shown, the pressure relief valve is indicated as item number __________. (D014SA )

    a. 3
    b. 4
    c. 9
    d. 11
3981: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new position of the longitudinal center of buoyancy?

    a. 0.00 feet
    b. 1.69 feet
    c. 2.25 feet
    d. 2.29 feet
3982: In the illustration shown, the external lifelines are shown as item number __________. (D014SA )

    a. 1
    b. 12
    c. 17
    d. 19
3983: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new height of the longitudinal metacenter?

    a. 61.24 feet
    b. 61.22 feet
    c. 61.20 feet
    d. 61.13 feet
3984: As shown in the illustration, item #8 would be a(n)______________. (D014SA )

    a. recognition light
    b. rain water catchment tube assembly
    c. pressure relief valve
    d. floating sheath knife
3985: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new location of the longitudinal center of gravity?

    a. 1.71 feet
    b. 1.94 feet
    c. 2.09 feet
    d. 2.23 feet
3986: A fire is discovered in the bow of your vessel while making way. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should __________.

    a. remain on course and hold speed
    b. remain on course but slack the speed
    c. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed
    d. change course and put the stern to the wind
3987: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new longitudinal metacentric height?

    a. 5.02 feet
    b. 5.65 feet
    c. 7.33 feet
    d. 7.63 feet
3988: In the illustration shown, the weak link is item number __________. (D015SA )

    a. 8
    b. 6
    c. 4
    d. 1
3989: Inflatable liferafts on vessels on an international voyage must be able to carry at least __________.

    a. 2 persons
    b. 4 persons
    c. 6 persons
    d. 8 persons
3990: What is a FALSE statement concerning the line throwing appliance on a vessel?

    a. A drill on its use must be held once every three months.
    b. The actual firing is at the discretion of the Master.
    c. The auxiliary line must be of a light color.
    d. The auxiliary line must be at least 1500 feet long.
3991: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of transverse moments for the Stores & Supplies (Table 6) if paint weighing 3.48 tons is added to the paint locker?

    a. 592 foot-tons
    b. 296 foot-tons
    c. 148 foot-tons
    d. 000 foot-tons
3992: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 3300 brake horsepower?

    a. 2
    b. 3
    c. 4
    d. 5
3993: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of longitudinal moments for the Stores & Supplies (Table 6) if paint weighing 3.48 tons is added to the paint locker?

    a. 5,996 foot-tons
    b. 1,688 foot-tons
    c. 495 foot-tons
    d. 115 foot-tons
3994: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine about to surface due to an emergency condition within the submarine is __________.

    a. green
    b. red
    c. white
    d. yellow
3995: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of vertical moments for the Stores & Supplies if paint weighing 3.48 tons is added to the paint locker?

    a. 13,346 foot-tons
    b. 5,054 foot-tons
    c. 964 foot-tons
    d. 292 foot-tons
3996: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-11.5", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0151

    a. 2.85 feet
    b. 2.65 feet
    c. 2.36 feet
    d. 2.15 feet
3997: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of vertical moments for Fuel Oil if the entire contents of Tank 4P are transferred to Tank 4S?

    a. 3,493 foot-tons
    b. 1,797 foot-tons
    c. 1,748 foot-tons
    d. 100 foot-tons
3999: Which item may be substituted for, in the fireman's outfit, on a cargo vessel?

    a. fire ax
    b. flashlight
    c. rigid helmet
    d. flame safety lamp
4000: On a rigid liferaft (SOLAS B pack) which is equipped with all of the required equipment you may NOT find a __________.

    a. bailer
    b. sponge
    c. whistle
    d. fishing kit
4001: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of longitudinal moments for Fuel Oil (Table 2) if the entire contents of Tank 4P are transferred to Tank 4S?

    a. 000 foot-tons
    b. 3,992 foot-tons
    c. 7,984 foot-tons
    d. 15,968 foot-tons
4002: A combustible gas indicator will NOT operate correctly when the __________.

    a. hydrocarbon content of the atmosphere is less than the U.E.L
    b. atmosphere is deficient in oxygen
    c. distance between the operator and the compartment to be tested is greater than 50 feet
    d. All of the above
4003: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of transverse moments for Fuel Oil if the entire contents of Tank 4P are transferred to Tank 4S?

    a. 995 foot-tons
    b. 16,918 foot-tons
    c. 17,713 foot-tons
    d. 34,381 foot-tons
4004: To serve as a person in charge of transfer operations on board a self-propelled tank vessel, an individual must __________.

    a. hold a valid officer's license for inspected vessels
    b. hold a tankerman-PIC endorsement
    c. be 30 years old
    d. have a letter from the company stating his qualification
4005: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of transverse free surface moments for Fuel Oil (Table 2) if the entire contents of Tank #4P are transferred to Tank #4S?

    a. 0 foot-tons
    b. 1,189 foot-tons
    c. 2,378 foot-tons
    d. 7,984 foot-tons
4006: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 18'-06", AFT 20'-10". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0152

    a. FWD 18'-11", AFT 20'-02"
    b. FWD 19'-01", AFT 20'-00"
    c. FWD 19'-03", AFT 19'-10"
    d. FWD 19'-05", AFT 19'-08"
4007: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of longitudinal free surface moments for Fuel Oil (Table 2) if the entire contents of Tank #4P are transferred to Tank #4S?

    a. 1,189 foot-tons
    b. 2,835 foot-tons
    c. 5,378 foot-tons
    d. 5,670 foot-tons
4008: You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 300 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents __________.

    a. are not obstructed by on-deck cargo
    b. have a fire extinguisher within the immediate area
    c. have containment capacity for at least one half barrel
    d. are opened and the flame screen replaced
4009: You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 1,600 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents __________.

    a. are not obstructed by on-deck cargo
    b. have a fire extinguisher within the immediate area
    c. have containment capacity for at least one barrel
    d. are opened and the flame screen replaced
4010: A ship that, at any time, operates seaward of the outermost boundary of the territorial sea is required to prepare, submit, and maintain a(n) __________.

    a. synthetic plastic discharge plan
    b. oil discharge plan
    c. shipboard oil pollution emergency plan
    d. vapor recovery procedures plan
4011: If you fail to notify the Coast Guard of an oil spill, you may be imprisoned up to __________.

    a. 1 year
    b. 2 years
    c. 3 years
    d. 5 years
4011: If you fail to notify the Coast Guard of an oil spill, you may be imprisoned up to __________.

    a. 1 year
    b. 2 years
    c. 3 years
    d. 5 years
4012: The Federal Water Pollution Control Act requires the person in charge of a vessel to immediately notify the Coast Guard as soon as he knows of any oil discharge. Failure to notify the Coast Guard can lead to a monetary fine and imprisonment up to __________.

    a. 5 years
    b. 3 years
    c. 2 years
    d. 1 years
4013: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the KG corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?

    a. 53.78 feet
    b. 54.82 feet
    c. 55.47 feet
    d. 56.01 feet
4014: Towing vessel fire protection regulations apply to vessels operated __________.

    a. for restricted service such as making up or breaking up larger tows
    b. for assistance towing
    c. for pollution response
    d. on the Western Rivers
4015: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the KG corrected for transverse free surface effects?

    a. 53.78 feet
    b. 54.82 feet
    c. 55.47 feet
    d. 56.01 feet
4016: Fire protection regulations apply to those towing vessels __________.

    a. used only for pollution response
    b. owned and operated by the US government
    c. used only within a barge fleeting area
    d. used only on inland waters
4017: Towing vessel fire protection regulations define a "fixed fire-extinguishing system" to include all of the following EXCEPT a _____________ .

    a. carbon-dioxide system
    b. halon system
    c. manually-operated clean-agent system
    d. manually-operated water-mist system
4018: Towing vessel fire protection regulations distinguish between "new" and "existing" towing vessels. A "new" towing vessel is one that was __________.

    a. built within the last three years
    b. contracted for on or after August 27, 2002
    c. contracted for on or after August 27, 2003
    d. not previously owned
4019: The regulations for a general alarm system on a towing vessel require all of the following EXCEPT that it ___________ .

    a. be capable of notifying persons in any accommodation, work space and the engine room
    b. have a contact maker at the operating station
    c. have a flashing red light in areas that have high background noise
    d. be used instead of the public address system
4020: The control panel of a fire detection system must have all of the following EXCEPT _____________ .

    a. a power-available light
    b. an audible alarm to notify the crew and identify the origin of the fire
    c. a means to silence audible alarms while maintaining visible alarm lights
    d. a way to bypass the entire panel if it malfunctions
4021: A towing vessel's fire detection system may be certified to comply with the Coast Guard's towing vessel fire protection regulations by _________ .

    a. a Coast Guard inspector
    b. a registered professional engineer
    c. the owner or Master of the vessel
    d. a licensed electrician
4022: Which towing vessels are NOT required to have an internal communication system between the engine room and the operating station?

    a. Twin-screw vessels that have operating station control for both engines
    b. Vessels on limited routes
    c. Fleet boats making or breaking tows
    d. Vessels serving a single company or facility
4023: Which devices may be used as part of an internal communication system on a towing vessel?

    a. Sound-powered telephones
    b. Portable radios
    c. Either fixed or portable equipment
    d. All of the above
4024: In the towing vessel fire protection regulations, all of the following are fire detection requirements, EXCEPT that _____________ .

    a. the control panel must have labels for all switches and indicator lights
    b. the detection system must be powered from two sources, with the switchover being either manual or automatic
    c. there must be a circuit-fault detector test-switch in the control panel
    d. none of the above
4025: When is direct voice communication allowed in place of an internal communication system on a towing vessel?

    a. When the vessel is less than 20 meters in length
    b. When the vessel is ruled to be an "existing vessel"
    c. When the controls at the operation station are within 3 meters (10 feet) of the engine room access
    d. When it is easier to shout than use a radio or telephone
4026: When do the towing vessel fire protection regulations allow a towing vessel to carry portable fuel systems on board?

    a. When used for outboard engines
    b. When permanently attached to portable equipment such as bilge and fire pumps
    c. If the portable tanks used for portable equipment meet published safety standards
    d. All of the above
4027: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM =3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?

    a. 5.66 feet
    b. 6.31 feet
    c. 7.37 feet
    d. 55.47 feet
4028: Fire protection regulations for towing vessels allow all of these types of fuel piping, EXCEPT ____________ .

    a. steel
    b. aluminum in an aluminum-hulled vessel
    c. schedule 80 fire resistant plastic pipe
    d. nickel-copper, copper-nickel or annealed copper
4029: Fire protection regulations for towing vessels allow you to use a nonmetallic flexible hose in fuel line installations under all of the following conditions EXCEPT when ___________ .

    a. used in lengths of not more than 30 inches
    b. reinforced with wire braid
    c. visible and easily accessible
    d. fitted with Coast Guard approved garden hose fittings
4030: Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require any fuel line subject to internal head pressure from fuel in the tank to ___________ .

    a. be fitted with a positive fuel shut-off valve located at the tank
    b. have a shut-off valve at the top of the tank
    c. have a gate valve easily accessible in the space where the tank is located
    d. have a drain cock at the lowest point in the fuel line
4031: The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects?

    a. 5.66 feet
    b. 7.37 feet
    c. 8.02 feet
    d. 54.82 feet
4032: Towing vessel fire protection regulations require that all fuel tank vent pipes comply with all of the following provisions EXCEPT that the vent _______________ .

    a. connects to the highest point of the tank
    b. system discharges on a weather deck through a U-shaped 180 degree pipe bend
    c. be fitted with a 30-by-30 corrosion resistant flame screen
    d. must have a positive-acting shut-off valve to prevent water from entering the tank in heavy weather
4033: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling) discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new KG?

    a. 1.18 feet
    b. 51.80 feet
    c. 52.61 feet
    d. 55.79 feet
4034: When a standard in the fire protection regulations for towing vessels is "incorporated by reference," it means that the __________.

    a. Coast Guard accepts a commercial or military standard as part of a specific regulation
    b. standard is readily available to the public
    c. standard, and where it can be obtained or referred to, are listed in the Code of Federal Regulations
    d. All of the above
4035: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new KGL?

    a. 52.60 feet
    b. 53.65 feet
    c. 54.32 feet
    d. 54.92 feet
4036: Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require that all crew members participate in drills and receive instruction at least once a month. Who is responsible for ensuring that this takes place?

    a. The Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection
    b. The Master, or person in charge of the vessel
    c. The vessel's owner or manager
    d. The company's port captain or port engineer
4037: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new KGT?

    a. 52.60 feet
    b. 53.65 feet
    c. 54.31 feet
    d. 54.92 feet
4038: Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require all crew members to know how to perform each of these tasks EXCEPT ____________ .

    a. start the mechanical ventilation system for the engine room
    b. operate the fuel shut-off for the engine room
    c. operate all fire extinguishing equipment aboard the vessel on board the vessel, including starting the fire pump
    d. All of the above
4039: The fire protection regulations for towing vessels require the crew to be trained for fire fighting with drills and safety orientations __________.

    a. only if the vessel is greater than 100 gross tons
    b. always, as stated in the regulations
    c. but, only applies to towing vessels constructed after August 27, 2003
    d. however, drills are not required for those holding a fire fighting certificate
4040: Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require training in all of the following, EXCEPT _____________ .

    a. putting on a fireman's outfit, if the vessel is so equipped
    b. donning a self-contained breathing apparatus, if the vessel is so equipped
    c. activating the general alarm and reporting inoperative alarm systems and fire-detection systems
    d. refilling and servicing all expended fire extinguishing equipment
4041: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new TCG?

    a. -0.26 foot
    b. -0.46 foot
    c. 0.46 foot
    d. 0.61 foot
4042: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 1200 brake horsepower?

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
4043: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new GML?

    a. 5.98 feet
    b. 6.48 feet
    c. 6.84 feet
    d. 7.11 feet
4044: Convection spreads a fire by __________.

    a. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
    b. the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space
    c. burning liquids flowing into another space
    d. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal
4045: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new GMT?

    a. 5.98 feet
    b. 6.84 feet
    c. 7.11 feet
    d. 9.24 feet
4046: Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require that drills be conducted on board the vessel as if there were an actual emergency. Drills include all of the following, EXCEPT ____________ .

    a. testing all alarm and detection systems
    b. breaking out and using the vessel's emergency equipment
    c. participation by selected crew members
    d. one person putting on protective clothing, if the vessel is so equipped
4047: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the centerline. What is the improvement in KGT?

    a. 0.68 foot
    b. 0.99 foot
    c. 1.16 feet
    d. 2.07 feet
4048: Fire protection and manning regulations for towing vessels state that the Master or person in charge must ensure that all crew members who have not participated in the drills or received the safety orientation _____________ .

    a. receive a safety orientation or view a videotape before the vessel gets underway
    b. view a videotape on safety procedures within 48 hours of reporting for duty
    c. receive a safety orientation within 24 hours of reporting for duty
    d. none of the above
4049: The owner or Master of a towing vessel shall ensure that all tests and inspections of gear take place and are logged ___________ .

    a. on each watch, immediately before being relieved
    b. before embarking on a voyage of more than 24 hours
    c. daily, at 1200 local zone time
    d. weekly, before 0000 Sunday
4050: The owner or Master of a towing vessel shall ensure that all tests and inspections of gear take place and are logged ___________ .

    a. when a new Master assumes command
    b. daily, at 0800 local zone time
    c. weekly, before 2400 Saturday
    d. immediately after assuming the watch
4051: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the resulting list angle?

    a. 2.11 degrees to port
    b. 1.43 degrees to starboard
    c. 2.87 degrees to starboard
    d. 3.02 degrees to starboard
4052: The test of a towing vessel's steering gear control system includes each item EXCEPT ___________ .

    a. a test from the alternative power supply, if installed
    b. timing the movement of the rudder from hard over to hard over
    c. verification that the rudder angle indicator shows the actual position of the rudder(s)
    d. visual inspection of the steering linkage
4053: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the resulting trim angle?

    a. 3.49 degrees to the stern
    b. 4.69 degrees to the stern
    c. 5.18 degrees to the stern
    d. 5.68 degrees to the stern
4054: Which navigational equipment is required to be tested and logged before a towing vessel embarks on a voyage of more than 24 hours?

    a. Compass and/or swing meter
    b. Radar(s) and VHF radio(s)
    c. LORAN-C and/or GPS receiver(s)
    d. All required navigational equipment, without exception
4055: In the DEEP DRILLER, VCG is obtained from the sum of the vertical moments by __________.

    a. adding displacement
    b. subtracting displacement
    c. multiplying by displacement
    d. dividing by displacement
4056: Which installed equipment must be tested and logged when a new Master assumes command?

    a. Internal communications, including sound-powered telephones
    b. Navigational lights and search lights
    c. Vessel control alarms
    d. All of the above must be tested
4057: In the DEEP DRILLER, LCG is obtained from the sum of the longitudinal moments by __________.

    a. adding the free surface correction
    b. subtracting the free surface correction
    c. multiplying by displacement
    d. dividing by displacement
4058: When the owner or Master inspects his/her towing vessel before embarking on a voyage of more than 24 hours, he/she must check all terminal gear EXCEPT ___________ .

    a. the connection of the bridle and towing pendant
    b. chafing gear
    c. quick release towing hook and control system, to see that it operates properly
    d. the winch brake, if installed
4059: What must the owner or Master do if any of the towing vessel's required navigational safety equipment fails during a voyage?

    a. Repair it at the earliest practicable time
    b. Enter its failure in the log or other on board record
    c. Consider the state of the equipment in deciding whether it is safe for the vessel to proceed
    d. All of the above
4060: After an item of required safety equipment on a towing vessel fails, the owner or Master must consider all of these factors before continuing the voyage, EXCEPT the ___________ .

    a. weather conditions, including visibility
    b. estimated time of arrival promised to the customer
    c. safety of the vessel, considering the other traffic in the area
    d. dictates of good seamanship
4061: In the DEEP DRILLER, TCG is obtained from the sum of the transverse moments by __________.

    a. adding the free surface correction
    b. subtracting the free surface correction
    c. multiplying by displacement
    d. dividing by displacement
4062: The owner or Master of a towing vessel that is operating within a Vessel Traffic Service (VTS) area must report all of the following to VTS as soon as practicable EXCEPT ___________ .

    a. any malfunction of propulsion machinery, steering gear, radar, gyrocompass or depth-sounder, if installed
    b. shortage of personnel, lack of charts, maps or other required publications
    c. the type of license he/she holds and its serial number
    d. any characteristics of the vessel that affect its maneuverability
4063: In the DEEP DRILLER, the longitudinal free surface correction (FSCL) is obtained from the total of the longitudinal free surface moments (FSML) by __________.

    a. adding the LCG
    b. subtracting the LCG
    c. multiplying by displacement
    d. dividing by displacement
4064: If you are the Master of a towing vessel whose only working radar no longer functions, what must you do?

    a. Notify the Captain of the Port (COTP) if you cannot repair it within 96 hours.
    b. Notify the Officer in Charge of Marine Inspection (OCMI) if you cannot repair it within 48 hours.
    c. Moor the vessel until it is repaired.
    d. Anchor the vessel until it is repaired.
4065: In the DEEP DRILLER, the transverse free surface correction (FSCT) is obtained from the total of transverse free surface moments (FSMT) by __________.

    a. adding the TCG
    b. subtracting the TCG
    c. multiplying by displacement
    d. dividing by displacement
4066: The most important concern in treating a person with extensive burns is __________.

    a. reducing disfigurement
    b. preventing infection
    c. cooling with ice water
    d. reducing swelling
4067: The DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). Assume ballast added or discharged to remain at a constant draft is at a VCG of 10 feet. How much non-liquid load would have to be removed from an average height of 130 feet above the keel to meet the maximum allowable KG at a draft of 60 feet for winds greater than 70 knots?

    a. 373 long tons
    b. 457 long tons
    c. 484 long tons
    d. 524 long tons
4068: On board an OSV, the key to the most rapid and effective response to a man overboard situation is __________.

    a. switching to hydraulic steering
    b. a dedicated crew
    c. good equipment
    d. good communication
4069: In the illustration, the sea anchor is number __________. (D014SA )

    a. 1
    b. 12
    c. 14
    d. 18
4070: Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to be fitted with which of the following?

    a. Compartments for the storage of canned drinking water
    b. Ballast tanks to prevent the boat from capsizing
    c. An air starter on the diesel engine
    d. Auxiliary mechanical propulsion (Fleming gear)
4071: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What are the new LM (longitudinal moments) if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?

    a. 5,191 ft-tons
    b. 13,414 ft-tons
    c. 31,992 ft-tons
    d. 69,175 ft-tons
4073: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What are the new TM (transverse moments) if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?

    a. -3,436 ft-tons
    b. 3,446 ft-tons
    c. 3,594 ft-tons
    d. 22,682 ft-tons
4074: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-11.5", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0153

    a. 2.20 feet
    b. 2.00 feet
    c. 1.80 feet
    d. 1.65 feet
4075: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What are the new vertical moments if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?

    a. 12,662 ft-tons
    b. 794,346 ft-tons
    c. 795,025 ft-tons
    d. 795,704 ft-tons
4076: In the illustration shown, the equipment bags are indicated by item number __________. (D014SA )

    a. 12
    b. 15
    c. 17
    d. 19
4077: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new longitudinal free surface correction (FSCL) if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?

    a. 1.06 feet
    b. 1.09 feet
    c. 3.30 feet
    d. 3.38 feet
4078: When shifting to a course where the wind comes more from astern, easing the mainsheet will __________.

    a. bring the boom more fore and aft
    b. decrease the force needed to haul on the mainsheet
    c. bring the head of the sail down from the top of the mast
    d. allow the sail to catch more wind
4079: Your cargo vessel's Certification of Inspection expires 30 April 2002. One of your inflatable liferafts was last serviced in January 2002. The raft must be reinspected no later than __________.

    a. January 2003
    b. June 2003
    c. April 2004
    d. January 2007
4080: On a vessel of 12,500 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water on the tank top. The hold is 35 feet long and 50 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is __________.

    a. .14 ft
    b. .45 ft
    c. .55 ft
    d. .83 ft
4081: Visual inspections of survival craft on offshore drilling units, to ensure operational readiness, must be conducted at least once a __________.

    a. week
    b. month
    c. quarter
    d. year
4082: A towing vessel is NOT required to be fitted with radar if it is ____________ .

    a. used solely for assistance towing
    b. under 65 feet in length
    c. used exclusively on the Western Rivers
    d. pushing ahead
4083: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?

    a. 67.04 feet
    b. 68.02 feet
    c. 68.72 feet
    d. 69.21 feet
4084: A towing vessel is NOT required to be fitted with radar if it is ____________ .

    a. used occasionally to assist vessels in distress
    b. used solely for pollution response
    c. less than 49 feet in length
    d. towing alongside
4085: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?

    a. 65.95 feet
    b. 66.85 feet
    c. 67.66 feet
    d. 68.59 feet
4086: What signal flag is the "Pilot Flag" ("I have a pilot on board")?

    a. "P"
    b. "C"
    c. "H"
    d. "Z"
4086: What signal flag is the "Pilot Flag" ("I have a pilot on board")?

    a. "P"
    b. "C"
    c. "H"
    d. "Z"
4087: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (transit). What is the new metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged? (Use KMT = 375.38 feet)

    a. 375.38 feet
    b. 345.23 feet
    c. 319.66 feet
    d. 306.79 feet
4088: Which towing vessel(s) is/are exempt from carrying radar?

    a. A vessel used solely in a limited area, such as a barge fleeting area.
    b. A vessel exempted, in writing, by the Captain of the Port.
    c. A vessel used solely for pollution response or assistance towing.
    d. All of the above
4089: Which piece of navigational safety equipment is NOT required on towing vessels over 12 meters in length, provided that the vessel remains within the navigable waters of the U.S.?

    a. VHF-FM radio(s)
    b. LORAN-C or GPS receiver
    c. Charts or maps of the areas to be transited
    d. Searchlight
4090: Which instrument may a towing vessel, engaged in towing exclusively on the Western Rivers, use in place of a magnetic compass?

    a. Gyrocompass
    b. Illuminated Swing Meter
    c. LORAN-C Receiver
    d. GPS Receiver
4091: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects if the entire contents of salt water ballast 1anks 1P and 1S are discharged? (Use KML = 348.58)

    a. 261.11 feet
    b. 279.37 feet
    c. 283.37 feet
    d. 301.12 feet
4092: On which route is a towing vessel over 39.4 feet in length NOT required to carry an echo-sounding device?

    a. Great Lakes
    b. Inland Waters, other than the Western Rivers
    c. Western Rivers
    d. Coastwise Routes
4093: Towing vessels of more than 39.4 feet in length must carry charts or maps _____________ .

    a. of the area to be navigated
    b. with enough detail to make safe navigation possible
    c. of the current edition or currently corrected edition
    d. All of the above
4094: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 19'-10.5", AFT 22'-11.6". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0154

    a. FWD 20'-01.4", AFT 23'-00.6"
    b. FWD 19'-07.6", AFT 22'-10.4"
    c. FWD 19'-09.3", AFT 22'-08.7"
    d. FWD 19'-11.7", AFT 23'-02.5"
4095: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballast to Survival). What is the new longitudinal location of the center of buoyancy if all the bulk materials are discharged?

    a. 2.34 feet
    b. 2.48 feet
    c. 2.50 feet
    d. 2.53 feet
4096: Which statement(s) is/are TRUE concerning radio equipment on towing vessels of 26 feet or more in length?

    a. The vessel must have a ship-radio-station license issued by the FCC.
    b. Each radio operator must hold an FCC-issued restricted operator's license, or higher.
    c. Maintain a continuous listening watch on VHF channel 16 and the bridge-to-bridge channel.
    d. All of the above.
4097: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the new height of the longitudinal metacenter if all the bulk materials are discharged?

    a. 61.34 feet
    b. 62.13 feet
    c. 62.35 feet
    d. 64.00 feet
4098: Which publication(s) must a towing vessel of 12 meters or more in length carry when operating on US waters other than the Western Rivers?

    a. US Coast Pilot(s)
    b. Tide Tables and Tidal Current Tables
    c. Notice to Mariners
    d. All of the above
4101: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the new height of the transverse metacenter if all the bulk materials are discharged?

    a. 63.14 feet
    b. 64.05 feet
    c. 64.30 feet
    d. 66.09 feet
4102: The center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel is the __________.

    a. center of buoyancy
    b. center of flotation
    c. uncorrected height of the center of gravity of the vessel
    d. center of gravity of the vessel corrected for free surface effects
4103: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the shift in TCG if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?

    a. 0.01 foot starboard
    b. 0.18 foot starboard
    c. 0.27 foot starboard
    d. 0.39 foot starboard
4104: The inspection of small passenger vessels of 60 feet in length carrying more than twelve persons on an international voyage is required by the Coast Guard __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. once every 6 months
    b. once every year
    c. once every 2 years with a minimum of one reinspection during that period
    d. once every 3 years with a minimum of two reinspections during that period
4105: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the shift in LCG if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?

    a. 0.06 foot aft
    b. 0.14 foot aft
    c. 0.27 foot aft
    d. 0.40 foot aft
4106: In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by __________.

    a. conduction
    b. ventilation
    c. radiation
    d. convection
4107: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the VCG of the added liquid if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S?

    a. 1.35 feet
    b. 6.95 feet
    c. 8.30 feet
    d. 15.26 feet
4108: A Certificate of Inspection for vessels of less than 100 gross tons carrying more than twelve passengers on an international voyage will be issued for a period of __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. four years
    b. three years
    c. two years
    d. one year
4109: As Master of an inspected small passenger vessel, you have a question regarding a proposed modification to a watertight bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of Federal Regulations would you find the answer?

    a. Subchapter B
    b. Subchapter D
    c. Subchapter F
    d. Subchapter T
4110: As Master of an inspected small passenger vessel, you have a question regarding a proposed modification to a watertight bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of Federal Regulations would you find the answer?

    a. Subchapter W
    b. Subchapter T
    c. Subchapter I
    d. Subchapter E
4111: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?

    a. 6.46 feet
    b. 7.09 feet
    c. 7.72 feet
    d. 8.39 feet
4112: A fire is discovered in the forepeak of a vessel at sea. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should __________.

    a. remain on course and hold speed
    b. remain on course but slack the speed
    c. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed
    d. change course and put the stern to the wind
4113: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?

    a. 10.42 feet
    b. 10.87 feet
    c. 11.50 feet
    d. 12.13 feet
4114: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0155

    a. 229.8 ft
    b. 236.7 ft
    c. 244.6 ft
    d. 251.5 ft
4115: The inspection of a 50 ft. vessel of 65 gross tons carrying more than twelve passengers on an international voyage is required by the Coast Guard once in every __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. four years with a minimum of three reinspections during the four year period
    b. three years with a minimum of two reinspections during the three year period
    c. two years
    d. year
4116: As Master of an inspected small passenger vessel, you have a question regarding a proposed modification to a watertight bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of Federal Regulations will you find the answer?

    a. Subchapter D
    b. Subchapter G
    c. Subchapter T
    d. Subchapter U
4117: As Master of an inspected small passenger vessel, you have a question regarding a proposed modification to a watertight bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of Federal Regulations would you find the answer?

    a. Subchapter T
    b. Subchapter Q
    c. Subchapter F
    d. Subchapter C
4119: A large fire, involving class "A" material, has developed in the ship's galley. In combating this fire, you should __________.

    a. keep the galley door closed until all the class "A" material has been consumed by the fire
    b. have a hose team cool the galley door, then open the door and extinguish the fire using a type B-II extinguisher
    c. cool adjoining horizontal and vertical surfaces before opening the galley door
    d. advance the hose team into the galley without any preparatory action
4120: Which of the following would be of immediate concern after discovering a large fire in the ship's galley?

    a. An adjacent storeroom, containing spare parts
    b. A storeroom directly above, containing combustible fluids
    c. An adjacent storeroom, containing mattresses and linen
    d. An adjacent storeroom, marked "Stewards Stores"
4121: The DEEP DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 60.0 feet. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 17,845 long tons, total longitudinal moments 51,466 foot-tons, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-tons. What is the weight of the missing load?

    a. 220.7 long tons
    b. 235.3 long tons
    c. 253.7 long tons
    d. 272.7 long tons
4122: Under normal firefighting conditions, approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach when the hose pressure is 100 PSI?

    a. 50 feet
    b. 100 feet
    c. 150 feet
    d. 200 feet
4123: The DEEP DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 60.0 feet. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 17,845 long tons, total longitudinal moments 51,466 foot-tons, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-tons. What is the longitudinal location of the missing load?

    a. 40.45 feet
    b. 0.62 feet
    c. -0.61 feet
    d. -40.57 feet
4124: Approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach if the fire hose pressure is reduced to 60 PSI?

    a. 50 feet
    b. 100 feet
    c. 150 feet
    d. 200 feet
4125: The DEEP DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 60.0 feet. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 17,845 long tons, total longitudinal moment 51,466 foot-kips, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-kips. What is the transverse location of the missing load?

    a. 36.67 feet
    b. 0.56 foot
    c. -0.55 foot
    d. -36.67 feet
4126: Using sheet 25 in the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 5 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 33 lbs.

    a. 1010 tons each
    b. 1025 tons each
    c. 1045 tons each
    d. 1070 tons each
4127: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill), all of the casing is discharged. What is the change in LCG?

    a. 0.45 foot
    b. -0.45 foot
    c. -1.78 feet
    d. -2.68 feet
4129: Under normal operating conditions, the rudder is hydraulically locked unless __________.

    a. the manual trick wheel is engaged for steering
    b. the variable stroke pump is off stroke
    c. a rudder order is given by the control system
    d. an electric power system failure occurs at the steering gear
4131: While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), a severe storm threatens. What is the improvement in KGL if all the mud is dumped?

    a. 4.59 feet
    b. 3.27 feet
    c. 2.37 feet
    d. 1.60 feet
4132: When the helm is turned on the navigation bridge, which of the listed actions will be the FIRST response in the steering room on a ship equipped with an electro-hydraulic steering gear?

    a. The pumps go to full stroke.
    b. The six-way valve aligns itself with the running pump.
    c. Both port and starboard cables are energized.
    d. The synchronous receiver turns, duplicating the helm motion.
4133: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). According to the deck load graph, how much additional deck load could be added to the unit?

    a. 526.87 long tons
    b. 276.87 long tons
    c. 241.50 long tons
    d. 189.51 long tons
4134: Dual electro-hydraulic steering units usually operate __________.

    a. with both pumps on line at the same time
    b. with one pump on standby
    c. with the follow-up gear disconnected
    d. only when the rudder is moved amidships
4135: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). According to the deck load graph, how much additional deck load could be added on the unit?

    a. 561.87 long tons
    b. 461.87 long tons
    c. 281.34 long tons
    d. 192.59 long tons
4136: If one hydraulic pump of an electro-hydraulic steering unit fails, the vessel's steering can be initially and best maintained by using the __________.

    a. trick wheel
    b. accumulator
    c. standby pump
    d. telemotor
4137: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). According to the deck load graph, how much additional deck load could be added on the unit?

    a. 435.59 long tons
    b. 321.59 long tons
    c. 281.59 long tons
    d. 192.59 long tons
4138: Multiple fire pumps may be used for other purposes provided that one pump is __________.

    a. on line to the fire main
    b. kept available for use on the fire main at all times
    c. capable of being connected to the fire main
    d. rated at or above 125 psi
4139: Rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation bridge initiates oil pressure being applied to the steering gear rams by __________.

    a. regulating the oil flow with the six-way valve
    b. moving the automatic differential valve
    c. moving the follow up indicator which regulates the six-way valve
    d. varying the angle of a tilting box or eccentricity of a floating ring
4140: In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder movement is maintained in close synchronization with the steering wheel position by means of the __________.

    a. trick wheel
    b. follow-up control
    c. six-way valve
    d. Rapson slide
4141: How much additional solid weight could be loaded at a VCG of 189.7 feet on the DEEP DRILLER while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling)? Assume ballast added or discharged to maintain draft is done so at 15 feet above the baseline.

    a. 279.2 long tons
    b. 314.2 long tons
    c. 404.2 long tons
    d. 461.9 long tons
4142: You are underway at sea when a fire is reported in the forward part of the vessel. The wind is from dead ahead at 20 knots. You should __________.

    a. change course and put the stern to the wind
    b. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed
    c. remain on course and hold speed
    d. remain on course but decrease speed
4143: While loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What would be the new draft?

    a. 56.69 feet
    b. 58.14 feet
    c. 59.14 feet
    d. 63.31 feet
4144: Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?

    a. A 1½ inch hose should be deployed with a minimum of a nozzleman and hoseman.
    b. The nozzleman should always hold the nozzle with one hand on top, to prevent kickback.
    c. Back-up hosemen should be positioned wherever the hose makes a significant turn.
    d. The fire hose should be partially charged before deploying it from the fire station.
4145: Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?

    a. A 1½ inch hose should be deployed with a minimum of a nozzleman and hoseman.
    b. Back-up hosemen should be placed wherever the hose makes a significant turn.
    c. Use of a spanner wrench when attaching nozzles or additional lengths of hose is always critical.
    d. The nozzleman should always hold the nozzle with one hand on top, to prevent kickback.
4146: The follow-up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear __________.

    a. relieves excessive fluid pressure
    b. takes the pump off stroke when the desired rudder angle is attained
    c. synchronizes wheel position with the rudder position
    d. returns the rudder to mid-position when the wheel is released
4147: According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following statements is correct regarding the steering gear on a vessel contracted for after June 9, 1995?

    a. Hydraulic structural rudder stops are mandatory.
    b. On hydraulic type steering gears, a suitable arrangement of check valves in the main piping system may be considered as a means of steadying the rudder.
    c. A separate auxiliary means of steering is not required where the main gear is of the dual power hydraulic type, having two independent pumps and connections.
    d. All of the above.
4148: The action necessary to transfer the steering control from the wheelhouse to local control in order to use the steering gear room trick wheel, is to __________.

    a. align the trick wheel to the rudder angle position
    b. set the six-way control valve in the trick wheel position
    c. open the power transfer switch before engaging the trick wheel
    d. always place the rudder in the midship position to engage the trick wheel
4149: Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the __________.

    a. rudder angle indicator
    b. follow-up gear
    c. telemotor position
    d. Rapson slide indicator
4150: In an emergency, the electro-hydraulic steering units can be directly controlled by the __________.

    a. trick wheel
    b. rapson slide
    c. follow-up gear
    d. receiver unit
4151: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #1 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new draft?

    a. 60 feet 9.6 inches
    b. 59 feet 9.3 inches
    c. 59 feet 2.7 inches
    d. 56 feet 10.9 inches
4152: Coast Guard Regulations require that OSV's under 100 GT must have a steering system that is capable of moving the rudder __________.

    a. by a required auxiliary steering system under emergency conditions when duplicated main steering power systems are provided
    b. at one-half the maximum astern speed without damage
    c. from 35° on one side to 30° on the other side, in no more than 28 seconds, while making maximum headway
    d. from 15° on one side to 15° on the other side, in 30 seconds at 7 knots, or one-half the maximum speed
4153: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new draft?

    a. 60 feet 9.6 inches
    b. 59 feet 2.7 inches
    c. 57 feet 11.5 inches
    d. 56 feet 10.9 inches
4154: Coast Guard Regulations require that prior to departure on a three-day voyage, the steering gear, whistle, and communications system between the bridge and engine room must be tested prior to departure no earlier than __________.

    a. 1 hour
    b. 4 hours
    c. 8 hours
    d. 12 hours
4155: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new uncorrected height of the center of gravity?

    a. 50.72 feet
    b. 51.25 feet
    c. 51.87 feet
    d. 53.22 feet
4157: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?

    a. 50.29 feet
    b. 53.55 feet
    c. 53.92 feet
    d. 54.24 feet
4158: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 19'-02", AFT 20'-10". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 170 long tons are discharged from No. 8 hatch.

    a. FWD 19'-00.4", AFT 20'-08.6"
    b. FWD 18'-10.8", AFT 20'-10.4"
    c. FWD 19'-03.4", AFT 20'-05.6"
    d. FWD 19'-05.4", AFT 20'-03.4"
4159: A yellow signal, floating in the air from a parachute, about 300 feet above the water, indicates that a submarine __________.

    a. will be coming to periscope depth
    b. will be coming to the surface
    c. is on the bottom in distress
    d. is in distress and will try to surface
4160: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-05"; and the KG is 23.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30° inclination.

    a. 0.9 feet
    b. 2.1 feet
    c. 4.0 feet
    d. 5.9 feet
4161: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects?

    a. 51.50 feet
    b. 52.54 feet
    c. 52.88 feet
    d. 53.54 feet
4164: The color of the signal flares sent up by a submarine about to surface from periscope depth is __________.

    a. white
    b. yellow
    c. red
    d. green
4165: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new height of the transverse metacenter?

    a. 61.19 feet
    b. 62.80 feet
    c. 62.99 feet
    d. 62.94 feet
4167: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects?

    a. 11.26 feet
    b. 10.07 feet
    c. 9.67 feet
    d. 8.30 feet
4168: The color of the signal flares sent up by a submarine surfacing from periscope depth is __________.

    a. green
    b. white
    c. yellow
    d. red
4169: The color of the signal flares sent up by a submarine about to surface from periscope depth is __________.

    a. green
    b. yellow
    c. white
    d. red
4170: The color of the signal flares sent up by a submarine surfacing from periscope depth is __________.

    a. yellow
    b. red
    c. green
    d. white
4171: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?

    a. 10.07 feet
    b. 8.80 feet
    c. 7.59 feet
    d. 5.45 feet
4173: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges all the cement in the P-Tanks. See Table 7. What is the change in KG?

    a. 0.24 foot downward
    b. 0.49 foot downward
    c. 0.88 foot downward
    d. 1.02 feet downward
4174: Each EPIRB shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output indicator every __________.

    a. week
    b. two weeks
    c. month
    d. quarter
4175: How much non-liquid deck load can the DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), accept if the weight is placed at a VCG of 130 feet? Ballast added or discharged to maintain draft at 60 feet is done so at 10 feet.

    a. 461.9 long tons
    b. 457.5 long tons
    c. 388.8 long tons
    d. 323.1 long tons
4177: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the weight of the mud in pit #4 if the sounding level changed to 6 feet and the mud weight decreased from 16 to 14 pounds/gallon?

    a. 70.00 long tons
    b. 84.17 long tons
    c. 93.34 long tons
    d. 106.67 long tons
4178: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0156

    a. 229.8 ft
    b. 234.3 ft
    c. 244.6 ft
    d. 253.5 ft
4181: The DEEP DRILLER is operating at a draft of 60 feet. There is 11.5 feet of drill water in each of the drill water tanks (5P and 5S). What would be the improvement in KGL if 5S is filled from 5P?

    a. 0.56 foot
    b. 0.49 foot
    c. 0.18 foot
    d. 0.08 foot
4183: What is the shift in KG if all the liquid mud is dumped when the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load #3 (Preparing to Drill)?

    a. 1.26 feet downward
    b. 1.51 feet downward
    c. 2.77 feet downward
    d. 1.47 feet downward
4187: The DEEP DRILLER is drilling at 60 feet draft at a corrected KG of 54.0 feet. Ballast added or discharged to remain at a constant draft is at a VCG of 10 feet. How much non-liquid load would have to be removed from an average height of 130 feet above the keel to meet the maximum allowable KG at a draft of 60 feet for winds greater than 70 knots?

    a. 1283 long tons
    b. 817 long tons
    c. 679 long tons
    d. 302 long tons
4188: You are the operator of a 295 GRT uninspected towing vessel. Which type of fire extinguishing system is required on your vessel, if its construction was contracted for before August 27, 2003? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. Type B-V semi-portable OR a fixed fire-extinguishing system
    b. Type B-IV semi-portable OR a fixed fire-extinguishing system
    c. Type B-III semi-portable AND a fixed fire-extinguishing system
    d. Fixed CO2, AND another fixed fire-extinguishing system
4189: You are loading in the winter in Albany, N.Y., for a voyage to a port governed by the tropical load line mark. Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Hydrometer reading in Albany is 1.000)

    a. You may not exceed the winter load line mark when you finish loading except for the burnout to sea.
    b. The freshwater allowance and burnout to sea may be subtracted from the required freeboard in Albany.
    c. You may calculate the burnout necessary to reach the tropical zone and load extra cargo to compensate.
    d. You may load to the winter mark less the fresh water allowance if you will be at the tropical mark upon arrival in the tropical zone.
4190: You are loading at port A, governed by the summer load line mark, for a voyage to port B, governed by the winter mark. The fresh water allowance is 10", and the hydrometer reads 1.020. Which statement is TRUE?

    a. You may not load beyond the winter mark except for 2 inches brackish water allowance.
    b. You may not load beyond the summer mark and must be at the winter mark upon arrival at port B.
    c. You may not load beyond the summer mark plus 8 inches brackish water allowance.
    d. You may load to the summer mark plus 2 inches if you will be at the winter mark when entering the winter zone.
4191: The DEEP DRILLER is planning to operate while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 ( Preparing to Drill). What is the margin between KGT and maximum allowable KG?

    a. 0.66 foot
    b. 2.58 feet
    c. 5.24 feet
    d. 7.87 feet
4192: Alterations or repairs on inspected small passenger vessels must be done __________.

    a. under the direction of the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection
    b. in accordance with the regulations of Subchapter "S" (Subdivision and Stability)
    c. in accordance with regulations in effect when the vessel was contracted for, as long as the repairs are minor
    d. All of the above
4193: While going on location in 250 feet water depth when the pitch angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2 degrees, the single amplitude pitch period should be longer than __________.

    a. 0.2 second
    b. 0.4 second
    c. 4.9 seconds
    d. 13.9 seconds
4194: You are loading in a port governed by the tropical load line mark for a voyage to a port governed by the winter mark. The fresh water allowance is 5 inches, and the hydrometer reads 1.005. Which statement is TRUE?

    a. You may load to the tropical mark plus 1 inch brackish water allowance.
    b. You must load so that each zone mark will not be submerged upon entering the zone.
    c. Your draft must not exceed the winter mark plus the fresh water allowance upon arrival off the discharge port.
    d. You may only load to the winter mark plus a brackish water allowance of 4 inches.
4195: The motions of the COASTAL DRILLER during a normal transit when wind speeds are less than 70 knots are limited by __________.

    a. stability
    b. deck edge immersion
    c. wave heights
    d. leg strength
4196: You are bound from port A governed by the summer load line mark to port B also governed by the summer mark. The great circle track will take you into a zone governed by the winter mark. Which statement is TRUE?

    a. You cannot load beyond the summer mark at port A and must be at the winter mark upon arrival at port B.
    b. You can only load to the winter mark plus any fresh water allowance and burnout to sea at port A.
    c. You must be at the winter mark when you enter the winter zone and cannot exceed the summer mark upon departing port A.
    d. You can load so that upon arrival at the pier at port B your freeboard is equal to the summer mark less any fresh water allowance.
4197: While in 150 feet water depth when the pitch angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2 degrees, the platform roll period for going on location should be longer than __________.

    a. 0.5 second
    b. 5.0 seconds
    c. 10.0 seconds
    d. 13.5 seconds
4198: A tanker loads at a terminal within the tropical zone. She will enter the summer zone six days after departing the loading port. She will burn off 45 tons/day and daily water consumption is 8 tons. How many tons may she load over that allowed by her summer load line?

    a. 270
    b. 278
    c. 291
    d. 318
4199: A vessel's tropical load line is 6 in. above her summer load line. Her TPI is 127 tons. She will arrive in the summer zone 8 days after departure. She will burn off about 47 tons/day fuel and water consumption is 12 tons/day. How many tons may she load above her summer load line if she loads in the tropical zone?

    a. 376
    b. 472
    c. 762
    d. 1016
4200: A vessel has a maximum allowable draft of 28 feet in salt water and a fresh water allowance of 8 inches. At the loading berth, the water density is 1.011. To what draft can she load in order to be at her marks when she reaches the sea? (The salt water density is 1.025.)

    a. 27' 07.5"
    b. 27' 08.5"
    c. 28' 03.5"
    d. 28' 04.5"
4201: While in 150 feet water depth when the pitch angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 1 degree, the platform pitch period for going on location should be longer than __________.

    a. 0.2 second
    b. 3.2 seconds
    c. 7.0 seconds
    d. 9.2 seconds
4202: Your vessel is floating in water of density 1010. The fresh water allowance is 8 inches. How far below her marks may she be loaded so as to float at her mark in saltwater of density 1025?

    a. 3.2 inches
    b. 4.8 inches
    c. 6.4 inches
    d. 8.0 inches
4203: While going on location in 200 feet water depth when the roll angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2.5 degrees, the roll period should be longer than __________.

    a. 0.8 second
    b. 6.2 seconds
    c. 13.0 seconds
    d. 17.0 seconds
4204: You are loading in a port subject to the summer load line mark and bound for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the tropical zone after steaming four days. You will consume 33 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.006, and the average TPI is 66. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

    a. 78 inches
    b. 82 inches
    c. 86 inches
    d. 88 inches
4205: While in 150 feet water depth when the single amplitude roll angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2 degrees, the safe platform roll period for going on location should be longer than __________.

    a. 0.5 second
    b. 5.0 seconds
    c. 10.0 seconds
    d. 13.5 seconds
4206: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the summer load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming two days. You will consume 28 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.020, and the average TPI is 55. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

    a. 62 inches
    b. 66 inches
    c. 70 inches
    d. 74 inches
4207: While in 150 feet water depth when the single amplitude roll angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 1 degree, the safe platform roll period for going on location should be longer than __________.

    a. 0.2 second
    b. 3.2 seconds
    c. 7.0 seconds
    d. 9.2 seconds
4208: You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound for a port subject to the summer load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming six days. You will consume 32 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.005, and the average TPI is 65. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

    a. 93 inches
    b. 90 inches
    c. 81 inches
    d. 70 inches
4209: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the summer load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days. You will consume 41 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.000 and the average TPI is 55. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

    a. 55 inches
    b. 49 inches
    c. 44 inches
    d. 41 inches
4210: You are loading in a port subject to the summer load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the winter zone after steaming four days. You will consume 35 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.0083, and the average TPI is 65. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

    a. 74 inches
    b. 78 inches
    c. 80 inches
    d. 86 inches
4211: The COASTAL DRILLER, while in normal transit, experiences a single amplitude roll of 6 degrees. What is the minimum roll period which does not exceed design limits of the legs?

    a. 10.5 seconds
    b. 8.0 seconds
    c. 4.5 seconds
    d. 1.0 second
4212: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the summer load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming ten days. You will consume 33 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.021, and the average TPI is 51. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

    a. 76 inches
    b. 74 inches
    c. 73 inches
    d. 72 inches
4213: While in ocean transit, the COASTAL DRILLER has a roll period of four seconds. What would be the largest angle each side of vertical that does not exceed the design limit of the legs?

    a. 6.3 degrees
    b. 5.0 degrees
    c. 3.5 degrees
    d. 2.0 degrees
4214: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming eight days, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of ten days. You will consume 31 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.016, and the average TPI is 41. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

    a. 72 inches
    b. 70 inches
    c. 68 inches
    d. 64 inches
4215: A mat-type jack-up drilling unit is the best selection for __________.

    a. soft mud bottoms
    b. uneven bottoms
    c. deep water
    d. hard bottoms
4216: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of nine days. You will consume 29 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.008, and the average TPI is 53. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

    a. 72.5 inches
    b. 75.0 inches
    c. 77.0 inches
    d. 80.0 inches
4217: A mat-supported jack-up is best suited for drilling in locations with bottom conditions which are __________.

    a. soft and level
    b. firm and uneven
    c. sloping
    d. coral
4218: You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the tropical zone after a total of twelve days. You will consume 31 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.000, and the average TPI is 46. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

    a. 78 inches
    b. 74 inches
    c. 70 inches
    d. 68 inches
4219: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming one day, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of eleven days. You will consume 33 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.004, and the average TPI is 46. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

    a. 85 inches
    b. 82 inches
    c. 80 inches
    d. 78 inches
4220: You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the tropical zone after a total of twelve days. You will consume 39 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.025, and the average TPI is 49. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

    a. 90 inches
    b. 87 inches
    c. 80 inches
    d. 77 inches
4221: Considering the changes to lightweight shown in section 5 of the COASTAL DRILLER Manual, the maximum allowable combination of hook, rotary, and setback load for the COASTAL DRILLER with the rotary located 34 feet aft of the transom and two feet to port of the centerline is __________.

    a. 1000 kips
    b. 875 kips
    c. 854 kips
    d. 755 kips
4222: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0157

    a. 273.5 ft
    b. 288.8 ft
    c. 292.3 ft
    d. 305.3 ft
4223: On the COASTAL DRILLER, the maximum aft extension of the cantilever places the rotary __________.

    a. 68.33 feet aft of the transom
    b. 40.00 feet aft of the transom
    c. 38.33 feet aft of the transom
    d. 28.33 feet aft of the transom
4224: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming eleven days, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of fourteen days. You will consume 36 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.025, and the average TPI is 51. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

    a. 75.0 inches
    b. 76.0 inches
    c. 79.5 inches
    d. 81.0 inches
4225: The maximum transverse extension of the cantilever for the COASTAL DRILLER places the rotary __________.

    a. within 10 feet of the centerline
    b. at the vessel TCG
    c. at the leg centroid
    d. 40 feet aft of the transom
4226: You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the tropical zone after a total of seven days. You will consume 38 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.004, and the average TPI is 72. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

    a. 85 inches
    b. 90 inches
    c. 92 inches
    d. 94 inches
4227: What is the maximum weight that can be placed in the setback area on the COASTAL DRILLER?

    a. 1000 kips
    b. 750 kips
    c. 450 kips
    d. 375 kips
4228: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming one day, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of eight days. You will consume 36 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.002, and the TPI is 47. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

    a. 71.0 inches
    b. 72.7 inches
    c. 79.5 inches
    d. 81.0 inches
4229: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming one and one-half days, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of six days. You will consume 29 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.006, and the average TPI is 43. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

    a. 79.5 inches
    b. 76.5 inches
    c. 75.0 inches
    d. 72.5 inches
4230: You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming six days. You will enter the winter zone after an additional three days. You will consume 28 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.020, and the average TPI is 46. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? (Get Table Data)

    a. 61.4 inches
    b. 64.5 inches
    c. 70.6 inches
    d. 77.5 inches
4231: A tanker loads at a terminal within the tropical zone. She will enter the summer zone five days after departing the loading port. She will burn off about 45 tons/day and daily water consumption is 8 tons. How many tons may she load over that allowed by her summer load line?

    a. 225
    b. 235
    c. 245
    d. 265
4232: The number of approved adult life jackets that shall be carried is equal to __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. 120% of the number of persons listed in the vessel's Certificate of Inspection
    b. 90% of the number of persons listed in the vessel's Certificate of Inspection
    c. 90% of the number of persons on board at the time
    d. the number of persons on board at the time
4233: Considering the changes to lightweight shown in Section 5 of the COASTAL DRILLER Manual, with the rotary 36 feet aft of the transom and 4 feet to port of the centerline, and with 300 kips in the setback, the maximum hook load is limited to __________.

    a. 870 kips
    b. 635 kips
    c. 335 kips
    d. 314 kips
4234: Which type of fixed fire protection system is approved for use on board uninspected vessels? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. Dry chemical
    b. Water mist
    c. Chemical foam
    d. Steam smothering
4235: Until a change to lightweight has been approved, the weights and moments shown in the Changes to Lightweight Record of the COASTAL DRILLER are treated as __________.

    a. variable loads
    b. stationary loads
    c. fixed loads
    d. basic loads
4237: The Cantilever Beam Load Chart for the COASTAL DRILLER shows the limits in the hook setback conductor tension, and __________.

    a. wind loads
    b. wave loads
    c. current loads
    d. rotary loads
4238: You are the operator of a 296 GRT uninspected towing vessel. Its construction was contracted for after August 27, 2003. In addition to the hand portable fire extinguishers, how much other fire extinguishing equipment are you required to have on board? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. Either an approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system or a fixed fire-extinguishing system
    b. Both an approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system and a fixed fire-extinguishing system
    c. An approved water mist fire protection system and a fixed CO2 fire-extinguishing system
    d. Both an approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system and an approved water mist fire protection system
4239: Either one approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system or a fixed fire-extinguishing system is required to protect the engine room on towing vessels whose construction was contracted for before __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. April 29, 2005
    b. April 29, 2004
    c. August 27, 2003
    d. February 1, 2002
4240: Both an approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system and a fixed fire-extinguishing system are required to protect the engine room on towing vessels whose construction was contracted for on or after __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. February 1, 2002
    b. August 27, 2003
    c. April 29, 2004
    d. April 29, 2005
4241: The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated in 250 feet of water, experiencing 2 knots current and 70 knot winds. With a maximum leg reaction of 5,760 kips, the maximum wave height for drilling is __________.

    a. 15 feet
    b. 20 feet
    c. 25 feet
    d. 30 feet
4242: A certificated lifeboatman assigned to command the lifeboat should __________.

    a. be the first individual to board the craft
    b. drain the hydraulic pressure before lowering the craft
    c. have a list of the persons assigned to the lifeboat
    d. All of the above
4243: The Cantilever Beam Load Chart for the COASTAL DRILLER shows the load limits in the hook, setback, conductor tension, and __________.

    a. wind loads
    b. wave loads
    c. pipe rack loads
    d. rotary loads
4244: You are the operator of a 290 GRT uninspected towing vessel whose construction was contracted for after August 27, 2003. Which type of semi-portable fire-extinguishing system is required on your vessel? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. B-V
    b. B-IV
    c. B-III
    d. None of the above
4245: The maximum load line draft for the COASTAL DRILLER is __________.

    a. 12 feet 8 inches
    b. 11 feet 7.2 inches
    c. 10 feet 10.5 inches
    d. 10 feet 8.8 inches
4246: Radiation spreads a fire by __________.

    a. transferring heat across an unobstructed space
    b. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
    c. burning liquids flowing into another space
    d. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal
4247: The maximum combined drilling load for the COASTAL DRILLER consisting of the combined hook, rotary, setback, and conductor tension, shall not exceed __________.

    a. 450 kips
    b. 500 kips
    c. 750 kips
    d. 1000 kips
4249: How should you warm up a diesel engine that has not been run for some time?

    a. Run it at minimum speed until warmed to operating temperature.
    b. Idle for a brief period of time and then warm up at half speed.
    c. Bring it up to top speed immediately and run until warmed up.
    d. Inject ether into the air intake to shorten warm up time.
4250: A bulk freighter 580 ft. in length, 60 ft. beam, with a waterplane coefficient of .84 is floating in salt water at a draft of 21 ft. How many long tons would it take to increase the mean draft 1"?

    a. 65.1
    b. 69.6
    c. 74.3
    d. 76.8
4251: What are the maximum acceptable levels of ice and snow accumulations on the COASTAL DRILLER?

    a. 3 inches
    b. 2 inches
    c. 1 1/4 inches
    d. none
4252: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

    a. The suit's oil resistance is such that it will be serviceable and be usable after exposure to gasoline or mineral spirits without needing to be specially treated.
    b. The suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypothermia indefinitely.
    c. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while swimming through burning oil.
    d. The suit must, without assistance, turn an unconscious person's mouth clear of the water within 5 seconds.
4253: What is the maximum weight permitted on the cantilever pipe racks for the COASTAL DRILLER?

    a. 450 kips
    b. 500 kips
    c. 750 kips
    d. 1000 kips
4254: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

    a. The suit's oil resistance is such that it will be serviceable and be usable after exposure to gasoline or mineral spirits without needing to be specially treated.
    b. The suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypothermia indefinitely.
    c. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while swimming through burning oil.
    d. The suit must, without assistance, turn an unconscious person's mouth clear of the water within 5 seconds.
4255: What is the maximum permitted hook load for the COASTAL DRILLER when 450 kips are in the setback and no other loads are on the cantilever?

    a. 450 kips
    b. 529 kips
    c. 550 kips
    d. 750 kips
4256: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 28'-00", AFT 30'-04". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 110.8 tons of seawater.

    a. FWD 28'-08.2", AFT 29'-11.6"
    b. FWD 28'-09.0", AFT 29' 11.0"
    c. FWD 28'-09.8", AFT 29' 10.4"
    d. FWD 28'-10.6", AFT 29' 09.8"
4257: Considering the lightweight changes to the COASTAL DRILLER, what is the maximum permitted hook load permitted when 450 kips are in the setback and 200 kips are in the cantilever pipe rack?

    a. 350 kips
    b. 529 kips
    c. 550 kips
    d. 750 kips
4258: Dacron sails, when not in use, may be damaged if __________.

    a. left in the sunlight
    b. stowed wet
    c. washed with soap
    d. folded frequently
4259: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

    a. The primary color of the suit's exterior may be red, orange or yellow.
    b. The suit must, without assistance, turn an unconscious person's mouth clear of the water within 5 seconds.
    c. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to a wearer swimming in burning oil.
    d. The suit may be stored in a machinery space where the ambient temperature is 160°F.
4260: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

    a. The suit must, without assistance, turn an unconscious person's mouth clear of the water within 5 seconds.
    b. The immersion suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypothermia for weeks.
    c. The suit will still be serviceable after a brief (2-6 minutes) exposure to flame and burning.
    d. The collar must be inflated before abandoning ship.
4261: The rotary of the COASTAL DRILLER is located 34 feet aft of the transom and 2 feet to port of the centerline. With the changes to lightweight shown in the Operating Manual, the maximum allowable hook load is __________.

    a. 1000 kips
    b. 875 kips
    c. 854 kips
    d. 776 kips
4262: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

    a. Prior to abandonment, the suit allows body movement such as walking, climbing a ladder and picking up small objects.
    b. The immersion suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypothermia for weeks.
    c. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while swimming through burning oil.
    d. The wearer of the suit is severely restricted and requires twice the time to climb a ladder than without the suit
4263: The rotary of the COASTAL DRILLER is located 38 feet aft of transom and 6 feet to starboard of the centerline. With the changes to lightweight shown in the Operating Manual, the maximum allowable hook load is __________.

    a. 1000 kips
    b. 445 kips
    c. 424 kips
    d. 346 kips
4264: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

    a. Prior to abandonment, the suit allows body movement such as walking, climbing a ladder and picking up small objects.
    b. The immersion suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypoglycemia for weeks.
    c. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while swimming through burning oil.
    d. The wearer of the suit is severely restricted and requires 1.5 times more time to climb a ladder than without the suit.
4265: The rotary of the COASTAL DRILLER is located 36 feet aft of the transom and 6 feet to starboard of the centerline. The hook load is 300 kips. Considering the changes to lightweight shown in the Operating Manual, the maximum amount of setback is __________.

    a. 545 kips
    b. 450 kips
    c. 245 kips
    d. 224 kips
4266: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

    a. The suit must, without assistance, turn an unconscious person's mouth clear of the water within 5 seconds.
    b. The immersion suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypothermia for weeks.
    c. The suit will still be serviceable after a brief (2-6 minutes) exposure to flame and burning.
    d. The collar must be inflated before abandoning ship.
4267: For the COASTAL DRILLER, what is the maximum rotary load that can be used when the rotary has been extended 40 feet aft of the transom?

    a. 750 kips
    b. 630 kips
    c. 609 kips
    d. 531 kips
4268: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

    a. Prior to abandonment, the suit allows body movement such as walking, climbing a ladder and picking up small objects.
    b. The immersion suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypothermia for weeks.
    c. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while swimming through burning oil.
    d. The wearer of the suit is severely restricted and requires twice the time to climb a ladder than without the suit.
4269: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

    a. Prior to abandonment, the suit allows body movement such as walking, climbing a ladder and picking up small objects.
    b. The immersion suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypoglycemia for weeks.
    c. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while swimming through burning oil.
    d. The wearer of the suit is severely restricted and requires 1.5 times more time to climb a ladder than without the suit.
4270: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?

    a. The primary color of the suit's exterior may be red, orange or yellow.
    b. The suit must, without assistance, turn an unconscious person's mouth clear of the water within 5 seconds.
    c. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to a wearer swimming in burning oil.
    d. The suit may be stored in a machinery space where the ambient temperature is 160°F.
4273: The overturning forces acting on a floating jack-up are generally dominated by __________.

    a. waves
    b. current
    c. wind
    d. tide
4274: Your vessel is greater than 100 GRT and carries more than 12 passengers. In addition to the licensed deck officer in the pilothouse, there should be on watch an additional crew member __________.

    a. always in the pilothouse
    b. on lookout on the bow
    c. in or near the pilothouse
    d. only when visibilty is restricted
4275: The independent-leg drilling unit is the best jack-up rig selection for drilling at locations with __________.

    a. soft even bottoms
    b. firm uneven bottoms
    c. deep water
    d. shallow water
4276: Your vessel is greater than 100 GRT and carries more than 12 passengers. In addition to the licensed deck officer in the pilothouse, there should be on watch an additional crew member __________.

    a. in or near the pilothouse
    b. on the bridge wing
    c. always in the pilothouse
    d. only when another vessel is in sight
4277: Drilling loads on the COASTAL DRILLER are the combined loads arising from conductor tension, rotary, hook, and __________.

    a. fixed loads
    b. setback loads
    c. basic loads
    d. variable loads
4278: Your vessel is greater than 100 GRT and carries more than 12 passengers. In addition to the licensed deck officer in the pilothouse, there should be on watch an additional crew member __________.

    a. on standby in the messroom
    b. in or near the pilothouse
    c. always in the pilothouse
    d. reporting to the bridge every half hour
4279: Your vessel is greater than 100 GRT and carries more than 12 passengers. In addition to the licensed deck officer in the pilothouse, there should be on watch an additional crew member __________.

    a. on lookout on the fore deck
    b. on the bridge wing
    c. always in the pilothouse
    d. in or near the pilothouse
4280: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-02", AFT 6'-06". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 5 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 15 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can legally be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

    a. none
    b. 5 tons
    c. 10 tons
    d. 20 tons
4281: The maximum allowable KG for the COASTAL DRILLER in normal transit at a draft of 10.5 feet is __________.

    a. 40 feet
    b. 45 feet
    c. 55 feet
    d. 65 feet
4282: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-05". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 5 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 15 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can legally be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

    a. 10 tons
    b. 20 tons
    c. 35 tons
    d. None
4283: When underway at a draft of 10.5 feet in a severe storm, the COASTAL DRILLER has a maximum allowed KG of __________.

    a. 40 feet
    b. 50 feet
    c. 55 feet
    d. 65 feet
4284: Failure to comply with, or enforce, the provisions of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" can result in a __________.

    a. $650 civil penalty charged against the person in charge of the vessel
    b. $1500 civil penalty charged against the person in charge of the vessel
    c. $500 criminal penalty charged against the Master
    d. $1500 criminal penalty charged against the Master
4285: During an ocean tow when the winds are less than 70 knots, the maximum allowable KG for the COASTAL DRILLER is __________.

    a. 38.75 feet
    b. 42.00 feet
    c. 44.00 feet
    d. 65.00 feet
4286: A vessel which violates the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" may be charged a civil penalty of __________.

    a. $100
    b. $650
    c. $1000
    d. $1500
4287: While in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet, the Coastal Driller has a maximum allowed KG of __________.

    a. 42 feet
    b. 44 feet
    c. 65 feet
    d. 70 feet
4288: The Master or person in charge of a vessel subject to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" who fails to comply with the Act or the regulations thereunder may be charged a civil penalty of __________.

    a. $2,000
    b. $1,500
    c. $1,000
    d. $650
4289: What is the penalty for failure to enforce, or comply with, the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations?

    a. Civil penalty of no more than $650
    b. Civil penalty of no more than $5,000
    c. $5,000 fine and imprisonment for not more than one year, or both
    d. $1,000 fine or imprisonment for not more than two years
4290: If you use obscene, indecent, or profane language over the radiotelephone, you can be __________.

    a. assessed a fine of up to $5,000, imprisonment of up to three years, or both
    b. assessed a fine not to exceed $11,000, imprisonment of not more than two years, or both
    c. assessed a fine not to exceed $20,000
    d. imprisoned up to five years
4291: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit, stability is acceptable provided that neither the KGL nor the KGT exceed __________.

    a. the height of the righting arm
    b. KML or KMT
    c. GML or GMT
    d. maximum allowable KG
4292: A violation of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" may result in a __________.

    a. civil penalty of $650 against the Master or person in charge of a vessel
    b. civil penalty of $1,000 against the vessel itself
    c. suspension and/or revocation of an operator's FCC license
    d. All of the above
4293: Preloading tests the soil to the vertical leg reaction that would be imposed by __________.

    a. static forced and drilling loads
    b. a severe storm
    c. the design storm
    d. environmental forces
4294: By regulation, you MUST keep a record of the use of your radiotelephone for a minimum of __________.

    a. six months
    b. one year
    c. two years
    d. thirty months
4295: The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds expected to exceed 70 knots, must lower the legs so that the can tips are __________.

    a. 60.5 feet below the hull
    b. 48.5 feet below the hull
    c. 11.6 feet below the hull
    d. 1.2 feet below the hull
4296: You have called another vessel by flashing light and he has answered your call properly. You now send your call sign "DE KLIS". He should respond with __________.

    a. TTTT
    b. his own call letters
    c. KLIS, DE, his own call letters
    d. R
4297: The COASTAL DRILLER is in ocean transit in which the winds are not expected to exceed 70 knots. In order to meet the leg strength requirements, the tip of can (TOC) position should be at __________.

    a. 0.00 feet (flush with bottom of hull)
    b. 1.20 feet
    c. 12.38 feet
    d. 60.50 feet
4298: What would white exhaust smoke from a diesel engine probably mean?

    a. Late fuel injection
    b. Excess combustion air
    c. High compression temperature
    d. Excessive lube oil consumption
4299: When jumping into water upon which there is an oil-fire, you should __________.

    a. enter the water midships on the leeward side of the vessel
    b. enter the water midships on the windward side of the vessel
    c. enter the water at the bow or stern on the leeward side of the vessel
    d. enter the water at the bow or stern on the windward side of the vessel
4301: When leveling the elevated COASTAL DRILLER, you may raise the low corner instead of lowering the high corner __________.

    a. in all cases, it is optional
    b. if lowering the high corner places the unit in the wave action
    c. if proper air gap has been exceeded
    d. if a potential punch-through threatens
4303: During a long ocean tow of a jack-up the clearance in the upper guide should be reduced to zero to restrain the leg and eliminate the impact loads from dynamic responses. This is best done by __________.

    a. lowering the spud cans below the hull
    b. raising the spud cans into hull recesses
    c. tapering the upper guides and building up the teeth
    d. remove certain lengths of leg
4305: The COASTAL DRILLER is experiencing a single amplitude roll angle of 3 degrees and a roll period of 10 seconds. What is the maximum water depth that can be used for going on location?

    a. 45 feet
    b. 95 feet
    c. 145 feet
    d. 245 feet
4307: To what distance below the hull must the legs of the COASTAL DRILLER be lowered in order to meet the stability and leg strength requirements during the wind speeds greater than 70 knots?

    a. 0.0 feet
    b. 1.2 feet
    c. 25.0 feet
    d. 60.5 feet
4311: The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds expected to exceed 70 knots, must lower the legs to 60.5 feet below the hull in order to meet the requirements for stability and __________.

    a. leg strength
    b. variable load
    c. environmental load
    d. load line
4312: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 14'-07". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0158

    a. 1.30 feet
    b. 1.17 foot
    c. 1.06 foot
    d. 0.91 foot
4313: The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds expected to exceed 70 knots, must lower the legs to 60.5 feet below the hull in order to meet the requirements for leg strength and __________.

    a. stability
    b. variable load
    c. environmental load
    d. load line
4315: Curve A in the Design Limits of Legs Chart of the Coastal Driller Operating Manual, shows the operating limits during severe storm conditions during transit based on __________.

    a. stability and leg strength
    b. variable load
    c. environmental load
    d. load line
4317: Curve B in the Design Limits of Legs Chart of the Coastal Driller Operating Manual, shows the operating limits during normal transit based on __________.

    a. leg strength
    b. variable load
    c. environmental load
    d. load line
4321: Sea water temporarily pumped into tanks to simulate the increased vertical loading of environmental forces is termed __________.

    a. preload
    b. liquid variable load
    c. fixed load
    d. basic load
4323: Guide tolerances during elevation of the jack-up rig will __________.

    a. reduce spud can bearing pressure
    b. keep the unit level and reduce overloading
    c. reduce stresses on the hull
    d. minimize the potential for punch-through
4325: Lowering the hull of the COASTAL DRILLER and refloating should be done in favorable weather conditions with wave heights not more than __________.

    a. three feet
    b. four feet
    c. five feet
    d. six feet
4326: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 4850 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 279.84 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0159

    a. LCG-FP 267.7 feet
    b. LCG-FP 268.4 feet
    c. LCG-FP 269.2 feet
    d. LCG-FP 270.6 feet
4331: On the COASTAL DRILLER, a noticeable increase in the level indicator while extracting the legs from the soil indicates __________.

    a. the legs are free
    b. one or two legs are stuck
    c. a punch-through is occurring
    d. the legs are being extracted through a punch-through soil layer
4333: The COASTAL DRILLER is experiencing a single amplitude roll angle of 2 degrees and a roll period of 10 seconds. What is the maximum recommended water depth for elevating?

    a. 50 feet
    b. 100 feet
    c. 150 feet
    d. 200 feet
4334: What is the function of an air receiver in the compressed air system?

    a. Condenses moisture
    b. Provides overpressure protection
    c. Purifies the air
    d. Acts as an accumulator
4335: The COASTAL DRILLER is experiencing a single amplitude roll angle of 1 degree and a roll period of 7 seconds. What is the maximum recommended water depth for elevating?

    a. 50 feet
    b. 100 feet
    c. 150 feet
    d. 200 feet
4336: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 5486 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 277.84 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0160

    a. LCG-FP 271.2 feet
    b. LCG-FP 272.1 feet
    c. LCG-FP 273.6 feet
    d. LCG-FP 274.6 feet
4337: The COASTAL DRILLER, following discharge of preload, should __________.

    a. leave dump valves open
    b. close all dump valves
    c. remove dump valves
    d. replace dump valves
4341: The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated to an air gap of 25 feet in 250 feet of water. The current is 2 knots and the waves are 30 feet. The maximum leg reaction is 6,120 kips. What is the maximum wind for drilling operations?

    a. 100 knots
    b. 70 knots
    c. 60 knots
    d. 40 knots
4345: What information must be available to use the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts for the COASTAL DRILLER?

    a. Soil conditions
    b. Overturning moment
    c. Water depth
    d. Specific gravity of the sea water
4346: The EPIRB on board your vessel is required to be tested __________.

    a. weekly
    b. monthly
    c. quarterly
    d. yearly
4347: In using the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts for the COASTAL DRILLER, leg penetration is assumed to be less than __________.

    a. 55 feet
    b. 45 feet
    c. 35 feet
    d. 25 feet
4355: If the maximum leg penetration of the COASTAL DRILLER is 75 feet, the water depth value in the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts must be increased by __________.

    a. 75 feet
    b. 50 feet
    c. 25 feet
    d. 0 feet
4357: In using the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts for the COASTAL DRILLER, which of the three leg reactions is required?

    a. Minimum
    b. Average
    c. Highest
    d. Preloaded value
4361: On the COASTAL DRILLER, hook load includes the weight of the __________.

    a. setback load
    b. rotary load
    c. conductor tension
    d. drill string
4362: The free surface effects of a partially full tank in a vessel increase with the __________.

    a. surface area of the fluid in the tank
    b. displacement volume of the vessel
    c. draft of the vessel
    d. height of the tank above the keel
4363: Scouring is the result of __________.

    a. interruption of the normal current flow by the footing
    b. elevating in mud-slide zones
    c. penetrating rapidly through a hard crust into weaker soils
    d. extracting legs from soils with high cohesion
4371: Where the seabed consists of sand or silt, the most severe potential problem for an independent-leg jack-up can result from __________.

    a. scour
    b. penetration
    c. marine growth
    d. insufficient preload
4373: In comparison to electric power, hydraulic power for jacking systems has the advantage of __________.

    a. better control capabilities
    b. less maintenance and repair
    c. fewer personnel needed during jacking
    d. less preload needed
4375: On the COASTAL DRILLER, what is NOT considered a drilling load?

    a. Hook load
    b. Cantilever pipe rack
    c. Conductor tension
    d. Setback
4377: The elevating system of the COASTAL DRILLER is normally limited to __________.

    a. 14,158 kips
    b. 14,400 kips
    c. 17,280 kips
    d. 21,297 kips
4383: In an emergency, the jacking system on the COASTAL DRILLER is capable of elevating the unit with a loading of __________.

    a. 14,158 kips
    b. 14,400 kips
    c. 17,280 kips
    d. 21,297 kips
4385: While elevated as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), winds are 57 knots and current is 2 knots. What is the maximum wave height allowed for drilling?

    a. 30 feet
    b. 33 feet
    c. 35 feet
    d. 40 feet
4387: The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated in 192 feet of water. Leg penetration is 83 feet. The maximum leg reaction is 5,940 kips. The waves are 30 feet and the current is 2 knots. What is the maximum wind for drilling?

    a. 45 knots
    b. 50 knots
    c. 57 knots
    d. 62 knots
4391: Which data is NOT used in the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts for the COASTAL DRILLER?

    a. Leg penetration
    b. Wave height
    c. Total weight
    d. Current
4393: Environmental loading consists of the forces caused by wind, waves, and __________.

    a. drilling
    b. soil reactions
    c. temperature
    d. current
4397: What maximum wind velocity is assumed when determining the limits of elevated service for the COASTAL DRILLER?

    a. 100 knots
    b. 70 knots
    c. 50 knots
    d. It varies with the Allowable Wind and Wave charts.
4401: Use of air gaps in excess of that stated in the Limits of Elevated Service for the COASTAL DRILLER could result in __________.

    a. the hull being in the storm wave zone
    b. increased overturning moments
    c. reduced exposed area
    d. increased static leg loading
4402: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6584 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 277.84 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0161

    a. LCG-FP 271.2 feet
    b. LCG-FP 272.1 feet
    c. LCG-FP 273.6 feet
    d. LCG-FP 274.6 feet
4403: Scouring usually occurs with soils such as __________.

    a. clay
    b. sand
    c. coral
    d. mud
4404: The letter and number symbols, such as B-II, used to classify portable fire extinguishers indicate the __________.

    a. class of fire and size of the extinguisher
    b. class of fire and location aboard vessel
    c. extinguishing agent and relative size of the extinguisher
    d. extinguishing agent and location aboard vessel
4405: Leg penetration to depths which require pullout forces greater than that which can be supplied by the buoyancy of the hull may exist in __________.

    a. soft mud
    b. sand
    c. silt
    d. soft to firm clays
4411: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in a normal transit, the roll period is 9 seconds. What is the limiting angle of roll which does not exceed the design limits of the legs?

    a. 11°
    b. 9°
    c. 7°
    d. 5°
4413: The COASTAL DRILLER, while in a normal transit, experiences single amplitude rolling of three degrees. What is the minimum period of roll which does not exceed the design limits of the legs?

    a. 1.5 seconds
    b. 3.0 seconds
    c. 5.5 seconds
    d. 7.0 seconds
4415: While in ocean transit, the COASTAL DRILLER has a roll period of 9 seconds. What is the largest angle each side of vertical that does not exceed the design limits of the legs in good weather?

    a. 14°
    b. 11°
    c. 9°
    d. 7°
4416: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise is __________.

    a. white
    b. yellow
    c. red
    d. green
4417: The COASTAL DRILLER, while in an ocean transit, experiences a single amplitude roll of 8 degrees. What is the minimum period of motion which does not exceed the design limits of the legs?

    a. 10 seconds
    b. 8 seconds
    c. 6 seconds
    d. 4 seconds
4421: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in normal transit, the roll period is 8 seconds. What would be the limiting angle of pitch which does not exceed the design limits of the legs?

    a. 10°
    b. 8°
    c. 6°
    d. 4°
4423: While in ocean transit, the COASTAL DRILLER experiences a single amplitude roll of 5 degrees. What is the minimum roll period that does not exceed the design limits of the legs?

    a. 2.7 seconds
    b. 4.0 seconds
    c. 6.5 seconds
    d. 7.2 seconds
4435: The COASTAL DRILLER has sufficient reserve stability to overcome damage due to flooding of any one watertight compartment in winds to __________.

    a. 36 knots
    b. 50 knots
    c. 70 knots
    d. 100 knots
4447: When a helicopter is lifting personnel from a survival craft, the other individuals in the craft should __________.

    a. enter the water in case the person being lifted slips from the sling
    b. stand on the outside of the craft to assist the person being lifted
    c. remove their life preservers to prepare for their transfer to the helicopter
    d. remain seated inside the craft to provide body weight for stability
4453: When transferring survivors from a survival craft to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the craft should __________.

    a. remove their life preservers to make it easier to climb on board the rescue vessel
    b. climb on top of the survival craft while waiting for their turn to transfer to the rescue vessel
    c. remain seated inside the survival craft and make the transfer one person at a time
    d. enter the water and swim over to the rescue vessel
4455: What is the primary advantage of a davit-launched liferaft in comparison to an inflatable liferaft?

    a. The davit-launched liferaft is easier to maintain.
    b. The davit-launched liferaft is made of fire-retardant material.
    c. The davit-launched liferaft has a built-in sprinkler system for fire protection.
    d. The davit-launched liferaft enables personnel to enter the raft without having to enter the water.
4457: Prior to entering a davit-launched liferaft, you should make sure that __________.

    a. the liferaft is well ventilated of excess carbon dioxide
    b. all personnel have removed their life preservers to facilitate boarding
    c. the door flap has been cut away and stowed inside the raft
    d. All of the above
4458: Any firefighting equipment that is carried in addition to the minimum required must __________.

    a. meet the applicable standards
    b. be marked as additional equipment
    c. be stowed in a separate area
    d. All of the above
4461: If you have to jump in the water when abandoning a MODU, your legs should be __________.

    a. spread apart as far as possible
    b. held as tightly against your chest as possible
    c. in a kneeling position
    d. extended straight down and crossed at the ankles
4463: The COASTAL DRILLER's ability to meet the damage stability criteria depends on maintaining a watertight integrity, KGL and KGT less than maximum allowed, level attitude, and displacement less than __________.

    a. 11,777 kips
    b. 13,158 kips
    c. 14,158 kips
    d. 17,280 kips
4465: The COASTAL DRILLER's ability to meet the damage stability criteria depends on maintaining watertight integrity, displacement less than 14,158 kips, level attitude, and KGT and KGL less than __________.

    a. the height of the righting arm
    b. the maximum allowed
    c. GMT and GML
    d. BMT and BML
4471: A severe storm threatens the COASTAL DRILLER, and a decision is made to evacuate the unit. If practical, all non-essential personnel should be off the unit in advance of the storm's predicted arrival by __________.

    a. 12 hours
    b. 24 hours
    c. 36 hours
    d. 48 hours
4475: While the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, the out-of-level alarm indicates that hull inclination exceeds 0.3°. What should you do?

    a. Raise the high corner.
    b. Raise the low corner.
    c. Raise unit to proper air gap and inspect for damage.
    d. Confirm operation of out-of-level alarm.
4477: If you see someone fall overboard from a MODU, you should __________.

    a. immediately jump in the water to help the individual
    b. call for help and keep the individual in sight
    c. run to the radio room to send an emergency message
    d. go to the control room for the distress flares
4481: The COASTAL DRILLER, with a draft of 10 feet 3 inches in seawater, has a displacement of __________.

    a. 13,011 kips
    b. 13,336 kips
    c. 13,445 kips
    d. 14,637 kips
4483: The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. The draft in sea water at the forward draft marks is observed to be 8.0 feet. The KML is __________.

    a. 286.27 feet
    b. 299.09 feet
    c. 316.67 feet
    d. 355.42 feet
4484: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6285 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 272.45 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0162

    a. LCG-FP 271.2 feet
    b. LCG-FP 272.1 feet
    c. LCG-FP 273.6 feet
    d. LCG-FP 274.6 feet
4485: The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. The draft in sea water at the forward draft marks is observed to be 8.0 feet. The KMT is __________.

    a. 153.73 feet
    b. 160.42 feet
    c. 179.41 feet
    d. 203.97 feet
4486: The international body responsible for drafting the convention prohibiting marine pollution (MARPOL) is the __________.

    a. Maritime Advisory Council
    b. International Maritime Organization
    c. International Association of Shipping
    d. Association of Seafaring Nations
4487: Weights added or discharged at the center of flotation on the COASTAL DRILLER while floating will change the __________.

    a. list
    b. trim
    c. true mean draft
    d. TPI
4491: The COASTAL DRILLER, with a displacement of 13,553 kips, has a draft of __________.

    a. 10.5 feet
    b. 11 feet 6 inches
    c. 11 feet 2 inches
    d. 10 feet 5 inches
4493: The COASTAL DRILLER, with a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, has a displacement of __________.

    a. 13,662 kips
    b. 13,553 kips
    c. 13,011 kips
    d. 12,252 kips
4495: The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10.5 feet. It discharges 216.43 kips of weight. What is the new draft?

    a. 10.7 feet
    b. 10.3 feet
    c. 10 feet 8 inches
    d. 10 feet 4 inches
4497: The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at the load line draft. It discharges 279.93 kips of weight. The new draft is __________.

    a. 10.88 feet
    b. 10.8 feet
    c. 10.0 feet
    d. 10 feet 8 inches
4501: The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10.0 feet. It loads 216.43 kips of weight aboard. What is the new draft?

    a. 10.2 feet
    b. 10 feet 2 inches
    c. 10 feet 3 inches
    d. 10 feet 4 inches
4503: The COASTAL DRILLER has a change of trim by the head of 2.0 feet. What is the change of draft at the forward draft marks?

    a. 0.66 feet
    b. 1.00 feet
    c. 1.33 feet
    d. 2.00 feet
4505: The height of the longitudinal metacenter of the COASTAL DRILLER at a displacement of 13,810 kips is __________.

    a. 256.51 feet
    b. 255.11 feet
    c. 254.60 feet
    d. 253.20 feet
4507: The height of the transverse metacenter of the COASTAL DRILLER at a displacement of 13,011 kips is __________.

    a. 144.21 feet
    b. 145.33 feet
    c. 267.98 feet
    d. 270.13 feet
4511: The height of the transverse metacenter of the Coastal Driller at a displacement of 13,050 kips is __________.

    a. 143.81 feet
    b. 144.61 feet
    c. 144.93 feet
    d. 145.73 feet
4513: When the COASTAL DRILLER is level at a draft of 10.5 feet, what is the value of the LCG?

    a. 00.0 feet
    b. 111.35 feet
    c. 119.44 feet
    d. 120.59 feet
4515: A survival craft being used to pick up a person who has fallen overboard from a MODU should approach the person __________.

    a. at a high rate of speed
    b. under oars
    c. against the wind
    d. with the wind
4517: The longitudinal location of the center of flotation for the COASTAL DRILLER has a value of __________.

    a. 207.33 feet AF0
    b. 160.33 feet AF0
    c. 119.44 feet AF0
    d. 38.33 feet AF0
4521: While in transit at a draft of 10.5 feet, the COASTAL DRILLER has a KGT of 60.0 feet. What is the GMT?

    a. 139.92 feet
    b. 138.89 feet
    c. 79.92 feet
    d. 78.89 feet
4523: The capacity of the COASTAL DRILLER preload tanks is __________.

    a. 21,297.0 kips
    b. 11,777.2 kips
    c. 9,753.7 kips
    d. 8,708.0 kips
4525: Preload tank 22B on the COASTAL DRILLER contains 5.0 feet of preload. It is decided to complete filling the tank. What is the TCG of the added liquid?

    a. 65.60 feet
    b. 65.74 feet
    c. 65.77 feet
    d. 65.83 feet
4527: The sounding for Drill Water Tank #18 for the Coastal Driller is 1.25 feet. It is decided to fill the tank. What is the vertical center of gravity for the added liquid?

    a. 3.13 feet
    b. 2.50 feet
    c. 1.87 feet
    d. 0.63 foot
4533: The sounding level of 17 lb. per gallon mud in mud pit 2S of the COASTAL DRILLER is 7.75 feet. What are the longitudinal moments for this mud?

    a. 16,031 ft-kips
    b. 16,342 ft-kips
    c. 20,387 ft-kips
    d. 20,781 ft-kips
4534: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 5577 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 275.55 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0163

    a. LCG-FP 271.2 feet
    b. LCG-FP 272.1 feet
    c. LCG-FP 273.6 feet
    d. LCG-FP 274.6 feet
4535: The sounding level of 17 lb. per gallon mud in mud pit 2S of the COASTAL DRILLER is 7.75 feet. What are the transverse moments for this mud?

    a. 896 ft-kips
    b. 913 ft-kips
    c. 1139 ft-kips
    d. 1161 ft-kips
4537: What is the weight in long tons of 180 barrels of 15 pound per gallon drilling mud?

    a. 522.67 long tons
    b. 50.63 long tons
    c. 34.84 long tons
    d. 3.38 long tons
4541: What is the weight in drill water tank #1 for the COASTAL DRILLER, if the sounding in the tank is 8 feet 2 inches?

    a. 202.16 kips
    b. 204.60 kips
    c. 206.87 kips
    d. 209.34 kips
4543: What is the sounding in drill water tank #1 for the COASTAL DRILLER, if the weight of drill water in the tank is 388.32 kips?

    a. 14.5 feet
    b. 15.0 feet
    c. 15.5 feet
    d. 16.0 feet
4545: What is the VCG of the drill water in the COASTAL DRILLER's #1 Drill Water Tank, if the weight in the tank is 388.32 kips?

    a. 7.25 feet
    b. 7.50 feet
    c. 7.75 feet
    d. 8.00 feet
4546: Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.

    a. direct contact
    b. radiation
    c. conduction
    d. convection
4547: What are the vertical moments for 14.0 feet of drill water in the COASTAL DRILLER's #1 drill water tank?

    a. 2.455 ft-kips
    b. 2.543 ft-kips
    c. 2.725 ft-kips
    d. 2.997 ft-kips
4551: What are the transverse moments for 10.5 feet of sea water in preload tank #2 for the COASTAL DRILLER?

    a. 15,044 kips
    b. 12,123 kips
    c. 5,468 kips
    d. 2,732 kips
4553: What longitudinal moments are created when 379.97 kips of fresh water is placed in the COASTAL DRILLER's #1 drill water tank?

    a. 1,729 ft-kips
    b. 1,739 ft-kips
    c. 1,749 ft-kips
    d. 1,759 ft-kips
4555: The COASTAL DRILLER at a draft of 10.5 feet, transfers a portion of the on board liquids from full drill water tank #23 to empty drill water tank #24. What is the change in the free surface correction?

    a. 0.69 foot
    b. 0.44 foot
    c. 0.34 foot
    d. 0.22 foot
4557: The sounding level of 12 lb. per gallon mud in mud pit 1S of the COASTAL DRILLER is 5.5 feet. What is the weight of the mud?

    a. 104.53 kips
    b. 114.37 kips
    c. 116.45 kips
    d. 127.41 kips
4561: The sounding level of 17 lb. per gallon mud in mud pit 2S of the COASTAL DRILLER is 7.75 feet. What is the weight of the mud?

    a. 153.16 kips
    b. 156.13 kips
    c. 194.77 kips
    d. 198.54 kips
4563: While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER sample load form #3 (drilling), 200 kips are discharged from 60 feet AF0 and 30 feet to starboard of the centerline. What is the starboard leg reaction?

    a. 4,271 kips
    b. 5,393 kips
    c. 5,410 kips
    d. 5,571 kips
4565: The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 200 feet of water with 2 knots current, 30 foot waves, and wind speeds of 60 knots may continue drilling if the maximum leg reaction is less than __________.

    a. 5,700 kips
    b. 5,790 kips
    c. 5,870 kips
    d. 5,990 kips
4567: When elevated, placing the LCG and TCG at the leg centroid provides __________.

    a. reduced scour rates
    b. higher variable loading during preloading
    c. higher drilling loads
    d. equal leg reactions
4571: The COASTAL DRILLER, while elevated in 200 feet of water, has 2 knots of current, 50 knots of wind, and 30 foot seas. What is the maximum leg reaction for drilling?

    a. 6,090 kips
    b. 5,980 kips
    c. 5,540 kips
    d. 5,320 kips
4572: You are underway at sea. A fire is reported in the forward part of the vessel. The wind is from dead ahead at 20 knots. You should __________.

    a. remain on course and hold speed
    b. change course and put the stern to the wind
    c. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed
    d. remain on course but decrease speed
4573: The total leg load reactions on an independent leg, self-elevating unit include static and __________.

    a. environmental loading
    b. variable loading
    c. fixed loading
    d. basic loading
4574: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 4824 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 277.45 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0164

    a. LCG-FP 267.7 feet
    b. LCG-FP 268.4 feet
    c. LCG-FP 269.2 feet
    d. LCG-FP 270.6 feet
4575: What precaution should be taken when testing a line throwing gun?

    a. Wear asbestos gloves.
    b. Fire it at an angle of approximately 90 degrees to the horizon.
    c. Never remove the line from the rocket.
    d. All of the above
4577: When the COASTAL DRILLER is properly preloaded, each of the leg reactions should be __________.

    a. 7,200 kips
    b. 7,099 kips
    c. 4,720 kips
    d. 3,381 kips
4583: The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 150 feet of water with 0 knots current, 10 foot waves, and wind speeds of 70 knots may continue drilling if the maximum leg reaction is less than __________.

    a. 5,940 kips
    b. 6,020 kips
    c. 6,080 kips
    d. 6,520 kips
4587: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,400 kips. The LCG is 120.00 feet AF0, and the TCG is -0.5 feet to port of the centerline. What is the bow leg reaction?

    a. 4,737 kips
    b. 4,916 kips
    c. 5,063 kips
    d. 5,145 kips
4591: The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 100 feet of water with 0 knots current, 30 foot waves, and wind speeds of 50 knots may continue drilling if the maximum leg reaction is less than __________.

    a. 6,180 kips
    b. 6,320 kips
    c. 6,440 kips
    d. 6,520 kips
4593: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,400 kips. The LCG is 120.00 feet AF0, and the TCG is -0.5 feet to port of the centerline. What is the port leg reaction?

    a. 5,063 kips
    b. 5,104 kips
    c. 5,233 kips
    d. 5,345 kips
4594: As shown, a frapping line is indicated by number __________. (D016SA )

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
4595: The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,400 kips. The LCG is 120.00 feet AF0, and the TCG is -0.5 foot to port of the centerline. What is the starboard leg reaction?

    a. 4,956 kips
    b. 5,063 kips
    c. 5,104 kips
    d. 5,233 kips
4597: While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), 236 kips are discharged from 80 feet AF0 and 19.79 feet to port of the centerline. What is the resulting starboard leg reaction?

    a. 4,281 kips
    b. 5,382 kips
    c. 5,459 kips
    d. 5,537 kips
4601: The COASTAL DRILLER is drilling while weighing 15,436 kips. LM are 2,006,680 ft-kips, and TM are -7,718 ft-kips. What is the port leg reaction?

    a. 3,806 kips
    b. 5,751 kips
    c. 5,879 kips
    d. 7,549 kips
4603: The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated while preparing for the passage of a severe storm. With ideal loading, the static loading on each of the three legs would be 4,715 kips. However, the LCG is 121 feet AFO and TCG is 0.5 foot to starboard of the centerline. By how many kips does the starboard leg reaction exceed the ideal loading?

    a. 00 kips
    b. 32 kips
    c. 149 kips
    d. 181 kips
4605: How many independent bilge systems is the COASTAL DRILLER equipped with?

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
4607: On the COASTAL DRILLER, the level of water in each of two pump bilge pits is monitored by hydrostatic alarm switches connected to a remote panel located in the __________.

    a. OIM's quarters
    b. OIM's office
    c. control house
    d. SCR room
4611: On the COASTAL DRILLER, the level of water in each of two pump bilge pits is monitored by __________.

    a. visual sight gages
    b. low and high level alarms
    c. hydrostatic alarm switches
    d. OSS units (overflow sequence selector units)
4615: On the machinery deck of the COASTAL DRILLER, each watertight compartment has at least one sump valve that can be remotely operated from the __________.

    a. OIM's quarters
    b. OIM's office
    c. control house
    d. bilge pit
4616: You are scheduled to load 4700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 323 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water.

    a. 19'-00"
    b. 19'-04"
    c. 19'-09"
    d. 20'-01"
4617: On the COASTAL DRILLER, in case one of the two bilge pits is flooded, the other can operate through a(n)__________.

    a. six-inch line connected to the independent isolation valves to the sea chest
    b. separate bilge discharge manifold
    c. independent scavenger manifold
    d. crossover arrangement
4621: On the COASTAL DRILLER, the start/stop station for the bilge pumps is located __________.

    a. in the OIM's office
    b. in the control house
    c. near the bilge pits
    d. in the MCC
4622: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 26'-04", AFT 28'-08". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 101 tons of seawater.

    a. FWD 27'-00.6, AFT 28'-01.7"
    b. FWD 27'-01.2", AFT 28'-02.5"
    c. FWD 27'-01.8", AFT 28'-03.1"
    d. FWD 27'-02.4", AFT 28'-03.7"
4623: On the COASTAL DRILLER, the bilge discharge is normally through the __________.

    a. overboard discharge
    b. dump valves
    c. skimmer tank
    d. sump valves
4625: The order to abandon a MODU should only be given by the __________.

    a. Offshore Installation Manager
    b. Barge Engineer
    c. Ballast Control Operator
    d. Rig Safety Supervisor
4627: On the COASTAL DRILLER, except when pumping from a tank, the bilge system valves should be __________.

    a. cracked open
    b. in the check-stop position
    c. opened for draining
    d. closed
4631: On the COASTAL DRILLER, in case the bilge discharge is oily, the bilge water should be discharged through the __________.

    a. overboard discharge
    b. dump valves
    c. skimmer tank
    d. sump valves
4633: On the COASTAL DRILLER, when afloat, oily bilge discharge should be pumped through the __________.

    a. overboard discharge
    b. dump valves
    c. skimmer tanks
    d. raw water header
4635: How much drill water is required for transfer between drill water tanks #25 and #26 in order to correct the list of the COASTAL DRILLER with total transverse moments of -6,800 ft-kips?

    a. 200 kips from tank #26 to tank #25
    b. 200 kips from tank #25 to tank #26
    c. 100 kips from tank #26 to tank #25
    d. 100 kips from tank #25 to tank #26
4636: What will be released by pulling on line number 5? (D012SA )

    a. Frapping line
    b. Gripes
    c. Tricing pendant
    d. Lifeboat
4637: How much drill water should be transferred from tanks #23 and #24 to tank #1 to level the COASTAL DRILLER, in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, if the total longitudinal moments are 1,700,000 ft-kips?

    a. 438 kips
    b. 451 kips
    c. 521 kips
    d. 537 kips
4641: What is the change in longitudinal moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank #23 to an empty drill water tank #1?

    a. 15,565 foot-kips increase
    b. 7,585 foot-kips increase
    c. 15,565 foot-kips decrease
    d. 16,041 foot-kips decrease
4643: What is the change in longitudinal moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank #23 to an empty drill water tank #6?

    a. 7,990 foot-kips increase
    b. 7,990 foot-kips decrease
    c. 8,502 foot-kips decrease
    d. 16,041 foot-kips decrease
4644: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 7240 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 273.20 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0165

    a. LCG-FP 271.2 feet
    b. LCG-FP 272.1 feet
    c. LCG-FP 273.6 feet
    d. LCG-FP 275.3 feet
4645: What is the change in the vertical moments (excluding free surface effects) for the COASTAL DRILLER if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank #23 to an empty drill water tank #6?

    a. 253 foot-kips
    b. 56 foot-kips
    c. -253 foot-kips
    d. -411 foot-kips
4647: What is the increase in transverse moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank #23 to an empty drill water tank #6?

    a. 4783 foot-kips
    b. 3446 foot-kips
    c. 2109 foot-kips
    d. 1234 foot-kips
4651: If you wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning a MODU it will __________.

    a. weigh you down
    b. preserve body heat
    c. reduce your body heat
    d. make it more difficult to breathe
4652: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 3245 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 272.20 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0166

    a. LCG-FP 267.7 feet
    b. LCG-FP 268.4 feet
    c. LCG-FP 269.2 feet
    d. LCG-FP 270.6 feet
4653: What is the increase in transverse free surface moments for the COASTAL DRILLER if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank #23 to an empty drill water tank #6?

    a. 9,172 foot-kips
    b. 3,914 foot-kips
    c. 2,109 foot-kips
    d. 932 foot-kips
4655: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the drill water in drill water tanks #6 and #25 are discharged, what is the new draft?

    a. 8.26 feet
    b. 10.66 feet
    c. 10.88 feet
    d. 11.10 feet
4657: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of the four bulk tanks are back-loaded to a supply boat, what would be the new draft?

    a. 7.16 feet
    b. 10.31 feet
    c. 10.57 feet
    d. 11.19 feet
4657: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of the four bulk tanks are back-loaded to a supply boat, what would be the new draft?

    a. 7.16 feet
    b. 10.31 feet
    c. 10.57 feet
    d. 11.19 feet
4658: You are scheduled to load 3900 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 259 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water.

    a. 18'-06"
    b. 18'-02"
    c. 17'-11"
    d. 17'-08"
4661: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of the #1 drill water tank are discharged, what would be the new LCG?

    a. 118.46 feet AF0
    b. 119.44 feet AF0
    c. 119.98 feet AF0
    d. 120.42 feet AF0
4662: Most covered lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing if the __________.

    a. lower ballast tanks are filled with water
    b. sea anchor is deployed to windward
    c. fuel tanks are not less than half full
    d. passengers are strapped to their seats
4663: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of the #7 drill water tank are discharged, what would be the new TCG?

    a. -0.15 foot
    b. 0.00 foot
    c. 0.15 foot
    d. 0.29 foot
4665: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what would be the new VCG?

    a. 47.21 feet
    b. 47.69 feet
    c. 48.41 feet
    d. 49.16 feet
4667: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what would be the new height of the longitudinal metacenter?

    a. 249.47 feet
    b. 250.16 feet
    c. 252.92 feet
    d. 253.90 feet
4673: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?

    a. 48.41 feet
    b. 49.16 feet
    c. 50.79 feet
    d. 51.40 feet
4677: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 drill water tanks are discharged, what is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects?

    a. 47.49 feet
    b. 49.16 feet
    c. 50.82 feet
    d. 50.93 feet
4681: The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the new KGT if, during the move, 170.9 kips of fuel oil is consumed from Diesel Oil Tanks #13 and #14?

    a. 48.98 feet
    b. 50.08 feet
    c. 50.70 feet
    d. 51.21 feet
4683: What is the change in longitudinal moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.5 feet of drill water is discharged from drill water tank #23?

    a. 1,671 ft-kips
    b. -161 ft-kips
    c. -4,708 ft-kips
    d. -20,052 ft-kips
4685: What is the change in transverse moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.5 feet of drill water is discharged from drill water tank #23?

    a. 1,671 ft-kips
    b. -161 ft-kips
    c. -1,800 ft-kips
    d. -2,982 ft-kips
4687: What is the decrease in vertical moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.5 feet of drill water is discharged from a full drill water tank #23?

    a. 3,464 ft-kips
    b. 2,982 ft-kips
    c. 482 ft-kips
    d. 161 ft-kips
4691: The COASTAL DRILLER, with no list, is at a true mean draft of 10 feet and 10 inches. LM is 1,699,463 ft-kips. Using only tanks #1, #25, and #26, how many kips of drill water must be transferred to level the jack-up?

    a. Transfer 106.2 kips aft from #1 to #25 and #26
    b. Transfer 53.1 kips each from #25 and #26 forward to #1
    c. Transfer 612 kips from #25 to #26
    d. Vessel is level; no need to transfer
4693: The COASTAL DRILLER, with no trim, is at a true mean draft of 10 feet and 10 inches. TM is -6,800 ft-kips. Using only tanks #1, #25, and #26, how many kips of drill water must be transferred to level the jack-up?

    a. Transfer 53.1 kips each from #25 and #26 forward to #1
    b. Transfer 100 kips from #26 to #25
    c. Transfer 200 kips from #25 to #26
    d. Transfer 100 kips from #25 to #26
4697: A tank with a volume of 2,000 cubic feet is pressed with fresh water weighing 62.4 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight, in kips, of the liquid?

    a. 54.4 kips
    b. 64.7 kips
    c. 95.8 kips
    d. 124.8 kips
4701: After you activate your emergency position indicating radio beacon, you should __________.

    a. turn it off for five minutes every half-hour
    b. turn it off and on at five-minute intervals
    c. turn it off during daylight hours
    d. leave it on continuously
4701: After you activate your emergency position indicating radio beacon, you should __________.

    a. turn it off for five minutes every half-hour
    b. turn it off and on at five-minute intervals
    c. turn it off during daylight hours
    d. leave it on continuously
4703: A jack-up 210 feet in length is level during transit. The LCF is 140 feet aft of the bow. How much weight should be applied at the stern to re-level the jack-up if 75 kips is applied at the bow?

    a. 50 kips
    b. 75 kips
    c. 100 kips
    d. 150 kips
4705: What is the weight of 100 barrels of 17 pound per gallon drilling mud?

    a. 24.9 kips
    b. 41.5 kips
    c. 71.4 kips
    d. 93.0 kips
4706: You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 7940 T. The 45-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 60' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 110' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 50' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 4.5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?

    a. 4.82
    b. 4.64
    c. 4.30
    d. 3.97
4707: While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER sample load form #3 (drilling), 50 kips of tubulars are discharged from the cantilever starboard pipe racks. What is the change in the vessel's LCG?

    a. 0.23 foot forward
    b. 0.40 foot forward
    c. 0.64 foot forward
    d. 1.02 feet forward
4711: While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER sample load form #3 (drilling), 50 kips of tubulars are discharged from the cantilever starboard pipe racks. What is the change in the vessel's TCG?

    a. 0.048 foot port
    b. 0.048 foot starboard
    c. 1.020 feet port
    d. 1.020 feet starboard
4713: When the COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the sample load form #3 (drilling), the hook load is placed in the pipe racks. What would be the new variable load?

    a. 2,381.0 kips
    b. 3,381.0 kips
    c. 3,658.8 kips
    d. 4,381.0 kips
4715: Sea water remaining in the preload tanks of the COASTAL DRILLER after the preload has been dumped shall be entered in the load form as __________.

    a. basic load
    b. fixed load
    c. preload
    d. liquid variable load
4716: What is the purpose of tricing pendants?

    a. They have the same function as frapping lines.
    b. They are safety lines for personnel inside the lifeboat.
    c. They slow the descent of the lifeboat.
    d. They hold the lifeboat alongside the embarkation deck.
4717: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the sample load from #2 (preload). All of the preload is dumped with the exception of 50 kips in preload tank #28. What is the new LCG?

    a. 119.11 feet AF0
    b. 119.44 feet AF0
    c. 119.68 feet AF0
    d. 120.11 feet AF0
4718: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, must be sent __________.

    a. prior to departure
    b. within a few hours before or after departure
    c. within 12 hours of departure
    d. within 24 hours of departure
4723: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new trim angle if 500 kips of weight are shifted aft 60 feet?

    a. 2.02 degrees by the stern
    b. 1.51 degrees by the stern
    c. 0.98 degrees by the stern
    d. 0.61 degrees by the stern
4725: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Rig Move). What would be the new sum of vertical moments for the liquid variables if the entire contents of tank #20 are transferred to tank #13?

    a. 2,365 ft-kips
    b. 2,244 ft-kips
    c. 2,195 ft-kips
    d. 170 ft-kips
4727: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of longitudinal moments for the liquid variables if the entire contents of tank #19 are transferred to tank #13?

    a. 12,344 ft-kips
    b. 173,493 ft-kips
    c. 181,174 ft-kips
    d. 1,929,523 ft-kips
4733: In the COASTAL DRILLER, LCG is obtained from the sum of the longitudinal moments by __________.

    a. adding the sum of the weights
    b. subtracting the sum of the weights
    c. multiplying by the sum of the weights
    d. dividing by the sum of the weights
4734: Seawater may be used for drinking __________.

    a. if gathered during or immediately after a hard rain
    b. at a maximum rate of two ounces per day
    c. under no conditions
    d. after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water
4735: In the COASTAL DRILLER, TCG is obtained from the sum of the transverse moments by __________.

    a. adding the sum of the weights
    b. subtracting the sum of the weights
    c. multiplying by the sum of the weights
    d. dividing by the sum of the weights
4737: In the COASTAL DRILLER, VCG is obtained from the sum of the vertical moments by __________.

    a. adding the sum of the weights
    b. subtracting the sum of the weights
    c. multiplying by the sum of the weights
    d. dividing by the sum of the weights
4741: The COASTAL DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 13,445 kips. What is the weight of the missing load?

    a. 46 kips
    b. 84 kips
    c. 189 kips
    d. 217 kips
4742: You are scheduled to load 4700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 323 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water.

    a. 19'-00"
    b. 19'-03"
    c. 19'-07"
    d. 20'-01"
4743: The COASTAL DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 13,445 kips, total longitudinal moments 1,613,466 foot-kips, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-kips. What is the longitudinal location of the missing load?

    a. 46 feet AFO
    b. 84 feet AFO
    c. 189 feet AFO
    d. 217 feet AFO
4744: You operate the lever shown when the lifeboat is __________. (D013SA )

    a. in the secured position
    b. at the embarkation deck
    c. being lowered to sea level
    d. waterborne
4745: While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER sample load form #3 (drilling), all of the casing is discharged. What is the change in LCG?

    a. 1.98 feet forward
    b. 1.95 feet forward
    c. 0.02 foot forward
    d. 0.02 foot aft
4746: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 12'-07", AFT 16'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0167

    a. 1.30 feet
    b. 1.07 foot
    c. 0.96 foot
    d. 0.82 foot
4747: The COASTAL DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 13,445 kips, total longitudinal moments 1,613,466 foot-kips, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-kips. What is the transverse location of the missing load?

    a. 46 feet port of the centerline
    b. 46 feet starboard of the centerline
    c. 84 feet port of the centerline
    d. 84 feet starboard of the centerline
4748: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 3885 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 278.45 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0168

    a. LCG-FP 267.7 feet
    b. LCG-FP 268.4 feet
    c. LCG-FP 269.2 feet
    d. LCG-FP 270.6 feet
4751: Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank #14 to tank #20. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in longitudinal moments with this transfer?

    a. 565 ft-kips
    b. 900 ft-kips
    c. 2603 ft-kips
    d. 3168 ft-kips
4753: Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank #14 to tank #13. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in transverse moments with this transfer?

    a. 56 ft-kips
    b. 979 ft-kips
    c. 1035 ft-kips
    d. 2010 ft-kips
4755: Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank #14 to tank #13. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in vertical moments with this transfer?

    a. 81 ft-kips increase
    b. 31 ft-kips increase
    c. 26 ft-kips decrease
    d. 47 ft-kips decrease
4757: Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank #14 to tank #13. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in longitudinal free surface moments?

    a. 1492 ft-kips increase
    b. 1034 ft-kips increase
    c. 674 ft-kips increase
    d. 404 ft-kips increase
4761: Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank #14 to tank #13. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in transverse free surface moments?

    a. 1492 ft-kips
    b. 674 ft-kips
    c. 404 ft-kips
    d. 270 ft-kips
4763: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the entire contents of the port pipe rack are back-loaded to an offshore supply vessel, how much drill water would have to be transferred between tanks 6 and 7 to level the vessel in list?

    a. 47.2 kips tank #7 to tank #6
    b. 23.6 kips tank #7 to tank #6
    c. 23.6 kips tank #6 to tank #7
    d. 47.2 kips tank #6 to tank #7
4764: You are scheduled to load 3700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 427 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water.

    a. 17'-01"
    b. 17'-05"
    c. 17'-10"
    d. 18'-00"
4767: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the entire contents of the port pipe rack are back-loaded to an offshore supply vessel, how much drill water would have to be transferred from tank #1 to tank #26 to level the vessel in trim?

    a. 62.7 kips
    b. 64.4 kips
    c. 111.4 kips
    d. 114.9 kips
4771: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the entire contents of bulk tanks #2 and #3 are back-loaded to an offshore supply vessel, what would be the new draft?

    a. 11.04 feet
    b. 10.88 feet
    c. 10.72 feet
    d. 9.02 feet
4773: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the entire contents of bulk tanks #2 and #3 are back-loaded to an offshore supply vessel, what longitudinal moment would have to be created to level the unit in trim at the new draft?

    a. 25,846 ft-kips
    b. 17,119 ft-kips
    c. 8,727 ft-kips
    d. 1,788 ft-kips
4775: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the entire contents of bulk tanks #2 and #3 are back-loaded to an offshore supply vessel, what transverse moment would have to be created to level the unit in list at the new draft?

    a. -3,604 ft-kips
    b. -4 ft-kips
    c. 3,470 ft-kips
    d. 7,088 ft-kips
4777: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). While in field transit, the wind speeds are predicted to increase above 70 knots. What would be the new KGL if the legs are lowered to the recommended value?

    a. 50.65 feet
    b. 37.00 feet
    c. 36.53 feet
    d. 13.65 feet
4778: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 5540 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 272.20 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0169

    a. LCG-FP 266.5 feet
    b. LCG-FP 267.8 feet
    c. LCG-FP 268.4 feet
    d. LCG-FP 269.2 feet
4781: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). While in field transit, the wind speeds are predicted to increase above 70 knots. What would be the change in KGL if the legs are lowered to the recommended value?

    a. 12.75 feet
    b. 13.65 feet
    c. 59.30 feet
    d. 60.50 feet
4783: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the margin on the maximum allowable KG if winds remain less than 70 knots?

    a. 0.00 feet
    b. 14.35 feet
    c. 14.82 feet
    d. 65.00 feet
4784: If there's a fire aboard your vessel, you should FIRST __________.

    a. sound the alarm
    b. notify the Coast Guard
    c. have passengers put on life preservers
    d. cut off air supply to the fire
4785: What should you do with your emergency position indicating radio beacon if you are in a liferaft in a storm?

    a. Bring it inside the liferaft and leave it on.
    b. Bring it inside the liferaft and turn it off until the storm passes.
    c. Leave it outside the liferaft and leave it on.
    d. Leave it outside the liferaft but turn it off.
4786: Which number indicates the hydrostatic release? (D015SA )

    a. 3
    b. 6
    c. 7
    d. 10
4787: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). How much more variable load in kips can be placed on the unit if winds increase to greater than 70 knots?

    a. 0 kips
    b. 200 kips
    c. 600 kips
    d. 1,000 kips
4791: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). How much more variable load in kips can be placed on the unit if winds remain less than 70 knots?

    a. 0 kips
    b. 200 kips
    c. 600 kips
    d. 1,000 kips
4793: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the margin on the maximum allowable KG if winds increase to greater than 70 knots, and the TOC is changed to the recommended value?

    a. 0.0 foot
    b. 1.0 foot
    c. 37.0 feet
    d. 38.0 feet
4795: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new LCG if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?

    a. 118.20 feet
    b. 119.44 feet
    c. 120.10 feet
    d. 121.36 feet
4797: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new TCG if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?

    a. -0.23 foot
    b. 0.00 foot
    c. 0.23 foot
    d. 0.54 foot
4801: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new VCG if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?

    a. 38.00 feet
    b. 48.38 feet
    c. 49.16 feet
    d. 65.00 feet
4805: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new Longitudinal Free Surface Correction (FSCL) if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?

    a. 2.24 feet
    b. 2.14 feet
    c. 2.10 feet
    d. 1.63 feet
4807: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new transverse free surface correction (FSCT) if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?

    a. 2.24 feet
    b. 2.14 feet
    c. 2.10 feet
    d. 1.67 feet
4811: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the value of KMT if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?

    a. 135.91 feet
    b. 136.38 feet
    c. 136.62 feet
    d. 136.89 feet
4812: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 21'-04", AFT 26'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0170

    a. 0.54 ft
    b. 0.62 ft
    c. 0.80 ft
    d. 0.85 ft
4813: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the value of KML if the entire contents of drill water tanks 6 and 7 are discharged?

    a. 253.90 feet
    b. 253.24 feet
    c. 252.92 feet
    d. 252.24 feet
4814: You are scheduled to load 3900 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 359 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water.

    a. 19'-00"
    b. 18'-07"
    c. 18'-04"
    d. 18'-01"
4815: What is the maximum amount of variables that may be taken aboard the COASTAL DRILLER while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (drilling)?

    a. 1000 kips
    b. 681 kips
    c. 89 kips
    d. 0 kips
4833: To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning a MODU, they should __________.

    a. be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other survivors in the water
    b. float on their backs with their arms extended for maximum exposure to the air
    c. remove their life preservers and hold on to the uninjured survivors
    d. sip seawater at intervals of fifteen minutes
4837: When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is opened, the mainline valve should be __________.

    a. completely open
    b. completely closed
    c. pinched to check the air flow
    d. immediately disconnected
4847: The rated operating time of a self-contained breathing device may be reduced in actual use because of __________.

    a. pressure differences in the atmosphere
    b. the length of the hose attached to the facepiece
    c. the physical exertion of the person wearing the device
    d. spaces containing poisonous vapors
4851: The self-contained breathing device should not be used in which situation?

    a. Oxygen deficient spaces
    b. Compartments containing poisonous vapors
    c. Fighting fires that produce heavy smoke
    d. Underwater search
5031: For the purposes of the International Rules of the Road, a jack-up drilling rig under tow is considered to be a __________.

    a. vessel
    b. non-displacement vessel
    c. power-driven vessel
    d. limited vessel
5033: For the purposes of the International Rules of the Road, a non-self-propelled, semisubmersible drilling unit under tow is considered to be a __________.

    a. power-driven vessel
    b. limited vessel
    c. non-displacement vessel
    d. vessel
5035: When would a jack-up drilling rig be considered "underway" under the International Rules of the Road?

    a. When it is being towed to a new location
    b. When it is elevated and taking on preload
    c. When it is elevated and engaged in drilling
    d. When it is moored to a dock in the shipyard
5037: Where will you find the requirements for the signals that must be sounded by a mobile offshore drilling unit that is being towed through an area of restricted visibility?

    a. COLREGS
    b. MMS Rules
    c. SOLAS Convention
    d. Coast Pilot
5038: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 22'-03", AFT 25'-05". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 97 tons of seawater.

    a. FWD 22'-10.7", AFT 25'-00.9"
    b. FWD 22'-11.3", AFT 25'-00.3"
    c. FWD 22'-11.9", AFT 24'-11.7"
    d. FWD 23'-00.5", AFT 24'-11.1"
5041: When must a MODU display navigation lights while underway?

    a. Only between sunrise and sunset
    b. At all times while being towed
    c. Only when other vessels are in sight
    d. Whenever visibility is restricted
5042: What is the meaning of the signal SA T1035 RQ when sent by the International code of Signals?

    a. The longitude is 10°35'.
    b. I am altering course to 103.5°T.
    c. Can you proceed at 1035 local time?
    d. Is the latitude 10°35'?
5045: Your jack-up is being towed along a shipping channel. You are concerned that a vessel that is overtaking you is coming too close to pass safely. You must __________.

    a. broadcast a Mayday message
    b. prepare the survival craft for launching
    c. sound the abandon unit signal
    d. sound five or more short blasts on the whistle
5047: A jack-up drilling rig being towed must __________.

    a. turn off all lights that interfere with the navigation lights
    b. turn on all available working lights on deck
    c. ring the bell rapidly for five seconds once a minute
    d. display two black diamonds in a vertical line during the day
5053: Which shape shown would be displayed by a mobile offshore drilling unit that is being towed more than 200 meters astern of a towing vessel? (DIAGRAM 16 )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
5055: A mobile offshore drilling unit will show the day-shape in DIAGRAM 10 to indicate that it is __________.

    a. at anchor
    b. being towed
    c. aground
    d. drilling
5057: A mobile offshore drilling unit under tow is approaching a fog bank. When should fog signals be started?

    a. When the towing vessel enters the fog
    b. When the drilling rig enters the fog
    c. When the towing vessel can no longer be seen from the rig
    d. Immediately
5061: During a move to a new location, a jack-up drilling unit with personnel on board is towed through a heavy rainstorm. What signal must be sounded by the drilling rig when visibility is restricted?

    a. One prolonged blast
    b. Two prolonged blasts
    c. One prolonged and two short blasts
    d. One prolonged and three short blasts
5062: You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 8530 T. The 40-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 65' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 115' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 50' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?

    a. 2.96 ft
    b. 3.18 ft
    c. 3.46 ft
    d. 3.77 ft
5063: What signal must be sounded by a vessel towing a mobile offshore drilling unit through an area of restricted visibility?

    a. Two prolonged blasts
    b. Five or more short blasts
    c. One prolonged and two short blasts
    d. One prolonged and three short blasts
5065: Under what condition are you allowed to depart from the rules of the road?

    a. To avoid immediate danger
    b. When authorized by the rig superintendent
    c. To comply with an operator's requirement
    d. Under no conditions
5067: While a MODU is underway, a look-out must be maintained __________.

    a. at all times
    b. only during periods of restricted visibility
    c. only when other vessels are present
    d. only during the hours of darkness
5068: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 19'-00", AFT 24'-00". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0171

    a. 0.62 foot
    b. 0.80 foot
    c. 0.85 foot
    d. 0.99 foot
5071: A mobile offshore drilling unit is on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf. It has a length of 220 feet and a breadth of 190 feet. Where must the obstruction lights be located?

    a. At the top of the drill mast
    b. On each corner of the rig
    c. At the bow of the rig
    d. At the bow and stern of the rig
5073: An obstruction light on a mobile offshore drilling unit on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf, shall have a lens that is visible over an arc of __________.

    a. 60°
    b. 90°
    c. 180°
    d. 360°
5075: What lighting characteristic is required of an obstruction light on a mobile offshore drilling unit on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf?

    a. Fixed
    b. Flashing
    c. Quick-flashing
    d. Occulting
5077: The requirements for obstruction lights on mobile offshore drilling units apply on all waters __________.

    a. outside the boundary lines that are covered by International Rules of the Road
    b. outside the lines of demarcation that are covered by the U.S. navigational rules
    c. over the Outer Continental Shelf and on waters under the jurisdiction of the United States
    d. over the prohibited zone defined in the Oil Pollution Control Act of 1961
5081: What color are obstruction lights on mobile offshore drilling units that are located on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf seaward of the line of demarcation?

    a. White
    b. Red
    c. Yellow
    d. Blue
5083: When a mobile offshore drilling unit on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf has more than one obstruction light, the lights must be operated to flash __________.

    a. at the same time
    b. in sequence at intervals of five seconds
    c. in sequence at intervals of ten seconds
    d. in sequence at intervals of fifteen seconds
5085: A mobile offshore drilling unit must display obstruction lights when it is on the waters over the Outer Continental Shelf and is __________.

    a. under tow
    b. fixed to the seabed
    c. underway
    d. All of the above
5087: What agency is responsible for enforcing the rules for obstruction lights on mobile offshore drilling units?

    a. Minerals Management Service
    b. Corps of Engineers
    c. Department of Energy
    d. U.S. Coast Guard
5091: Obstruction lights on mobile offshore drilling units on the waters of the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf must be displayed __________.

    a. at all times
    b. between sunset and sunrise
    c. whenever visibility is restricted
    d. whenever vessels approach within one-half mile
5092: You are scheduled to load 3200 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 259 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water:

    a. 17'-00"
    b. 16'-09"
    c. 16'-06"
    d. 16'-04"
5093: A jack-up drilling unit elevated on the Outer Continental Shelf must have a fog horn that will sound __________.

    a. a 2-second blast every 20 seconds
    b. a 4-second blast every 20 seconds
    c. an 8-second blast every 30 seconds
    d. a 10-second blast every 30 seconds
5094: The mechanism that will release the tricing pendant, as shown, is __________. (D012SA )

    a. the fore and aft gripes
    b. the McCluny hook
    c. a quick release lever
    d. a 3/4" shackle
5095: Who has the ultimate responsibility for the safety of a mobile offshore drilling unit while it is being towed to a new location?

    a. The rig mover
    b. The Pilot
    c. The marine surveyor
    d. The Offshore Installation Manager
5097: To have the ultimate authority for a mobile offshore drilling unit while it is under tow, a rig mover must __________.

    a. hold an Able Seaman certificate and be designated as the person in charge of the rig
    b. hold a license as Offshore Installation Manager and be held as the person in charge of the rig
    c. be certified by an approved classification society and be designated as the person in charge of the rig
    d. be certified by the Minerals Management Service and be designated as the person in charge of the rig
5098: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 20'-04", AFT 23'-06". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0172

    a. 0.62 foot
    b. 0.80 foot
    c. 0.85 foot
    d. 0.99 foot
5101: When a marine surveyor is employed to assist in the move of a mobile offshore drilling unit, he __________.

    a. becomes responsible for the safe movement of the rig
    b. relieves the Offshore Installation Manager at the moment the rig is free from the bottom
    c. must be designated as the person in charge of the rig
    d. is a specialist who is hired to provide advice and guidance on aspects of the move
5103: A hurricane has recurved to the northeast and its forward speed is 20 knots. Your MODU is located 600 miles northeast of the hurricane's center. How long will it take for the hurricane center to reach your position if it holds its present course and speed?

    a. 10 hours
    b. 30 hours
    c. 50 hours
    d. 80 hours
5105: The edge of a hurricane has overtaken your MODU in the Gulf of Mexico and the northwest wind of a few hours ago has shifted to the west. This is an indication that you are located in the __________.

    a. navigable semicircle
    b. dangerous semicircle
    c. low pressure area
    d. eye of the storm
5113: A tropical storm is building strength some distance from your MODU. Waves are coming from the east, with periods increasing from 5 seconds to 15 seconds. The swell is from the east. Where was the storm when these new swells were generated?

    a. To the north of you
    b. To the south of you
    c. To the east of you
    d. To the west of you
5115: What kind of conditions would you observe as the eye of a storm passes over your MODU's position?

    a. Huge waves approaching from all directions, clearing skies, light winds, and an extremely low barometer
    b. Flat calm seas, heavy rain, light winds, and an extremely low barometer
    c. Flat calm seas, heavy rain, light winds, and high pressure
    d. Huge waves approaching from all directions, clearing skies, light winds, and high pressure
5121: What danger is presented if a waterspout passes over a MODU?

    a. Heavy rains could cause downflooding.
    b. Visibility could be restricted by low clouds.
    c. Large waves could cause structural damage.
    d. Personnel may be injured by loose deck gear blown by the wind.
5122: You are scheduled to load 3700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 427 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water.

    a. 17'-01"
    b. 17'-00"
    c. 17'-10"
    d. 18'-00"
5123: In MODU construction, bulkheads in the quarters are generally __________.

    a. structural
    b. watertight
    c. non-structural
    d. continuous
5124: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 14'-04", AFT 18'-08". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0173

    a. 1.05 feet
    b. 1.15 feet
    c. 1.25 feet
    d. 1.31 feet
5125: A MODU with the TCG off the longitudinal centerline inclines to an angle of __________.

    a. list
    b. heel
    c. trim
    d. loll
5127: In illustration D041DG, the symbol for displacement is __________.

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
5131: In illustration D041DG symbol 1 refers to __________.

    a. change of draft
    b. centerline
    c. angle of inclination
    d. displacement
5133: In illustration D041DG, the symbol for the reference from which the height of the center of gravity is measured is __________.

    a. 5
    b. 4
    c. 3
    d. 2
5135: In the illustration, symbol 2 represents __________. (D041DG )

    a. displacement
    b. beam limit
    c. bilge level
    d. baseline
5137: When a floating MODU inclines to an angle slightly greater than the angle of loll, she will __________.

    a. capsize
    b. incline further
    c. flop to the other side
    d. return to the angle of loll
5137: When a floating MODU inclines to an angle slightly greater than the angle of loll, she will __________.

    a. capsize
    b. incline further
    c. flop to the other side
    d. return to the angle of loll
5153: A semisubmersible floating in sea water displaces 20,000 long tons. She has vertical moments of 1,000,000 foot-long tons. What is the change in KG if 500 long tons are placed aboard at a KG of 120 feet?

    a. 1.22 feet upward
    b. 1.71 feet upward
    c. 1.75 feet upward
    d. 2.93 feet upward
5154: The sea anchor shown as item number 14 will NOT __________. (D014SA )

    a. check the liferaft's way
    b. keep the liferaft end on to the sea
    c. reduce the possibility of capsizing or broaching
    d. right the raft if it inflates inverted
5155: A MODU displacing 10,000 long tons with KG 20.0 feet, uses its crane to lift a 40 long ton load from dockside and place it on board at a VCG of 5.0 feet. When lifting, the head of the crane boom is 50.0 feet above the keel. During the lift, what is the apparent increase in KG?

    a. 0.02 foot
    b. 0.12 foot
    c. 0.18 foot
    d. 0.20 foot
5156: Your non-oceangoing vessel is required to have a fixed piping system to discharge oily mixtures ashore. What is required at each outlet of this system?

    a. A 5-gallon can or a fixed containment system
    b. A stop valve
    c. A non-return valve
    d. A means to stop each pump
5157: A MODU displacing 10,000 tons uses its crane to lift a 20 ton load, already aboard, to a height of 5 feet above the deck. When lifting, the head of the crane boom is 50 feet above the load. What is the change in KG?

    a. No change
    b. 0.1 foot
    c. 0.2 foot
    d. 1.0 foot
5163: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new height of the longitudinal metacenter?

    a. 61.13 feet
    b. 61.19 feet
    c. 61.22 feet
    d. 62.94 feet
5175: The DEEP DRILLER, in transit at a seawater draft of 19 feet, enters a fresh water port. What is the new draft?

    a. 19.03 feet
    b. 19.40 feet
    c. 19.63 feet
    d. 21.16 feet
5177: The DEEP DRILLER departs a fresh water port at a draft of 20 feet. What will be the draft in sea water?

    a. 19.0 feet
    b. 19.3 feet
    c. 19.6 feet
    d. 20.4 feet
5181: The DEEP DRILLER departs a fresh water port at a draft of 19.5 feet. What will be the draft in sea water?

    a. 18.7 feet
    b. 19.1 feet
    c. 19.4 feet
    d. 19.8 feet
5183: The DEEP DRILLER departs a fresh water port at a draft of 20.5 feet. What will be the draft in sea water?

    a. 18.2 feet
    b. 19.4 feet
    c. 19.7 feet
    d. 22.8 feet
5191: While being towed at a 19.5 foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER experiences single amplitude pitching of 7.5 degrees with an 8 second period. You should __________.

    a. continue towing operations and carefully monitor vessel motions
    b. alter course into the wind to improve motion characteristics
    c. ballast the rig to a 45 foot draft and check the vessel motion at the new draft
    d. ballast the rig to a 60 foot draft and check vessel motion at the new draft
5192: There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should __________.

    a. put the wind off either beam
    b. put the stern into the wind and decrease speed
    c. put the stern into the wind and increase speed
    d. head the bow into the wind and decrease speed
5193: The DEEP DRILLER is being towed at a 20 foot draft. Vessel motions are within acceptable limits, but the waves begin to hit the horizontal braces. You should __________.

    a. continue on course at the same draft
    b. ballast to a 60 foot draft and continue on course
    c. change course to reduce the wave impact
    d. shorten the tow wire for a smoother ride
5195: The DEEP DRILLER is under tow at a 20 foot draft. The rig motions are close to exceeding the limits for critical pitch and roll. The rig is also experiencing occasional pounding on the horizontal braces. In this situation you should __________.

    a. ballast down to a 45 foot draft and check vessel motions
    b. wait until pitch and roll exceed the limits before ballasting down
    c. ballast up to a 15 foot draft and check vessel motions
    d. shorten the tow wire for a smoother tow
5196: You are hoisting a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 8560 T. The 45-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 65' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 95' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 55' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 5.5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?

    a. 3.74 ft.
    b. 3.96 ft.
    c. 4.16 ft.
    d. 4.35 ft.
5197: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has VM of 942,120 ft-tons, and FSML of 36,235 ft-tons. What is the KGL?

    a. 52.0 feet
    b. 53.0 feet
    c. 54.0 feet
    d. 55.0 feet
5201: If the low side bilge pump fails and the high side bilge pump has insufficient suction to dewater the low side of the COASTAL DRILLER when afloat, you should use the __________.

    a. saltwater eductor system
    b. raw water tower pumps
    c. mud pumps
    d. preload pumps
5203: Among the possible causes of unexpected rapid increasing inclination of the floating COASTAL DRILLER is __________.

    a. consumption of on board liquids
    b. miscalculation of loads
    c. external environmental forces
    d. flooding due to hull damage
5205: Among the possible causes of unexpected constant inclination of the floating COASTAL DRILLER is __________.

    a. consumption of on board liquids
    b. miscalculation of loads
    c. liquid transfer through open valves
    d. flooding due to hull damage
5223: When floating, the appropriate leg horizontal must be aligned in the center of the __________.

    a. center of each lower hull guide
    b. center of each upper guide structure
    c. top of the jack house
    d. bottom of the hull
5225: If the cause of a sudden severe list or trim is negative initial stability, counterflooding into empty tanks may __________.

    a. increase the righting moment
    b. cause an increase in the righting arm
    c. bring the unit to an upright equilibrium position
    d. cause the unit to flop to a greater angle
5232: Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by __________.

    a. a mechanical arm outside the vent duct
    b. electrical controls on the bridge
    c. the heat of a fire melting the link
    d. a break-glass and pull-cable system
5233: During counterflooding to correct a severe list or trim aggravated by an off-center load, a MODU suddenly takes a list or trim to the opposite side. You should __________.

    a. continue counterflooding in the same direction
    b. continue counterflooding, but in the opposite direction
    c. immediately stop counterflooding
    d. deballast from the low side
5234: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 15'-05", AFT 21'-03". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0174

    a. 1.05 feet
    b. 1.15 feet
    c. 1.25 feet
    d. 1.31 feet
5235: If a MODU takes a sudden severe list or trim from an unknown cause, you should FIRST __________.

    a. determine the cause before taking countermeasures
    b. assume the shift is due to off-center loading
    c. counterflood on the side opposite the list or trim
    d. assume the cause is environmental forces
5245: To maintain a high state of readiness against the possibility of damage and subsequent flooding while aboard the DEEP DRILLER, you should __________.

    a. post a watch in the pump room
    b. keep tanks no more than half filled
    c. cap sounding tubes except when in use
    d. keep bilge pumps operating continuously
5247: In case of major damage to column C1P while the DEEP DRILLER is on location, you should pump from port-forward lower-hull tanks using __________.

    a. all four ballast pumps
    b. both port-side ballast pumps
    c. saltwater service pump to supplement port-side ballast pumps
    d. drill water pump to supplement port-side ballast pumps
5261: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C1P. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

    a. pump from 2P
    b. pump from C1P
    c. counterflood in 1P
    d. counterflood in 10S
5263: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

    a. pump from 9S
    b. pump from C3S
    c. counterflood in 1P
    d. counterflood in 10S
5265: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C1P. Pumping from tanks in the vicinity of the damage has proven ineffective. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

    a. counterflood in 1P
    b. counterflood in 10S
    c. pump from C1P
    d. pump from C3S
5267: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Pumping from tanks in the vicinity of the damage have proven ineffective. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

    a. counterflood in 1P
    b. counterflood in 10S
    c. pump from C1P
    d. pump from C3S
5271: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C1P. Your best countermeasure is to pump from __________.

    a. 1P
    b. 3P
    c. C1P
    d. C2P
5273: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Your best countermeasure is to __________.

    a. pump from 10S
    b. counterflood in 1P
    c. pump from 8S
    d. pump from C3S
5274: The type davits shown are __________. (D008SA )

    a. round-bar davits
    b. radial davits
    c. gravity davits
    d. quadrantal davits
5275: In case of minor damage to lower-hull tank 1P while the DEEP DRILLER is in transit, you should pump from tank 1P using __________.

    a. all four ballast pumps
    b. both port-side ballast pumps
    c. saltwater service pump to supplement port-side ballast pumps
    d. drill water pump to supplement port-side ballast pumps
5276: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 18'-07", AFT 23'-03". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 92 tons of seawater.

    a. FWD 19'-04.9", AFT 22'-08.7"
    b. FWD 19'-05.4", AFT 22'-08.0"
    c. FWD 19'-05.7", AFT 22'-07.7"
    d. FWD 19'-06.3", AFT 22'-07.1"
5277: Failure of both port ballast pumps on the DEEP DRILLER prevents their use. To deballast from tank 1P, you may use the __________.

    a. port saltwater service pump
    b. port drill water pump
    c. port bilge pumps
    d. starboard ballast pump and the crossover system
5281: The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the port pump room while in transit. If both port bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you may __________.

    a. use port drill water pump
    b. use port saltwater service pump
    c. use port ballast pumps
    d. use starboard ballast pumps and crossover system
5283: The DEEP DRILLER suffers minor flooding of the starboard pump room while in transit. If both starboard bilge pumps fail to dewater the pump room, you may use __________.

    a. starboard drill water pump
    b. starboard saltwater service pump
    c. starboard ballast pumps
    d. port ballast pumps and crossover system
5285: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Transit), suffers minor damage which results in flooding in tank 1P. You may pump from __________.

    a. 2P
    b. C1P
    c. 1P
    d. 10S
5286: A vessel is inclined at an angle of loll. In the absence of external forces, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.

    a. positive
    b. negative
    c. zero
    d. vertical
5287: The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Transit), suffers minor damage which results in flooding in tank 1S. You may pump from __________.

    a. 2S
    b. C1S
    c. 1S
    d. 10P
5297: Among the possible causes of unexpected rapidly increasing inclination of the DEEP DRILLER while in transit is __________.

    a. consumption of on board variables
    b. miscalculation of loads
    c. external environmental forces
    d. flooding due to lower-hull damage
5301: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the shift in VCG if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?

    a. 0.19 foot down
    b. 0.44 foot down
    c. 0.63 foot down
    d. 1.19 feet down
5302: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 17'-05", AFT 19'-07". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0175

    a. 0.62 foot
    b. 0.80 foot
    c. 0.85 foot
    d. 0.99 foot
5305: The COASTAL DRILLER, in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches with winds less than 70 knots, has a KGT of 50.6 feet and a KGL of 51.4 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.

    a. 13.6 feet
    b. 14.4 feet
    c. 40.0 feet
    d. 65.0 feet
5307: The COASTAL DRILLER, in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches with winds greater than 70 knots, has a KGT of 38.7 feet and a KGL of 38.2 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.

    a. 26.8 feet
    b. 26.3 feet
    c. 1.8 feet
    d. 1.3 feet
5308: Your drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 21'-03". What is the KM based on the tables in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book?

    a. 25.7 feet
    b. 26.0 feet
    c. 26.4 feet
    d. 26.8 feet
5311: The COASTAL DRILLER, in field transit at a draft of 10 feet 0 inches with winds less than 70 knots, has a KGT of 39.0 feet and a KGL of 38.6 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.

    a. 3.0 feet
    b. 3.4 feet
    c. 26.0 feet
    d. 26.4 feet
5312: As shown, the line indicated by number 4 is connected to the __________. (D016SA )

    a. releasing gear
    b. sea painter
    c. McCluny hook
    d. Fleming gear
5312: As shown, the line indicated by number 4 is connected to the __________. (D016SA )

    a. releasing gear
    b. sea painter
    c. McCluny hook
    d. Fleming gear
5313: The COASTAL DRILLER, in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet 0 inches with winds greater than 70 knots, has a KGT of 39.0 feet and a KGL of 38.6 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.

    a. 2.6 feet
    b. 4.1 feet
    c. 26.3 feet
    d. 26.8 feet
5314: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 14'-04", AFT 18'-08". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0176

    a. 1.05 feet
    b. 1.15 feet
    c. 1.25 feet
    d. 1.31 feet
5315: The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit during a severe storm while at a draft of 9 feet 6 inches, has a KGT of 39.1 feet and a KGL of 39.9 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.

    a. 2.6 feet
    b. 3.4 feet
    c. 25.1 feet
    d. 25.9 feet
5321: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, a severe storm is predicted within 12 hours. VM are 541,257 ft-kips, FSML are 32,000 ft-kips and FSMT are 24,000 ft-kips. How much should the KGL be lowered to satisfy the maximum allowable KG criteria?

    a. 23.04 feet
    b. 1.96 feet
    c. 0.62 foot
    d. 0.00 feet
5323: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, a severe storm is predicted within 12 hours. VM are 520,462 ft-kips, FSML are 26,000 ft-kips, and FSMT are 25,000 ft-kips. How much should the KG corrected for free surface effects be lowered to satisfy the maximum allowable KG criteria?

    a. 26.90 feet
    b. 25.00 feet
    c. 1.90 feet
    d. 0.00 feet
5325: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, a severe storm is predicted within 12 hours. VM are 546,462 ft-kips, FSML are 18,000 ft-kips, and FSMT are 32,000 ft-kips. How much should the KG corrected for free surface effects be lowered to satisfy the maximum allowable KG criteria?

    a. 22.66 feet
    b. 2.34 feet
    c. 1.32 feet
    d. 0.00 feet
5327: While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, a severe storm is predicted within 12 hours. GMT is 98.89 feet. How much should the KG corrected for free surface effects be lowered to satisfy the maximum allowable KG criteria?

    a. 3.66 feet
    b. 2.34 feet
    c. 1.32 feet
    d. 0.00 feet
5341: For stronger leg support when the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, locate a set of horizontal leg braces as near as possible to the __________.

    a. center of each lower hull guide
    b. center of each upper hull guide
    c. top of the jack house
    d. bottom of the hull
5353: When preloading the COASTAL DRILLER, the maximum total weight shall not exceed __________.

    a. 21,497 kips
    b. 21,297 kips
    c. 17,700 kips
    d. 14,400 kips
5354: You are scheduled to load 3200 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 323 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water.

    a. 17'-00"
    b. 16'-10"
    c. 16'-07"
    d. 16'-04"
5357: During preloading or elevating the COASTAL DRILLER, jacking-up may continue if the total weight is less than __________.

    a. 21,497 kips
    b. 21,297 kips
    c. 17,700 kips
    d. 14,400 kips
5361: The COASTAL DRILLER, when underway was loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). It is now preloaded at minimum air gap waiting for all settling to take place. The preload, weighing 7,191.7 kips, has LM 870,196 ft-kips and TM 2,158 ft-kips. What is the bow leg reaction?

    a. 7,026 kips
    b. 7,099 kips
    c. 7,144 kips
    d. 7,180 kips
5363: The COASTAL DRILLER, when underway was loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). It is now preloaded at minimum air gap waiting for all settling to take place. The preload, weighing 7,191.7 kips, has LM 870,196 ft-kips and TM 2,158 ft-kips. What is the starboard leg reaction?

    a. 7,026 kips
    b. 7,099 kips
    c. 7,144 kips
    d. 7,180 kips
5365: The COASTAL DRILLER, when underway was loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). It is now preloaded at minimum air gap waiting for all settling to take place. The preload, weighing 7,191.7 kips, has LM 870,196 ft-kips and TM 2,158 ft-kips. What is the port leg reaction?

    a. 7,026 kips
    b. 7,099 kips
    c. 7,144 kips
    d. 7,180 kips
5373: While preloading, the COASTAL DRILLER has a total weight of 21,401 kips. The LM are 2,560,416 ft-kips, and the TM are -6,206 ft-kips. What is the port leg reaction?

    a. 7,099 kips
    b. 7,134 kips
    c. 7,151 kips
    d. 7,203 kips
5381: While preparing for a storm when elevated, the total weight of the COASTAL DRILLER is 14,150 kips, LM are 1,712,150 ft-kips, and TM are -9,905 ft-kips. The bow leg reaction is __________.

    a. 4,536 kips
    b. 4,716 kips
    c. 4,748 kips
    d. 4,866 kips
5385: While preloading, the COASTAL DRILLER has a total weight of 21,401 kips. The LM are 2,560,416 ft-kips, and the TM are -6,206 ft-kips. What is the starboard leg reaction?

    a. 7,099 kips
    b. 7,134 kips
    c. 7,151 kips
    d. 7,203 kips
5386: Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?

    a. Carbon dioxide
    b. Carbon monoxide
    c. Nitric oxide
    d. Hydrogen sulfide
5387: Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?

    a. Nitric oxide
    b. Carbon dioxide
    c. Hydrogen sulfide
    d. Carbon monoxide
5388: The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.

    a. in the pumproom
    b. at the vent header
    c. at the main deck manifold
    d. the midships house
5407: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Preload). What would be the LCG if the preload is dumped and the cantilever and drill floor are skidded aft, placing the rotary 34 feet aft of the transom?

    a. 114.06 feet AFO
    b. 119.44 feet AFO
    c. 123.75 feet AFO
    d. 125.91 feet AFO
5408: One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to __________.

    a. stream the sea anchor
    b. take an anti-seasickness pill
    c. open the pressure relief valve
    d. drink at least one can of water
5411: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Preload). What will be the LCG if the preload is dumped?

    a. 118.51 feet AFO
    b. 119.44 feet AFO
    c. 120.62 feet AFO
    d. 121.53 feet AFO
5412: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 21'-04", AFT 26'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0177

    a. 0.62 foot
    b. 0.80 foot
    c. 0.85 foot
    d. 0.99 foot
5413: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Preload). What would be the TCG if the preload is dumped and the cantilever and drill floor are skidded aft, placing the rotary 34 feet aft of the transom, and the drill floor is skidded 8 feet to port?

    a. -0.52 foot
    b. -0.33 foot
    c. -0.17 foot
    d. 0.52 foot
5415: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Preload), dumps the preload. However, 138.4 kips remained on board. The LM for the remaining preload is 17,992 ft-kips. What is the new LCG?

    a. 119.33 feet AFO
    b. 119.44 feet AFO
    c. 119.54 feet AFO
    d. 119.66 feet AFO
5417: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), discharges the bulk in Bulk Tanks 1 and 2. What is the new LCG?

    a. 124.97 feet AFO
    b. 125.09 feet AFO
    c. 127.70 feet AFO
    d. 130.42 feet AFO
5418: Small passenger vessels in coastwise service must carry approved __________.

    a. life floats
    b. inflatable buoyant apparatus
    c. inflatable liferafts
    d. Any of the above
5421: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), discharges the bulk in Bulk Tanks 1 and 2. What is the new TCG?

    a. -1.61 feet
    b. -1.58 feet
    c. 0.43 feet
    d. 0.99 feet
5423: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), dumps all the mud in pits 1, 2, 3, and 4. What is the new TCG?

    a. -0.36 foot
    b. -0.26 foot
    c. 0.31 foot
    d. 0.36 foot
5425: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), dumps all the mud in pits 1, 2, 3, and 4. What is the new LCG?

    a. 122.02 feet AFO
    b. 125.03 feet AFO
    c. 125.63 feet AFO
    d. 131.46 feet AFO
5427: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Storm), discharges all the bulk in the four bulk tanks. What is the new LCG?

    a. 115.79 feet AFO
    b. 119.18 feet AFO
    c. 119.44 feet AFO
    d. 126.68 feet AFO
5431: The COASTAL DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Storm), discharges all the bulk in the four bulk tanks. What is the new TCG?

    a. -1.11 feet
    b. -0.47 foot
    c. 1.07 feet
    d. 1.11 feet
5433: It is vital to the safety of the elevated COASTAL DRILLER that the hull be kept above __________.

    a. the charted water depth
    b. the charted water depth plus tidal corrections
    c. the still water level
    d. wave action
5434: You are hoisting a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 5230 T. The 35-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 60' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 105' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 42' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?

    a. 4.11
    b. 4.54
    c. 4.98
    d. 5.13
5435: The COASTAL DRILLER is operating with a wave clearance of about 20 feet. The out-of-level alarm sounds and the unit is found to be inclined 0.5 degree bow down. The recommended course of action is to __________.

    a. prepare to take action in case inclination increases
    b. jack the hull up on the bow leg
    c. jack the hull down on the aft two legs
    d. transfer weight, such as drill water, toward the stern
5441: The COASTAL DRILLER has suffered a casualty which requires an orderly evacuation of the unit using the lifeboats and liferafts. Among the items to accomplish in preparing to evacuate the unit is __________.

    a. securing the unit as in preparation for a severe storm
    b. distributing self-contained breathing devices
    c. taking a soil sample of the bottom
    d. All of the above
5445: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to port and forward. Strong wind and high waves are from the starboard quarter. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.

    a. failure of mooring lines 1 or 2
    b. failure of mooring lines 5 or 6
    c. leak in ballast tank #2P
    d. ballast tanks are equalizing into tank 1P
5447: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to starboard and forward. Strong winds and high waves are from the port quarter. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.

    a. failure of mooring lines 3 or 4
    b. failure of mooring lines 7 or 8
    c. leak in ballast tank #2S
    d. ballast tanks equalizing into tank 1S
5449: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 17'-06", AFT 20'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0178

    a. 1.05 feet
    b. 1.15 feet
    c. 1.25 feet
    d. 1.31 feet
5451: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected inclination to starboard and aft. Strong wind and high waves are on the port bow. Among the possible causes, you should consider __________.

    a. failure of mooring lines 5 or 6
    b. failure of mooring lines 1 or 2
    c. leak in ballast tank 9P
    d. ballast tanks equalizing into tank 10S
5455: What percentage of the breaking strength is the generally accepted safe operating load of an anchor cable?

    a. 10%
    b. 25%
    c. 35%
    d. 50%
5457: The only wire rope termination which may be made in the field is __________.

    a. swaged socket
    b. thimbled mechanical splice
    c. hand splice
    d. spelter poured and resin sockets
5461: Thirty-five percent of the breaking strength of an anchor cable is generally accepted as the __________.

    a. safe operating load
    b. normal operating tension
    c. emergency working load
    d. allowable storm load
5462: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 13'-10", AFT 16'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0179

    a. 1.30 feet
    b. 1.17 foot
    c. 1.01 foot
    d. 0.91 foot
5463: A common class of wire rope used for mooring is the 6x19 class. What does the 6 represent?

    a. Factor of safety
    b. Number of wires per strand
    c. Number of strands per wire rope
    d. Number of wires in the core
5465: A common class of wire rope used for mooring is the 6x37 class. What does the 37 represent?

    a. Number of wires in the inner core
    b. Number of strands per wire rope
    c. Tensile strength of the wire
    d. Number of wires per strand
5467: What is an advantage of the 6x19 class of wire rope over the 6x37 class of wire rope of the same diameter?

    a. Greater holding power
    b. Better fatigue life
    c. Resistance to elongation
    d. Resistance to corrosion
5471: What is an advantage of the 6x37 class of wire rope over the 6x19 class of wire rope of the same diameter?

    a. Flexibility
    b. Resistance to corrosion
    c. Resistance to elongation
    d. Lower weight per foot
5473: Where do fatigue failures of wire rope mooring lines usually occur?

    a. In the middle part of the line length
    b. Near the socketed end fitting adjacent to the anchor
    c. At the point where the line touches the bottom
    d. At the place the anchor buoy is attached to the line
5475: The primary purpose for using stud link chain in a mooring system on a rig is the __________.

    a. stud link is more economical
    b. stud keeps the chain from kinking
    c. stud link chain is the lightest night design
    d. stud link improves the anchor's holding power
5477: Standards for fabrication and testing of chain on mobile offshore drilling units are provided by the __________.

    a. Department of the Interior
    b. U.S. Coast Guard
    c. Minerals Management Service
    d. American Petroleum Institute
5479: The purpose of the inclining experiment on a vessel is to determine the __________.

    a. location of the center of gravity of the light ship
    b. position of the center of buoyancy
    c. position of the metacenter
    d. maximum load line
5481: A common means of connecting shots of anchor chain in the field is to use a __________.

    a. sprocket
    b. Kenter link
    c. swivel
    d. end shackle
5483: The idler sheave which directs and turns the anchor cable from a semisubmersible is known as the __________.

    a. swivel fairlead
    b. windlass wildcat
    c. chain stopper
    d. chain director
5485: The maximum angular tolerance for a bent link of an anchor chain is __________.

    a. 1 degree
    b. 3 degrees
    c. 5 degrees
    d. 7 degrees
5486: This illustration shows the correct method of securing a __________. (D009SA )

    a. man-rope
    b. frapping line
    c. sea painter
    d. lifeline
5487: A measurement device for inspecting anchor chain is the __________.

    a. slide rule
    b. go-no-go gauge
    c. derrick tape
    d. amp probe
5491: The American Petroleum Institute recommends that a new anchor chain should be inspected after being in service for __________.

    a. 1 year
    b. 3 years
    c. 5 years
    d. 10 years
5493: The American Petroleum Institute recommends that connecting links and anchor shackles be inspected using __________.

    a. visual examinations
    b. magnetic particle inspection
    c. dye penetrant inspection
    d. x-ray inspection
5495: Extended cyclical variations in tensions will cause an anchor chain to break due to __________.

    a. fatigue
    b. corrosion
    c. distortion
    d. abrasion
5497: Which grade of anchor chain is generally used on floating drilling vessels?

    a. Grade 1
    b. Grade 2
    c. Oil Rig Quality (stud link)
    d. 303S
5501: What is a major disadvantage of Di-Lok chain compared with Oil Rig Quality (stud link) chain in floating drilling rig operations?

    a. Shorter fatigue life
    b. Higher weight
    c. Lower strength
    d. Greater expense
5503: What are the two main types of stud link chain?

    a. Oil Rig chain and Oil Field Stud Link chain
    b. Flash-butt welded chain and Di-Lok chain
    c. Flash-butt welded chain and Oil Rig chain
    d. Oil Field Stud Link chain and Flash-butt welded chain
5504: While signaling by flashing light you make an error. You should send __________.

    a. RPT, then repeat the entire signal
    b. EEE, then send the word correctly
    c. the erase signal then continue the message with the last correctly spelled word
    d. the correction signal and re-spell the word
5505: Which problem is virtually impossible to detect during an in-service inspection of used mooring chain?

    a. Cracks
    b. Elongation
    c. Loose studs
    d. Fatigue
5506: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 13'-05", AFT 21'-03". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 88 tons of seawater.

    a. FWD 14'-01.8", AFT 20'-09.3"
    b. FWD 14'-02.4", AFT 20'-08.7"
    c. FWD 14'-03.0", AFT 20'-08.1"
    d. FWD 14'-03.6", AFT 20'-07.5"
5507: The American Petroleum Institute recommends magnetic particle inspection for __________.

    a. anchor chain
    b. wire rope
    c. connecting links
    d. pendant wires
5508: Your drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 18'-03". What is the KM based on the tables in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book?

    a. 25.7 feet
    b. 26.0 feet
    c. 26.2 feet
    d. 26.4 feet
5511: When inspecting anchor chain, the American Petroleum Institute recommends checking the length over 5 links every __________.

    a. 10 feet
    b. 100 feet
    c. 250 feet
    d. 500 feet
5513: A link on an anchor chain should be replaced when wear or grinding of surface cracks has reduced the cross section area by __________.

    a. 4%
    b. 6%
    c. 8%
    d. 10%
5515: What should be done after repairing a surface crack on a link of anchor chain by grinding?

    a. Examine the area by magnetic particle inspection
    b. Replace the chain in service
    c. Galvanize the area
    d. Post heat the area
5517: Grinding to eliminate shallow surface defects should be done __________.

    a. parallel to the longitudinal direction of the chain
    b. perpendicular to the direction of the anchor chain
    c. diagonally across the link of the anchor chain
    d. around the circumference of the chain link
5518: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 14'-04", AFT 17'-06". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0180

    a. 1.15 feet
    b. 1.25 feet
    c. 1.31 feet
    d. 1.48 feet
5521: Prior to magnetic particle inspection of anchor chain, the chain should be __________.

    a. degaussed
    b. demagnetized
    c. soaked
    d. sandblasted
5522: Radiation spreads a fire by __________.

    a. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal
    b. transferring heat across an unobstructed space
    c. burning liquids flowing into another space
    d. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
5523: Before being certified by the American Bureau of Shipping, anchor chain must undergo __________.

    a. USCG inspection
    b. a breaking test
    c. x-ray inspection
    d. spectroanalysis
5525: What does the proof test load of an anchor chain demonstrate?

    a. The breaking strength of the anchor chain
    b. Strength of the anchor chain to a specified limit
    c. Adequate holding power for new bottom conditions
    d. Safe working load of the anchor chain
5527: With adaptor blocks/chocks in place on an LWT stock anchor, the trip angle will be __________.

    a. 20°
    b. 30°
    c. 40°
    d. 50°
5531: With adaptor blocks/chocks removed from an LWT stock anchor, the trip angle will be __________.

    a. 20°
    b. 30°
    c. 40°
    d. 50°
5533: Connecting elements of a mooring system should be fabricated from __________.

    a. cast iron
    b. forged steel
    c. stainless steel
    d. cast steel
5535: What effect is achieved from soaking an anchor?

    a. It allows the bottom soil to consolidate.
    b. It gives the palms time to trip the anchor.
    c. It stabilizes the mooring system.
    d. It lubricates the anchor for better tripping.
5536: On a vessel of 7000 tons displacement, a tank 35 ft. long, 30 ft. wide and 46 ft. deep is half filled with liquid cargo (S.G. 0.923) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?

    a. 3240
    b. 2731
    c. 2390
    d. 2024
5537: Why should you soak an anchor?

    a. It can prevent the anchor from slipping during pretensioning.
    b. It will lubricate all the moving parts of a stock anchor.
    c. It will increase the maximum breaking strength of the anchor chain.
    d. It will make it easier to disassemble the anchor for repair.
5541: What is the "holding power ratio" of an anchor?

    a. Maximum mooring line tension divided by the anchor's weight in air
    b. Anchor's weight in air divided by the maximum mooring line tension
    c. Preloading tension divided by the anchor's weight in air
    d. Operating tension divided by the anchor's weight in air
5543: What happens ns to the efficiency of an anchor when it is moved from sand to mud?

    a. The efficiency increases.
    b. The efficiency decreases.
    c. The efficiency remains the same.
    d. The efficiency cannot be determined.
5545: When a combination chain and wire rope mooring line is used, the chain is deployed __________.

    a. at the anchor end of the line
    b. at the wildcat end of the line
    c. midway between the anchor and the wildcat
    d. through the anchor buoy
5547: In a combination chain and wire rope mooring system, the chain is deployed at the anchor end of the line to __________.

    a. increase fatigue life
    b. eliminate the need for mooring buoys
    c. prevent the anchor from fouling
    d. increase the catenary
5551: Anchor shackles should have a breaking strength that is __________.

    a. equal to the chains they are connecting
    b. 25% more than the chains they are connecting
    c. 50% more than the chains they are connecting
    d. 100% more than the chains they are connecting
5553: The angle between the flukes and the shank of an anchor is called the __________.

    a. holding angle
    b. fleet angle
    c. fluke angle
    d. shank angle
5555: The fluke angle of an anchor system is the angle between the __________.

    a. flukes and the shank
    b. shank and the sea bottom
    c. mooring line and the sea bottom
    d. flukes and the shackle
5557: The holding power of an anchor is the __________.

    a. maximum sustained vertical load an anchor will resist before dragging
    b. maximum sustained horizontal load an anchor will resist before dragging
    c. maximum sustained vertical load an anchor will resist before the mooring line breaks
    d. maximum sustained horizontal load an anchor will resist before the mooring line breaks
5561: What line receives the hardest service in the mooring system?

    a. Guy wire
    b. Joining pendant
    c. Wildcat leader
    d. Anchor pendant
5563: Most large anchors are manufactured with a __________.

    a. bow type shackle
    b. D-type shackle
    c. U-type shackle
    d. Kenter shackle
5565: What is the bow type anchor shackle primarily used for?

    a. Chain to chain connections
    b. Chain to anchor connections
    c. Kenter link to anchor connections
    d. Wire rope connections
5567: What is the most important difference between the bow type anchor shackle and the D-type anchor shackle?

    a. The bow type shackle provides a superior connection.
    b. The D-type shackle is weaker than the bow type.
    c. The bow type shackle is weaker than the D-type.
    d. The D-type shackle provides an inferior connection.
5568: You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a compartment using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate the man should back out?

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
5571: Which two components pass through the shank of an LWT anchor?

    a. Anchor shackle and stock
    b. Tripping palm and flukes
    c. Crown and chocks
    d. Swivel and stabilizer bar
5573: To develop maximum anchor holding power, the optimum angle between the anchor's shank and the mooring lines is __________.

    a. 0 degrees
    b. 10 degrees
    c. 20 degrees
    d. 30 degrees
5574: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0181

    a. Available GM 2.8 ft
    b. Available GM 3.2 ft
    c. Available GM 3.5 ft
    d. Available GM 3.8 ft
5575: Increasing the area of the anchor flukes will __________.

    a. increase holding power
    b. decrease holding power
    c. make penetration more complete
    d. not effect holding power
5577: What is the advantage of a single streamlined fluke anchor over a double fluked anchor of similar weight?

    a. It has multiple fluke angle settings.
    b. It has increased holding power.
    c. It holds well with either side down.
    d. It is easier to handle on an anchor boat.
5585: Cable tension for catenary calculations is taken at the __________.

    a. chain locker
    b. fairlead
    c. anchor
    d. contact point of chain with seabed
5586: Your drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 21'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the location of the center of flotation relative to amidships.

    a. 5.1 feet forward
    b. 4.7 feet forward
    c. 2.6 feet aft
    d. 0.8 foot forward
5587: What is the primary disadvantage of a permanent chain chaser system?

    a. It requires anchor handling boats with more horsepower.
    b. Chain chasers work in shallow water only.
    c. Chain chasers will not work with piggyback anchors.
    d. It takes longer to deploy anchors using chain chasers.
5591: The major cause of anchor buoy pendant wire failures is __________.

    a. corrosion
    b. rough weather
    c. defective sockets
    d. mishandling
5595: An anchor winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding __________.

    a. half the breaking strength of the mooring line
    b. the full breaking strength of the mooring line
    c. the maximum expected tension of the mooring line
    d. 50% over the working tension of the mooring line
5597: A chain stripper is used to __________.

    a. prevent chain from clinging to the wildcat
    b. clean the marine debris from the chain
    c. flake chain from a boat's chain locker
    d. clean chain prior to an x-ray inspection
5598: Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.

    a. direct contact
    b. radiation
    c. convection
    d. conduction
5601: Your semisubmersible drilling unit is moving onto a location in shallow water with a very hard bottom. What is the most effective means of maintaining your position at this location during severe weather?

    a. Running out all the anchor chain available
    b. Piggyback all anchors and pretension to above the expected tensions
    c. Install fluke angle blocks on all your LWT anchors
    d. Remove fluke angle blocks on all your LWT anchors
5603: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while in transit is 7 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 4 degrees. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.

    a. unsatisfactory, change course and speed
    b. satisfactory, continue transit
    c. unsatisfactory, ballast to survival draft
    d. unsatisfactory, place unit in standby
5604: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0182

    a. Available GM 2.4 ft
    b. Available GM 3.2 ft
    c. Available GM 3.5 ft
    d. Available GM 3.8 ft
5605: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while tripping is 10 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometer is 4 degrees. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.

    a. unsatisfactory, place setback in the pipe racks
    b. satisfactory, continue tripping
    c. unsatisfactory, deballast to survival draft
    d. unsatisfactory, place unit in standby
5611: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while tripping is 8 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 4 degrees. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.

    a. unsatisfactory, place setback in the pipe racks
    b. satisfactory, continue tripping
    c. unsatisfactory, deballast to survival draft
    d. unsatisfactory, place unit in standby
5615: Structural stress levels in a MODU are the sum of loading stresses and stresses due to __________.

    a. environmental loads
    b. variable loads
    c. ballast loading
    d. mooring loads
5616: You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a tank using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate that the man should come out immediately?

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
5617: Structural stress on a MODU can be reduced by __________.

    a. lessening the effect of environmental forces
    b. even and symmetrical variable loading
    c. local concentration of heavy consumables
    d. increasing the metacentric height
5623: The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while tripping is 10 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 8 degrees. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.

    a. unsatisfactory, place setback in the pipe racks
    b. satisfactory, continue tripping
    c. unsatisfactory, deballast to survival draft
    d. satisfactory, place unit in standby
5625: For a semisubmersible moored in heavy weather conditions, the leeward lines should be paid out, and the windward lines adjusted so that __________.

    a. the unit remains as close to the hole as possible
    b. several weather lines carry about the same tension
    c. at least 1,000 feet of chain lie along the bottom
    d. the vertical component of chain tension at the lower fairlead is not excessive
5627: For a semisubmersible moored in heavy weather conditions, the weather lines should be adjusted so that several lines carry about the same tension, and the leeward lines are __________.

    a. tensioned to reduce weather mooring line tensions
    b. paid out to reduce weather mooring line tensions
    c. adjusted so that at least 1,000 feet of chain lie along the bottom
    d. adjusted so that the vertical component of chain tension at the lower fairlead is not excessive
5631: In deballasting to survival draft because of extreme wind and wave loads, thrusters or propulsion, if available, should be used to __________.

    a. reduce windward mooring line tensions
    b. reduce leeward mooring line tensions
    c. increase leeward mooring line tensions
    d. maintain constant mooring line tensions
5633: In ballasting to survival draft, while in transit, due to extreme wind and wave loads, thrusters or propulsion, if available, should be used to __________.

    a. reduce windward mooring tensions
    b. maintain vessel heading
    c. maximize accelerations
    d. increase speed of advance
5637: While in transit during heavy weather, the crew aboard a semisubmersible should be alert to repeated pounding of waves on the lower bracing. If necessary, the unit should be __________.

    a. deballasted to a shallower draft
    b. ballasted to survival draft
    c. ballasted to a draft in which the KG exceeds the maximum allowed
    d. towed in the trough of the waves
5643: When evacuating the DEEP DRILLER, preparations should include __________.

    a. putting the unit at transit draft
    b. activating the emergency power system
    c. jettisoning all combustible materials
    d. removing all tension from the mooring lines
5644: You are operating an ocean-going vessel of 322 gross tons. If your vessel does NOT have an oily-water separator then she must have a fixed piping system to discharge oily ballast to a shore facility. This system must include __________.

    a. containment capacity for at least 5 gallons at the tank vents
    b. a means to stop each pump near the discharge outlet
    c. at least two pumps that may be put in line
    d. at least two outlets accessible from the weather deck
5645: On a semisubmersible drilling unit, increasing riser tension reduces __________.

    a. list
    b. KM
    c. KG
    d. GM
5647: On a semisubmersible drilling unit, increasing riser tension increases __________.

    a. KG
    b. GM
    c. KM
    d. free surface moments
5648: The hydrostatic release on the inflatable liferafts on a fishing vessel must be __________.

    a. replaced annually
    b. tested monthly
    c. serviced annually
    d. overhauled quarterly
5651: On a semisubmersible drilling unit, decreasing riser tension reduces __________.

    a. KG
    b. KM
    c. GM
    d. free surface moments
5653: On a semisubmersible drilling unit, decreasing riser tension increases __________.

    a. free surface moments
    b. KM
    c. GM
    d. KG
5655: When the air temperature is just below 32°F, snow FIRST adheres to __________.

    a. surfaces near the waterline
    b. vertical surfaces
    c. horizontal surfaces
    d. leeward surfaces
5665: When clear ice is present while drilling, the vertical transverse moments of the DEEP DRILLER are increased by __________.

    a. 40,402 ft-long tons
    b. 42,255 ft-long tons
    c. 45,593 ft-long tons
    d. 49,280 ft-long tons
5667: When clear ice is present when the DEEP DRILLER is in transit, the vertical moments are increased by __________.

    a. 40,402 ft-long tons
    b. 42,255 ft-long tons
    c. 45,593 ft-long tons
    d. 49,280 ft-long tons
5668: Your drafts are: FWD 16'-02", AFT 18'-02". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1.

    a. 935 foot-tons
    b. 960 foot-tons
    c. 985 foot-tons
    d. 1000 foot-tons
5671: When assuming the maximum ice weight accumulation on the DEEP DRILLER at survival draft, the vertical moments are increased by __________.

    a. 40,402 ft-long tons
    b. 42,255 ft-long tons
    c. 45,593 ft-long tons
    d. 49,280 ft-long tons
5673: The DEEP DRILLER may remain at operating draft instead of deballasting to survival draft when __________.

    a. critical motion limits have been exceeded
    b. waves approach within two feet of the spider deck
    c. the maximum wave height is less than 64 feet
    d. winds are greater than 70 knots
5677: The DEEP DRILLER may remain at operating draft instead of deballasting to survival draft when __________.

    a. critical motion limits have not been exceeded
    b. waves approach within two feet of the spider deck
    c. the maximum wave height is greater than 64 feet
    d. winds are greater than 70 knots
5681: The DEEP DRILLER may remain at operating draft instead of deballasting to survival draft when __________.

    a. critical motion limits have been exceeded
    b. waves approach within two feet of the spider deck
    c. the maximum wave height is greater than 64 feet
    d. winds are less than 70 knots
5683: You should consider placing the drilling operations of the DEEP DRILLER in standby when __________.

    a. sustained winds exceed 50 knots
    b. winds exceed 70 knots
    c. critical motion limits have been exceeded
    d. waves are greater than 64 feet
5691: In a storm, the windward lines of a MODU's mooring system provide __________.

    a. a positive righting moment
    b. an increase in KM
    c. a negative restoring force
    d. a positive restoring force
5693: In a storm, the leeward lines of a MODU's mooring system will __________.

    a. pull the unit in the same direction that the weather is pushing it
    b. pull the unit in the opposite direction that the weather is pushing it
    c. tend to keep the unit on its original location over the well head
    d. affect the unit's draft and inclination as maximum mooring tensions are reached
5694: What is the meaning of the signal QU RQ when sent by the International Code of Signals?

    a. This is the call sign of a vessel registered in Latvia.
    b. Is anchoring prohibited?
    c. Will you lead me to a safe anchorage?
    d. Interrogative
5695: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4, (Drilling). In preparing for approaching heavy weather, the four leeward mooring lines are slacked. These actions reduce the __________.

    a. natural pitch period
    b. metacentric height
    c. height of the righting arm
    d. righting moment
5697: The motion that can significantly increase mooring line tension is __________.

    a. pitch
    b. roll
    c. yaw
    d. sway
5701: The vessel motion that can significantly affect mooring line tensions on a MODU is __________.

    a. roll
    b. yaw
    c. surge
    d. pitch
5702: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0183

    a. Available GM 2.8 ft
    b. Available GM 3.2 ft
    c. Available GM 3.5 ft
    d. Available GM 3.8 ft
5705: The design of a spring buoy helps __________.

    a. to retrieve the anchor
    b. to prevent chafing at the lower end of the pendant
    c. to mark the rig's approach to the location
    d. an anchor handling vessel back toward the rig
5707: A mooring system that results in a spread system without anchor buoys is called a __________.

    a. permanent chasing system
    b. wire rope mooring system
    c. shepherd's crook mooring system
    d. spring buoy mooring system
5708: On a vessel of 6500 tons displacement, a tank 30 ft. long, 32 ft. wide and 18 ft. deep is half filled with liquid cargo (S.G. 1.048) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?

    a. 1152
    b. 1336
    c. 2390
    d. 2731
5711: Installing tandem anchors on the same mooring line is referred to as __________.

    a. doubling
    b. pretensioning
    c. piggybacking
    d. paralleling
5713: What pressure must a spring buoy, moored at a 500 foot depth, withstand?

    a. 100 psig
    b. 150 psig
    c. 225 psig
    d. 300 psig
5715: What can cause a lack of oxygen in a chain locker?

    a. Absorption
    b. Osmosis
    c. Evaporation
    d. Oxidation
5721: Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with __________.

    a. litmus paper
    b. combustible gas indicator
    c. oxygen breathing apparatus
    d. oxygen indicator
5722: Your drafts are: FWD 21'-03", AFT 26'-00". What is the KM based on the tables in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book?

    a. 25.1 feet
    b. 25.4 feet
    c. 25.7 feet
    d. 26.0 feet
5725: Given the same water depth and line tension, the catenary length of a 90 pound/foot mooring chain in comparison to the catenary length of a 19 pound/foot wire rope mooring line will be __________.

    a. longer
    b. identical
    c. shorter
    d. indeterminable
5727: Given the same water depth and line tension, the length of the ground cable of a 90 pound/foot mooring chain compared to the length of the ground cable of a 19 pound/ft wire rope mooring line will be __________.

    a. indeterminable
    b. identical
    c. shorter
    d. longer
5731: Given the same water depth and line tension, the catenary length of a 19 pound/foot wire rope mooring line in comparison to the catenary length of a 90 pound/foot mooring chain will be __________.

    a. shorter
    b. longer
    c. identical
    d. indeterminable
5733: Given the same water depth and mooring tension, the length of the ground cable of a 19 pound/foot wire rope mooring line in comparison to a 90 pound/foot mooring chain will be __________.

    a. shorter
    b. identical
    c. longer
    d. indeterminable
5735: Given the same water depth and mooring tension, the holding power of a 90 pound/foot chain mooring system in comparison to the holding power of a 19 pound/foot wire rope mooring line will be __________.

    a. weaker
    b. greater
    c. equal
    d. indeterminable
5737: Given the same water depth and line tension, the holding power of a 19 pound/foot wire rope mooring system in comparison to the holding power of a 90 pound/foot chain mooring system will be __________.

    a. weaker
    b. equal
    c. greater
    d. indeterminable
5741: A device commonly used to secure the pendant wire when it is initially passed to an anchor handling vessel is __________.

    a. pelican hook
    b. connecting link
    c. shackle
    d. retaining hook
5743: The safest device used to secure the end of the pendant wire when it is initially passed to the anchor handling vessel is a __________.

    a. pelican hook
    b. hydraulic deck stopper
    c. connecting link
    d. shackle
5747: If the water depth is 500 feet, the length of the pendant wire from the anchor to the buoy is typically __________.

    a. 400 feet
    b. 500 feet
    c. 600 feet
    d. 1000 feet
5751: When piggybacking anchors, the distance between the primary anchor and the secondary anchor is determined by __________.

    a. bottom conditions
    b. anchor types
    c. water depth
    d. workboat winch capacity
5752: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0184

    a. Available GM 2.8 ft
    b. Available GM 3.2 ft
    c. Available GM 3.5 ft
    d. Available GM 3.8 ft
5753: The length of chain between the anchor and the end of the pendant line is called the __________.

    a. pigtail chain
    b. thrash chain
    c. crown chain
    d. wear chain
5755: Why are symmetric mooring patterns frequently used to keep MODU's on station?

    a. All lines contribute to the holding power of the mooring system.
    b. Environmental forces will probably vary in direction during the time the MODU is on station.
    c. Environmental forces will probably come from the same direction during the time the MODU is on station.
    d. Governmental regulations require this mooring pattern unless an exemption is issued.
5756: Your drafts are: FWD 21'-03", AFT 21'-09". What is the KM based on the tables in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book?

    a. 26.5 feet
    b. 26.3 feet
    c. 25.8 feet
    d. 25.5 feet
5757: What determines the minimum size of an anchor buoy?

    a. Environmental conditions
    b. Water depth
    c. Regulatory bodies
    d. Deck space on work boat
5763: What is the purpose of a chain stopper?

    a. Stops the chain during pay out
    b. Secures the chain after is has been stopped
    c. Stops off a 6 foot section for inspection
    d. Hydraulically cuts anchor chain
5765: Air gap is the vertical distance between the bottom of the hull and the __________.

    a. still water level
    b. wave crest
    c. wave crest plus the charted water depth and tidal corrections
    d. wave crest plus the charted water depth and tidal correction and storm surge
5767: A shepherd's crook is used to __________.

    a. lower spring buoys into the water
    b. find an anchor after the buoy has been lost
    c. transfer a pennant wire to the anchor handling boat
    d. clean chain as it is hauled into the rig
5771: A J-chaser is used to __________.

    a. transfer a pennant wire to the anchor handling vessel
    b. clean chain as it is hauled into the rig
    c. lower spring buoys into the water
    d. retrieve an anchor after the buoy has been lost
5781: In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the port bow of the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet water depth, the tensions in mooring line 1 and 2 are 400 kips. Completely slacking the mooring lines 5 and 6 reduces the tension in mooring lines 1 and 2 to about __________.

    a. 375 kips
    b. 330 kips
    c. 275 kips
    d. 220 kips
5783: In storm conditions in 600 feet of water, completely slacking the leeward mooring line of the DEEP DRILLER reduces the tension in that line to about __________.

    a. 25 kips
    b. 50 kips
    c. 75 kips
    d. 100 kips
5785: In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the port bow of the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet water depth, the offset is 9%. Completely slacking mooring lines 5 and 6 reduces the offset to __________.

    a. 6.5%
    b. 5.0%
    c. 2.5%
    d. 0.0%
5786: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0185

    a. Available GM 2.8 ft
    b. Available GM 3.2 ft
    c. Available GM 3.5 ft
    d. Available GM 3.8 ft
5787: In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the starboard bow of the DEEP DRILLER in 600 feet water depth, the offset is 8%. Completely slacking mooring lines 7 and 8 reduces the offset to __________.

    a. 6.5%
    b. 5.0%
    c. 2.5%
    d. 0.0%
5791: In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the port bow of the DEEP DRILLER in 400 feet water depth, the tensions in mooring lines 1 and 2 are 400 kips. Completely slacking the mooring lines 5 and 6 reduces the tension in mooring lines 1 and 2 to about __________.

    a. 375 kips
    b. 330 kips
    c. 275 kips
    d. 220 kips
5793: In storm conditions, with the wind and waves from the starboard bow of the DEEP DRILLER in 400 feet water depth, the offset is 7%. Completely slacking mooring lines 7 and 8 reduces the offset to __________.

    a. 6.5%
    b. 5.0%
    c. 4.0%
    d. 2.5%
5795: What is the length of the catenary when the DEEP DRILLER is anchored in 600 feet of water and the anchor line tension is 170 kips?

    a. 891 feet
    b. 1348 feet
    c. 1493 feet
    d. 1657 feet
5805: A permanent chain chasing system is used to __________.

    a. clean anchor chain as it's hauled in
    b. recover anchors which have lost their buoys
    c. run and retrieve anchors
    d. prepare anchor chain for inspection
5806: Damage stability is the stability __________.

    a. which exists when the wind speed is less than 50 knots
    b. before collision
    c. after flooding
    d. at the maximum load
5811: The unit used to measure anchor line tensions in the offshore drilling industry is the __________.

    a. long ton
    b. short ton
    c. metric ton
    d. Kip
5813: An ideal mooring system would be __________.

    a. symmetrical and in equilibrium
    b. asymmetrical and in flux
    c. distorted and in equilibrium
    d. concentric and in flux
5814: Your drafts are: FWD 18'-03", AFT 21'-09". What is the KM based on the tables in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book?

    a. 25.2 feet
    b. 25.6 feet
    c. 25.9 feet
    d. 26.3 feet
5815: What device is used to measure the force exerted on the rig by a leg of the mooring system?

    a. Advanced stability computer
    b. Hole position indicator
    c. Fathometer
    d. Load cell
5817: The two main types of load cells used in mooring tension gauges are __________.

    a. distortion and compression
    b. hydraulic and mechanical
    c. magnetic and applied torque
    d. frictionless and hydraulic
5821: Why should you preload a mooring system above your precalculated operating mooring tensions?

    a. This serves as a benchmark for increasing tensions in rough weather.
    b. This allows you to determine existing bottom conditions.
    c. This insures that the anchor cable is stretched out in a straight line.
    d. This tests all the components of your mooring equipment.
5823: Your semisubmersible drilling unit is moored on station and is experiencing winds from the north. What will be the effect if you increase the length of the anchor chains you have deployed to the north?

    a. It will increase your draft.
    b. It will increase your operating tensions.
    c. It will increase the holding power of those chains.
    d. It will significantly reduce your stability.
5824: The vertical distance between G and M is used as a measure of __________.

    a. stability at all angles of inclination
    b. initial stability
    c. stability at angles less than the limit of positive stability
    d. stability at angles less than the downflooding angle
5825: The tension on an anchor cable increases so that the angle of the catenary to the seabed at the anchor reaches 10 degrees. How will this affect the anchor in sandy soil?

    a. It will have no effect.
    b. It will increase the holding power.
    c. It will reduce the holding power.
    d. It will cause the anchor to snag.
5827: When a MODU is afloat in equilibrium, the horizontal component of mooring line tensions should equal __________.

    a. drilling forces
    b. weight forces
    c. buoyancy forces
    d. environmental forces
5835: The initial tension set in the mooring system of a MODU establishes the __________.

    a. maximum water depth at which drilling operations can be conducted
    b. distance the unit can be offset from the wellbore before the restoring forces oppose the environmental forces
    c. maximum time it will take to disconnect the riser package in the event of a storm
    d. minimum amount of ballast needed to keep the vessel at operating draft during normal drilling operations
5837: What could cause a significant difference between actual chain tension and the tension measured by the tensiometer?

    a. The type of anchor and mooring line being used
    b. The type of bottom in which the MODU is anchored
    c. A significant difference between air and water temperature
    d. The chain contacting a chock or fairlead between the tensiometer and the lower swivel fairlead
5845: Yawing can be described as __________.

    a. jumping on the tow line as the rig pitches
    b. jumping on the tow line as the rig slams into waves
    c. veering from side to side on the end of the tow line
    d. corkscrew motion due to wave action
5855: A mat-type drilling unit tows more slowly than a jack-up unit due to __________.

    a. the drag of the mat
    b. its deeper draft
    c. its tubular legs
    d. the design of the bow
5857: In towing it is desirable for the tug and the MODU to ride wave crests simultaneously because __________.

    a. shock loading on the tow line is reduced
    b. towing speed is improved
    c. the MODU is more visible from the tug
    d. the catenary of the tow line is reduced
5858: Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1.

    a. 1050 foot-tons
    b. 1065 foot-tons
    c. 1090 foot-tons
    d. 1130 foot-tons
5863: If a MODU under tow starts jumping on its tow line, the most appropriate action to alleviate the condition is to __________.

    a. change course
    b. slow down
    c. heave to
    d. adjust tow line length
5864: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0186

    a. Available GM 4.1 ft
    b. Available GM 4.3 ft
    c. Available GM 4.7 ft
    d. Available GM 5.1 ft
5871: The DEEP DRILLER is moored in 600 feet of water. The tension on anchor line #8 is 190 kips. What is the vertical component of chain tension for that line?

    a. 53.6 long tons
    b. 55.3 long tons
    c. 84.8 long tons
    d. 442.4 long tons
5883: In selecting a tug for moving a MODU, consideration should be given to its __________.

    a. indicated horsepower, bollard pull, and displacement
    b. indicated horsepower, maneuverability, and displacement
    c. indicated horsepower, bollard pull, and maneuverability
    d. bollard pull, displacement, and maneuverability
5893: The effect of ocean currents is usually more evident on a rig being towed than on a tug navigating independently because the __________.

    a. speed of the tow is less
    b. tow line catches the current
    c. current causes yawing
    d. current will offset the rig
5897: The type of shackle used in making up tow lines to a MODU should be __________.

    a. screw pin
    b. chain
    c. anchor
    d. safety
5898: What is the meaning of the signal VJ 8 when sent by the International Code of Signals?

    a. Winds of force 8 are expected.
    b. Low clouds cover 8 octants of the sky.
    c. You should stop hauling your warps.
    d. A gale is expected from the north.
5901: With a rig in tow, there is immediate danger to the tug in the event of the __________.

    a. tug losing power
    b. tow line parting
    c. bridle twisting
    d. rig broaching
5902: The most likely location for a liquid fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.

    a. the midships house
    b. at the vent header
    c. in the pumproom
    d. at the main deck
5903: The signal to man emergency stations on MODU's is __________.

    a. 30 seconds on/30 seconds off alternating signal
    b. continuous ringing of general alarm signal
    c. intermittent ringing of general alarm for not less than 10 seconds
    d. announced over PA system
5905: The signal for fire alarm on a MODU must be indicated __________.

    a. at each alarm bell
    b. at each alarm actuator
    c. near all exits
    d. on the Muster List ("Station Bill")
5907: The Muster List ("Station Bill") of a MODU must be signed by the __________.

    a. person in charge
    b. Coast Guard marine inspection officer
    c. company safety director
    d. entire crew
5911: What information must be entered on the MODU's muster list?

    a. Names of all crew members
    b. Use and application of special equipment
    c. Listing of approved emergency equipment
    d. Duties and station of each person during emergencies
5913: If uniformly distributed in the cantilever pipe rack of the COASTAL DRILLER, how much pipe can be placed in the cantilever pipe rack area when the cantilever has been extended 40 feet aft of the transom?

    a. 630 kips
    b. 609 kips
    c. 500 kips
    d. 479 kips
5914: On a vessel of 6500 tons displacement, a tank 35 ft. long, 25 ft. wide, and 8 ft. deep is half filled with liquid cargo (S.G. 1.053) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?

    a. 1152
    b. 1336
    c. 1371
    d. 16,036
5915: What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system on board an offshore rig?

    a. The fire pump
    b. Exposed hard piping
    c. The hydrant valve
    d. The fire hose
5917: What must be located on the discharge side of the pump in a fire main system?

    a. Pressure gauge
    b. Strainer
    c. Reduction valve
    d. International shore connection
5921: Multiple fire pumps may be used for other purposes provided that one pump is __________.

    a. on line to the fire main
    b. kept available for use on the fire main at all times
    c. capable of being connected to the fire main
    d. rated at or above 125 psi
5923: The relief valve on a fire pump is set at 25 psi above the pressure necessary to maintain required fire streams, or __________.

    a. 50 psi
    b. 75 psi
    c. 125 psi
    d. 150 psi
5924: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 13'-10", AFT 16'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0187

    a. 1.30 feet
    b. 1.07 foot
    c. 0.96 foot
    d. 0.73 foot
5925: When fire pumps are used for other than firefighting service, each pipe connecting the other service (except for branch lines used for deck washing) must have a __________.

    a. check valve installed in the line
    b. shut off valve at a manifold near the pump
    c. quick disconnect union within ten feet of the pump
    d. regulator in the line set at 125 psi
5927: A fire main system must have enough fire hydrants so that each accessible space may be sprayed with __________.

    a. a low velocity spray applicator
    b. a water spray or solid stream
    c. at least two spray patterns of water
    d. at least 25 psi delivered pressure
5931: If the charted water depth is 200 feet, the limits of service for the COASTAL DRILLER require an air gap of __________.

    a. 35 feet
    b. 32 feet
    c. 30 feet
    d. 25 feet
5933: Each fire hydrant must have at least one spanner and at least one __________.

    a. hose rack or reel
    b. all purpose nozzle
    c. foam applicator
    d. pick axe
5934: You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline should you give to indicate that you need help?

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
5935: The size of fire hydrant hose connections must be either 1-1/2 inches or __________.

    a. 1 inch
    b. 2-1/2 inches
    c. 3 inches
    d. 3-1/2 inches
5936: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0188

    a. Available GM 4.1 ft
    b. Available GM 4.3 ft
    c. Available GM 4.7 ft
    d. Available GM 5.1 ft
5941: Each fire hydrant serving machinery spaces containing oil fired boilers, internal combustion machinery, or oil fuel units must be equipped with a __________.

    a. fireman's outfit
    b. low-velocity spray applicator
    c. marine strainer
    d. pick axe
5945: Each part of the fire-main system located on an exposed deck must be __________.

    a. protected against freezing
    b. locked to prevent theft
    c. numbered sequentially
    d. pressurized at all times
5946: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 25'-11", AFT 26'-11". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 83 tons of seawater.

    a. FWD 26'-05.6", AFT 26'-07.5"
    b. FWD 26'-06.2", AFT 26'-06.9"
    c. FWD 26'-06.8", AFT 26'-06.3"
    d. FWD 26'-07.7", AFT 26'-05.4"
5947: Each fire hose coupling on a MODU must have threads that meet the specifications of the __________.

    a. American Petroleum Institute
    b. National Standard Fire hose Coupling
    c. American Society of Mechanical Engineers
    d. Underwriter's Laboratories, Inc.
5951: Control valves of a CO2 system may be located within the protected space when __________.

    a. it is impractical to locate them outside
    b. there is also a control valve outside
    c. the CO2 cylinders are also in the space
    d. an automatic heat-sensing trip is installed
5953: The stamped full weight of a 100 lb. CO2 bottle is 314 lbs. What is the minimum weight of the bottle before it has to be recharged?

    a. 282 lbs.
    b. 294 lbs.
    c. 300 lbs.
    d. 304 lbs.
5955: After using a CO2 extinguisher on a MODU, it should be __________.

    a. put back in service if some CO2 remains
    b. hydrostatically tested
    c. retagged
    d. recharged
5957: On a MODU, a CO2 extinguisher is checked by __________.

    a. reading the gage pressure
    b. weighing the extinguisher
    c. discharging a small amount of CO2
    d. seeing if the seal has been broken
5958: You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline should you give to indicate that you are advancing?

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
5961: A CO2 extinguisher on a MODU which has lost 10% of its charge must be __________.

    a. used at the earliest opportunity
    b. hydro-tested
    c. recharged
    d. weighed again in one month
5962: Your drafts are: FWD 25'-09", AFT 28'-03". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the location of the center of flotation relative to amidships.

    a. 2.6 feet forward
    b. 2.1 feet forward
    c. at the center of flotation
    d. 0.8 foot aft
5963: On a MODU, CO2 extinguishers must be weighed __________.

    a. monthly
    b. quarterly
    c. semiannually
    d. annually

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