Safety 2



These pages contains all possible questions which might be thrown at you in the "Safety" module exam.  When you go in for your exam, your test questions will be selected from the list below.



1548: You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your vessel. One of your FIRST actions should be to __________.

    a. take measures to maintain morale
    b. prepare and use radio equipment
    c. identify the person in charge of liferaft
    d. search for survivors
1549: You are sailing in a strong wind and may accidentally jibe when __________.

    a. reaching
    b. tacking
    c. running-free
    d. in irons
1550: The purpose of a water spray system on a covered lifeboat is to __________.

    a. cool the lifeboat engine
    b. keep the lifeboat from reaching combustion temperature while operating in a fire
    c. keep the lifeboat warm in a cold climate by applying heated water spray from the engine to the boat
    d. put out a fire inside the lifeboat
1551: On inspected cargo vessels, each fire station is required to be fitted with a hose which has a nominal diameter of __________.

    a. 1-1/2 or 2-1/2 inches
    b. 2 or 3 inches
    c. 2-1/2 or 3-1/2 inches
    d. 3 or 4 inches
1552: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND A sailing vessel must keep course and speed when __________.

    a. being overtaken
    b. to windward of another sailing vessel
    c. to leeward of another sailing vessel
    d. crossing a vessel engaged in fishing
1554: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 32'-04", AFT 34'-02". The KG is 31.5 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).

    a. 3.4°
    b. 4.7°
    c. 6.4°
    d. 7.9°
1555: Seawater may be used for drinking __________.

    a. at a maximum rate of two ounces per day
    b. after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water
    c. if gathered during or immediately after a hard rain
    d. under no conditions
1556: Which fire extinguishing agent has the greatest capacity for absorbing heat?

    a. Water
    b. Foam
    c. Dry chemical
    d. Carbon Dioxide
1557: When a sea anchor for a lifeboat is properly rigged, it will __________.

    a. completely stop the lifeboat from drifting
    b. help to prevent broaching
    c. prevent the lifeboat from pitching
    d. None of the above
1558: A Halon 1301 cylinder is periodically tested for weight loss and pressure loss. What minimum percentage of the full pressure can be lost before the cylinder must be recharged?

    a. 3%
    b. 5%
    c. 10%
    d. 15%
1560: The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a liferaft is to __________.

    a. assist in sleeping
    b. reduce appetite by decreasing nausea
    c. prevent loss of body moisture by vomiting
    d. prevent impaired judgment due to motion-induced deliriousness
1561: Which is NOT a mandatory part of the shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?

    a. Reporting requirements
    b. Diagrams
    c. Steps to control a discharge
    d. National and local coordination
1562: Drinking salt water will __________.

    a. protect against heat camps
    b. prevent seasickness
    c. be safe if mixed with fresh water
    d. dehydrate you
1563: Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft?

    a. The person in charge
    b. An approved servicing facility
    c. Shipyard personnel
    d. A certificated lifeboatman
1564: Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry-chemical cartridge-operated portable fire extinguisher?

    a. Insure the chemical is powdery.
    b. Replace the cartridge.
    c. Pressure test the discharge hose.
    d. Test the pressure gauge for proper operation.
1565: What correctly expresses the time of 1122 (ZD +6) on 6 April 1981, for use in an AMVER report?

    a. 061722Z
    b. 06 1122 ZD+6
    c. G1722 06APR81
    d. 1122Z6 06APR
1566: CO2 extinguishes a fire by __________.

    a. cooling
    b. smothering
    c. chemical action
    d. All of the above
1567: Your vessel is carrying 84,000 barrels of oil for discharge. The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of 14 inches. When four hoses are connected to the manifold, the container around the manifold must hold a total of how many barrels?

    a. Three
    b. Four
    c. Twelve
    d. Sixteen
1568: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 2464 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.3 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0042

    a. KG 27.0 feet
    b. KG 27.8 feet
    c. KG 28.6 feet
    d. KG 29.8 feet
1569: Which list is NOT required to be provided as part of the appendices of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?

    a. A list of agencies or officials of Coastal State Administrators responsible for receiving and processing incident reports.
    b. A list of agencies or officials in regularly visited ports.
    c. A list specifying who will be responsible for informing the parties listed and the priority in which they must be notified.
    d. A list of personnel duty assignments.
1570: Which is a mandatory section of the shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?

    a. Reporting requirements
    b. Removal equipment list
    c. Planned exercises
    d. List of individuals required to respond
1571: A Halon 1301 cylinder is periodically tested for weight loss and pressure loss. It must be recharged if it has lost more than what minimum percentage of its weight?

    a. 3%
    b. 5%
    c. 10%
    d. 15%
1571: A Halon 1301 cylinder is periodically tested for weight loss and pressure loss. It must be recharged if it has lost more than what minimum percentage of its weight?

    a. 3%
    b. 5%
    c. 10%
    d. 15%
1572: Your fishing vessel operates more than 25 miles from the coastline on the Great Lakes. Which distress signal is NOT required to be on board?

    a. 3 red parachute flares
    b. 6 red hand flares
    c. 1 electric distress light
    d. 3 orange smoke signals
1573: The searchlight on a survival craft must be capable of operating 3 hours continuously or 6 hours intermittently if operated in cycles of __________.

    a. 5 minutes on and 10 minutes off
    b. 10 minutes on and 5 minutes off
    c. 15 minutes on and 5 minutes off
    d. 15 minutes on and 10 minutes off
1575: Foam extinguishes a fire by __________.

    a. smothering the burning material
    b. chemical combination with burning material
    c. absorbing the burning material
    d. organic destruction of the burning material
1576: What is the minimum number of bolts required in a permanently connected flange oil hose coupling?

    a. A bolt must be used in every hole.
    b. 6
    c. 4
    d. 3
1577: What is the minimum number of bolts required in a temporary bolted flange oil hose coupling?

    a. 3
    b. 4
    c. 6
    d. A bolt must be used in every hole.
1578: You may not act as person-in-charge of oil transfer operations on more than one vessel at a time __________.

    a. under any circumstances
    b. unless authorized by the Captain of the Port
    c. unless radio communication is set up between the vessels
    d. unless the vessels are moored clear of all docks
1579: During oil transfer operations, who is responsible for ensuring that the posted transfer procedures are followed?

    a. The designated person in charge
    b. The tankerman
    c. The senior able seaman
    d. The oiler
1580: Which statement is TRUE concerning the placard entitled "Discharge of Oil Prohibited"?

    a. It is required on all vessels.
    b. It is only required in the wheelhouse.
    c. It may be located at the bilge and ballast pump control station.
    d. All of the above
1581: When using the oxygen indicator, which reaction from the needle should you expect as a sample is drawn into the instrument?

    a. Rise to the correct reading and then, slowly fall to zero as the oxygen in the sample is consumed
    b. Move back and forth and finally stabilize at the correct reading after about 10 seconds
    c. Rise to the correct reading immediately and then rise slowly to a false reading as the operating temperature increases
    d. Slowly rise to the correct reading and then remain stationary
1582: You are off the coast of South Africa, when a seaman is injured. What indicator should be used in a message requesting medical advice from a South African station?

    a. DH MEDICO
    b. XXX RADIOMEDICAL
    c. MEDRAD
    d. PORT HEALTH
1583: You are having a Coast Guard inspection. All carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard will be __________.

    a. weighed
    b. discharged and recharged
    c. checked for pressure loss
    d. sent ashore to an approved service facility
1583: You are having a Coast Guard inspection. All carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard will be __________.

    a. weighed
    b. discharged and recharged
    c. checked for pressure loss
    d. sent ashore to an approved service facility
1584: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the port side is designated as boat number __________.

    a. 6
    b. 5
    c. 3
    d. 3 PORT
1585: Up to two thirds of a survival crafts required drinking water may be produced by a manually-powered reverse osmosis desalinator if it can be done in __________.

    a. 12 hours
    b. 1 day
    c. 2 days
    d. 4 days
1586: The success of an indirect attack on a fire depends on the __________.

    a. size of the fire when initially observed
    b. complete containment of the fire
    c. cooling ability of the firefighting agent
    d. class of the fire
1588: How should longitude 119°16.7'E be written when preparing an AMVER report?

    a. 11917E
    b. Q193
    c. 119.3°E
    d. 119E
1589: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3284 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 26.4 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0043

    a. KG 25.0 feet
    b. KG 25.5 feet
    c. KG 26.1 feet
    d. KG 26.7 feet
1591: You discharge garbage overboard at sea. When recording your vessel's position as required, you must include __________.

    a. latitude, longitude, and approximate depth of water
    b. latitude, longitude, and estimated distance from shore
    c. latitude and longitude only
    d. latitude, longitude, course, speed, and a copy of that days noon position slip
1592: A vessel has a cargo hold divided by a shaft alley into two tanks, each 35 feet long and 20 feet wide. Each tank is half filled with sea water. The vessel displaces 5,000 tons. The reduction in GM due to free surface effect is __________.

    a. .27 foot
    b. .30 foot
    c. .31 foot
    d. .33 foot
1593: When launching an open lifeboat by falls, the boathooks should be __________.

    a. secured forward and aft where readily available
    b. secured amidships where they will not hinder the personnel
    c. used for fending off
    d. used for picking up survivors in the water
1594: Which statement is TRUE concerning buoyant work vests aboard tank vessels?

    a. They may be worn while working on deck but not while working over the side.
    b. They must be used only under supervision of a designated ship's officer.
    c. They will be accepted for up to 10% of the required life preservers.
    d. They may be worn during drills.
1596: By regulation, orange smoke distress signals will expire not more than how many months from the date of manufacture?

    a. 24 months
    b. 36 months
    c. 42 months
    d. 54 months
1597: Which characteristic is an advantage of Halon as a fire extinguishing medium?

    a. Electrically non-conductive
    b. Relatively inexpensive
    c. Effective against chemicals containing an oxidizer
    d. All of the above
1598: On board a small passenger vessel connections to electric conductors MUST be __________.

    a. made within enclosures
    b. served and parceled
    c. installed only by a licensed marine electrician
    d. Be inspected annually
1599: All self-propelled vessels on an international voyage must be equipped with how many Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacons (EPIRB)?

    a. One approved Category 1 EPIRB
    b. Three approved Category 1 EPIRBs
    c. One approved Class B EPIRB
    d. Two approved Class B EPIRBs
1600: You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a dangerous cargo. You must complete topside repairs involving hot work before sailing. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

    a. You can make repairs with permission of the facility owner since you are empty and the cargo is on the facility.
    b. The repair area must be inspected by a marine surveyor to ensure that it can be done safely.
    c. Hot work repairs at such a facility are prohibited.
    d. The Captain of the Port may give specific approval to make hot work repairs.
1601: Channel 13 is primarily used for ship to ship communication. Channel 13 is also authorized for __________.

    a. coast to aircraft operational communications
    b. aircraft to ship operational communications
    c. lock & bridge communications
    d. aircraft to ship navigational communications
1603: During loading and discharging operations, in addition to when the cargo tanks have been properly filled, each inert gas system must be capable of maintaining a minimum gas pressure of __________.

    a. 150 millimeters of water pressure
    b. 125 millimeters of water pressure
    c. 100 millimeters of water pressure
    d. 75 millimeters of water pressure
1605: What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report?

    a. MD
    b. MT
    c. PA
    d. NURSE
1607: A bilge suction line, in a fishing vessel with more than 16 individuals aboard, must have a strainer with an open area not less than how many times the open area of the suction line?

    a. one
    b. two
    c. three
    d. four
1608: Cold water, in commercial fishing, means water where the monthly mean low water temperature is normally __________.

    a. 39°Fahrenheit or less
    b. 44°Fahrenheit or less
    c. 49°Fahrenheit or less
    d. 59°Fahrenheit or less
1609: Line throwing equipment should NOT be operated __________.

    a. during a rain storm
    b. near a lifeboat station
    c. in an explosive atmosphere
    d. by other than licensed officers
1610: An "ABC" dry chemical fire extinguisher would be LEAST effective against a fire in __________.

    a. a mattress
    b. spilled liquids such as oil or paint
    c. high voltage electrical gear
    d. a trash can
1611: How should longitude 116°54.9'E be written when preparing an AMVER report?

    a. Q1169
    b. 116.9E
    c. 11655E
    d. 117E
1612: Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry-chemical cartridge-operated portable fire extinguisher?

    a. Test the pressure gauge for correct reading.
    b. Weigh the cartridge.
    c. Replace the dry chemical.
    d. Pressure test the discharge hose.
1613: Steering a motor lifeboat broadside to the sea could cause it to __________.

    a. capsize
    b. run smoother
    c. run faster
    d. sink
1614: You may have to give artificial respiration after a/an __________.

    a. drowning
    b. electrocution
    c. poisoning
    d. All of the above
1615: When administering artificial respiration, it is MOST important to __________.

    a. monitor blood pressure
    b. clear airways
    c. use the rhythmic pressure method
    d. know all approved methods
1617: When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will __________.

    a. be wetter
    b. be lighter
    c. be more heat resistant
    d. not cling to vertical surfaces
1618: Which characteristic of Halon is a disadvantage when it is used as a fire extinguishing medium?

    a. Leaves a residue
    b. Cost, relative to other agents
    c. Breaks down while under prolonged storage
    d. Conducts electricity
1619: A conscious victim who has suffered a blow to the head has symptoms that indicate the possibility of concussion. If the patient feels no indication of neck or spine injury, recommended treatment would include __________.

    a. turning the victim's head to the side to keep his airway open
    b. positioning the victim so the head is lower than the body
    c. giving the victim water if he is thirsty, but no food
    d. elevating the head and shoulders slightly with a pillow
1620: One disadvantage of using regular dry chemical (sodium bicarbonate) in firefighting is that __________.

    a. it can break down under high heat and emit noxious fumes
    b. it will decompose under prolonged storage and lose its effectiveness
    c. fire has been known to flash back over the surface of an oil fire
    d. it is ineffective in fighting fires in high-voltage electrical equipment
1621: Why is spare fire hose rolled for storage?

    a. Water in the hose is forced out the end in the rolling process.
    b. The threads on the male end are protected by the hose.
    c. Rolling provides maximum protection against entry of foreign objects into the couplings.
    d. Rolling provides maximum protection to the outer covering of the hose.
1622: You are preparing to take another vessel in tow. Which signal indicates, "Hawser is made fast"?

    a. Firing of a green star signal
    b. Firing of a red star signal
    c. An orange smoke signal
    d. Three white star rockets at 1-minute intervals
1624: A sail plan, including the vessel's itinerary, name, number, and persons aboard, should be filed with __________.

    a. the FAA
    b. the Coast Guard
    c. U.S. Customs
    d. a responsible person
1625: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.

    a. immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary
    b. make the victim comfortable in a bunk
    c. administer oxygen
    d. immediately start CPR
1626: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.

    a. administer oxygen
    b. immediately check his pulse and start CPR
    c. make the victim comfortable in a bunk
    d. immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary
1627: The canvas covering of fire hose is called the __________.

    a. casing
    b. outer hose
    c. line cover
    d. jacket
1628: You are running before a rough sea and a strong wind. Your sailing vessel is yawing. If the wind should catch the mainsail on the reverse side you will __________.

    a. broach
    b. tack
    c. jibe
    d. go in irons
1629: Which statement is TRUE about fire fighting foam?

    a. The air bubbles in foam act as an insulator in fighting a class C fire.
    b. The effectiveness of foam in forming a blanket over a burning liquid increases as the temperature of the liquid increases.
    c. Foam can be used to control gases escaping from compressed gas cylinders.
    d. Foam sets up a vapor barrier over a flammable liquid preventing flammable gases from rising.
1630: A deck-stowed 40-foot container is giving off smoke, and one end is discolored from heat. The cargo is valuable and easily damaged by water. You want to extinguish the fire without further damage if possible. What action should you take?

    a. Connect a portable line from the ship's fixed system and discharge CO2 into the container.
    b. Flood the container with water and disregard any cargo damage as the fire threatens the entire vessel.
    c. Pierce the container and discharge 6 or more portable CO2's then add more CO2 hourly.
    d. Cool the exterior of the container with water and close all vents; then keep it cooled until it can be off-loaded.
1632: When joining the female coupling of the fire hose to the male outlet of the hydrant, you should make sure that the __________.

    a. threads are lubricated
    b. nozzle is attached to the hose
    c. female coupling has a gasket
    d. hose is led out
1633: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 18'-07", AFT 19'-05". The KG is 33.6 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).

    a. 4.0°
    b. 7.1°
    c. 8.0°
    d. 9.5°
1634: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.

    a. close all openings to the area
    b. shut off all electrical power
    c. remove combustibles from direct exposure
    d. cool the bulkhead around the fire
1635: Which firefighting method is an example of an indirect attack on a fire?

    a. Bouncing a straight stream of water off the overhead to create spray effect
    b. Spraying foam on a bulkhead and letting it flow down and over a pool of burning oil
    c. Flooding a paint locker with CO2 and sealing the compartment
    d. Cooling adjacent bulkheads with water to prevent the spread of the fire by conduction
1636: How should latitude 54°18.9'N be written when preparing an AMVER report?

    a. 54.3N
    b. 0543N
    c. 5419N
    d. 54°N
1637: Which is a disadvantage of Halon as a fire extinguishing medium?

    a. Conducts electricity
    b. Difficult to store
    c. Large volume necessary to be effective
    d. Ineffective in powdered metal fires
1639: What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report?

    a. NONE
    b. NURSE
    c. MD
    d. DOCTOR
1640: A Halon 1301 cylinder contains 100 pounds of liquid at 360 psi. It must be recharged when the weight drops below how many pounds of liquid?

    a. 90
    b. 92
    c. 95
    d. 98
1641: The most serious effect of air trapped in a non-treated diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it __________.

    a. causes corrosion
    b. reduces the ability of the system to cool the engine
    c. can form pockets which block the flow of coolant through the system
    d. accelerates formation of metal plating
1642: The Master or person in charge on a MODU shall insure that line throwing equipment is not operated __________.

    a. during a rain storm
    b. in an explosive atmosphere
    c. near a lifeboat station
    d. by other than senior rig personnel
1643: On a MODU with lifeboats stowed in two different locations, if all the lifeboats are lost in one location then the remaining lifeboats must accommodate what percentage of the persons permitted on board?

    a. 50%
    b. 75%
    c. 90%
    d. 100%
1644: Which topic is NOT required to be discussed at the pre-transfer conference?

    a. Identity of the product to be transferred
    b. Details of transferring and receiving systems
    c. Emergency shutdown procedures
    d. Estimated time of finishing cargo
1645: On a MODU, each emergency generator must be tested at least once each __________.

    a. week
    b. month
    c. three months
    d. six months
1647: Electrical wiring on all "T-Boats" must be __________.

    a. concealed to prevent mechanical damage
    b. concealed so the boat can be maintained more easily
    c. protected from the weather
    d. in an accessible place behind the ceiling
1649: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the __________.

    a. true wind velocity increases
    b. heeling moment decreases
    c. side slip decreases
    d. jib sheet must be hardened up
1650: When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will __________.

    a. be drier
    b. be heavier
    c. be more heat resistant
    d. not cling to vertical surfaces
1652: An inland oil barge must have equipment available to remove an on-deck oil spill of at least __________.

    a. one barrel
    b. two barrels
    c. five barrels
    d. ten barrels
1653: Before operating a non-oceangoing ship greater than 100 gross tons it must have a fixed piping system to discharge oily mixtures ashore. This system must include __________.

    a. approved oil-water separating equipment
    b. a fixed or portable containment system at the shore connection
    c. a spare pump in case the main pump is inoperative
    d. at least one outlet accessible from the weather deck
1654: You are operating a ship greater than 400 gross tons. You are NOT permitted to carry oil or hazardous materials in a(n) __________.

    a. forepeak tank
    b. after peak tank
    c. deep tank
    d. on-deck portable tank
1655: Which space(s) on your cargo vessel must have a fire detection system?

    a. Any compartment containing explosives
    b. Any compartment adjacent to one containing explosives
    c. Enclosed spaces which are "specially suitable for vehicles"
    d. All of the above
1659: You have berthed in a port area with other tank vessels. What signal is displayed by a vessel to indicate it is transferring flammable or combustible liquid cargo?

    a. A flashing yellow light
    b. A red light visible all around the horizon
    c. A green light visible all around the horizon
    d. An illuminated red and yellow caution flag
1660: If the meter needle of the oxygen indicator cannot be set to zero, what should be done?

    a. Replace the batteries.
    b. Check the sampling tube for blockage.
    c. Adjust the final reading by the amount the needle is displaced from zero.
    d. Replace the platinum filament.
1661: What is the maximum number of crew members that may be berthed in one room aboard your cargo vessel?

    a. Two
    b. Four
    c. Six
    d. Eight
1662: By regulation, your cargo vessel must have __________.

    a. sufficient facilities for the crew to wash their clothes
    b. a wash basin in each room
    c. separate toilet facilities for engineers where their number exceeds six
    d. All of the above
1663: Which tank barges require draft marks?

    a. All tank barges
    b. Tank barges over 50 GT
    c. Tank barges over 100 GT
    d. Notch barges over 1000 GT
1664: The number of fire extinguishers required on an uninspected "motor vessel" is based on the vessel's __________.

    a. length
    b. gross tonnage
    c. draft
    d. crew list
1665: Which statement about stowing spare hose is TRUE?

    a. Fold the hose so that the male coupling is about 4 feet from the female coupling, then roll it up.
    b. Roll the hose starting at the female end.
    c. Roll the hose starting at the male end.
    d. Fold the hose into lengths about 6 feet long and then lash the folds together.
1666: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 10'-04", AFT 14'-08". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0045

    a. 1.91 feet
    b. 2.09 feet
    c. 2.21 feet
    d. 2.48 feet
1667: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.

    a. immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary
    b. make the victim comfortable in a bunk
    c. immediately start CPR
    d. administer oxygen
1668: What is the report identifier code for an AMVER deviation report?

    a. DV
    b. PR
    c. FR
    d. DR
1669: You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should __________.

    a. switch the EPIRB to the homing signal mode
    b. use the voice transmission capability of the EPIRB to guide the aircraft to your raft
    c. turn on the strobe light on the top of the EPIRB
    d. use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB
1672: Which of the following would be considered downflooding on a fishing vessel as defined in regulation?

    a. Vessel heels until water enters a hatch.
    b. Vessel in collision floods through a damaged area above the waterline.
    c. Vessel takes on water due to the hatches being left open in heavy rain.
    d. Vessel takes on water by the propeller shaft due to failure of the stern gland.
1673: In commercial fishing, "cold water" means water where the monthly mean low water temperature is normally __________.

    a. 39°Fahrenheit or less
    b. 44°Fahrenheit or less
    c. 49°Fahrenheit or less
    d. 59°Fahrenheit or less
1674: You are requisitioning stores for your tank vessel. What type of matches are permitted aboard?

    a. Phosphorous
    b. Safety
    c. Self-extinguishing
    d. Wooden
1675: What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report?

    a. MED TECH
    b. MD
    c. NONE
    d. NURSE
1676: Before you start an engine in a compartment, it's MOST important to __________.

    a. check the flame arrester
    b. check the fuel tank
    c. check the battery
    d. ventilate the bilges
1677: After an engine is started you should __________.

    a. increase engine speed to insure adequate flow of oil to all parts of the engine
    b. pay no attention unless there are unusual noises from the engine
    c. check operating pressures and temperatures, and check for leaks
    d. run the engine at idle until the temperature has increased
1678: Your vessel is 79 feet long with 20 people aboard. The coaming of a deck above the lowest weather deck (except an exposed forecastle deck) must be at least __________.

    a. 6" high
    b. 12" high
    c. 24" high
    d. Not required
1679: You are on a 92 foot fishing vessel with 35 individuals on board. Which one of the following items are you NOT required to have on board?

    a. Gyro compass
    b. Magnetic compass
    c. Electronic position fixing device
    d. VHF radiotelephone
1680: In an open lifeboat, the lifeboat compass is usually __________.

    a. placed in a fixed bracket when being used
    b. clamped to any position convenient for the coxswain to see it
    c. permanently mounted on the lifeboat's centerline
    d. mounted in the center of the boat to eliminate deviation
1681: An LWT anchor often has difficulty tripping in __________.

    a. sand
    b. soft soil
    c. stiff clay
    d. heterogeneous soil
1682: Which radio call-in plan is the most prudent?

    a. There must be a designated responsible person who will be available to receive your call at anytime.
    b. There must be specific instructions for the designated responsible person to follow if your call does not come in on schedule.
    c. The designated responsible person must be instructed to call the Coast Guard search and rescue authorities immediately if your call does not come in on schedule.
    d. The designated responsible person should be over 18 years of age.
1683: You are running before a strong wind in a sloop. The most dangerous thing to do is __________.

    a. jibe
    b. tack about
    c. reef the mainsail
    d. strike the jib
1684: You are sailing before the wind in heavy weather. The failure of what will affect the vessel's safety most?

    a. The main halyard
    b. The jib sheet
    c. The helm
    d. The outhaul
1685: A storm is forecast for the area where your vessel is moored. For its safety you should put __________.

    a. more slack in the mooring lines
    b. a strain on the mooring lines
    c. chafing gear on the mooring lines
    d. grease on the mooring lines
1686: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2300 brake horsepower?

    a. 2
    b. 3
    c. 4
    d. 5
1687: The old sailors admonition "Beware the lee shore" warns of the danger due to __________.

    a. the wind blowing stronger at this location
    b. the ground swell making it difficult to tack off
    c. the current flowing directly on shore
    d. there being less wind in the lee of the shore
1688: Each commercial fishing vessel must have at least one immersion suit, exposure suit, or life preserver for each __________.

    a. person aboard
    b. person working on deck
    c. crew member
    d. None of the above are correct.
1689: You must pick up an individual who has fallen overboard from a sailboat. The final approach should be __________.

    a. upwind
    b. downwind
    c. on a close reach
    d. on a broad reach
1690: The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the footings of a lifeboat are painted which color?

    a. International orange
    b. Yellow
    c. White
    d. Red
1691: When anchoring a small sailing vessel in rough weather, the best anchor line would be composed of __________.

    a. chain-wire
    b. chain-manila
    c. chain-nylon
    d. all chain
1692: You are preparing for what promises to be a rough ocean passage. Your 120-foot schooner carries a yard on the foremast, about 50 feet above the water. The yard weighs about 1000 pounds. If you take the yard down and stow it on deck for the trip, you will __________.

    a. increase your vessel's GM
    b. decrease the metacentric height
    c. give the vessel a gentler roll
    d. increase the reserve buoyancy
1693: Every different type of sailing rig can be dangerous in certain circumstances. Which situation would most likely be dangerous?

    a. A gaff rig is dangerous in a calm wind and sea.
    b. A gaff rig is dangerous in a calm wind and large swell.
    c. A square rig, such as a ship rig, is dangerous to jibe.
    d. A tall, marconi, sloop rig is dangerous to tack.
1694: When repairing a torn sail at sea, you should __________.

    a. use perfectly aligned stitches in old sail cloth so as to get the strain properly aligned
    b. avoid using glued patches on old sail cloth
    c. be sure to orient the weave of the patch material, on large patches, in the same orientation as the sail cloth being repaired
    d. All of the above
1695: In order to prevent galvanic corrosion, an aluminum boat must be insulated from the davits and gripes. Which of the following is acceptable as an insulator?

    a. Hard rubber
    b. Canvas
    c. Leather
    d. Sponge rubber
1696: Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE?

    a. Polyester sailcloth, such as Dacron, is resistant to rot due to moisture but susceptible to UV degradation and should be kept covered as much as possible.
    b. Canvas sailcloth is susceptible to rot due to moisture and should never be covered when wet.
    c. Kevlar sail cloth is susceptible to weakening due to repeated folding and therefore should be draped loosely over the boom when stowed.
    d. All of the above are true.
1698: To prevent a wooden hull from leaking you caulk it __________.

    a. after dry docking, while the hull is moist
    b. after dry docking, and the hull has dried
    c. afloat, where it is leaking
    d. afloat, in all accessible areas
1699: On small sailing vessels, the PRIMARY reason for using nylon in a combination chain-nylon anchor line is to __________.

    a. provide elasticity
    b. increase the strength
    c. reduce the cost
    d. reduce the weight
1700: How often must the impulse-projected line throwing appliance be test fired?

    a. Monthly
    b. At the Master's discretion
    c. Semiannually
    d. Annually
1701: Movement of liquid in a tank when a vessel inclines causes an increase in __________.

    a. righting arm
    b. metacentric height
    c. height of the uncorrected KG
    d. natural rolling period
1702: You are sailing at 8 knots on a beam reach in an apparent wind of 25 knots. Which statement is TRUE?

    a. The true wind is a little abaft your beam, at just under 25 knots.
    b. The apparent wind at the top of your mast will be slightly stronger than 25 knots and slightly farther forward than the wind at deck level.
    c. If you turn to a close reach, the apparent wind will reduce in strength.
    d. None of the above are true.
1703: With regard to aerodynamic lift, which statement is TRUE?

    a. If the thrust on a sail becomes excessive when close-hauled, it is likely to capsize the vessel rather than drive it.
    b. When a sail is trimmed too tight, turbulence will break out on the windward side of the sail and cause a telltale there to flutter.
    c. A properly trimmed sail should have laminar flow on the windward side and turbulent flow on the leeward side.
    d. Adjusting the angle of attack on a mainsail is accomplished by adjusting the outhaul or the vang, if fitted.
1704: Which statement is TRUE about sail shape?

    a. A high-aspect ratio marconi mainsail is more efficient for downwind sailing than a gaff-rigged mainsail.
    b. You should put more belly in a sail in light airs than in a strong breeze.
    c. You can reduce the belly in a boomed mainsail by easing the sheet.
    d. You can move the belly up in a mainsail by easing the luff tension.
1705: How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks?

    a. De-energizes the "charged mist" effect.
    b. Maintains a positive pressure on the vent header to cool the flammable vapors.
    c. Inert gas filters out the flammable vapors from the cargo tank spaces.
    d. Inert gas dilutes the flammable vapor and air concentrations to keep them below the lower explosive limit.
1706: The major lift-producing part of a sail is the __________.

    a. leading edge
    b. trailing edge
    c. head
    d. foil
1707: Your 40-foot auxiliary sailing vessel has just run aground on a bar. She has a relatively long, deep keel and the tide is falling. You have checked the bilges for damage and found none. Which is the most prudent action to take immediately?

    a. Sheet the sails in flat to try to heel her over with the wind and sail off.
    b. Start the engine and run it hard in forward to try to drive over and off the bar.
    c. Strike the sails. Then run a kedge anchor out to one side, hook the main halyard to it, and heave the boat down onto one side.
    d. Take soundings visually, by sounding pole, or lead line all around the vessel to locate the deepest water.
1708: A chemical additive to LPG gives it a characteristic __________.

    a. odor
    b. color
    c. pressure
    d. density
1709: Why is gas-freeing rarely required for LPG cargo tanks?

    a. LPG is compatible with all cargos.
    b. LPG's high oxygen content makes it nonvolatile.
    c. Cargo tanks are inspected less frequently than on oil tankers.
    d. The cargo tanks are used for one type of cargo only.
1711: Which precaution should be taken when testing a line throwing gun?

    a. Never remove the line from the rocket.
    b. Fire it at an angle of approximately 90 degrees to the horizon.
    c. Wear asbestos gloves.
    d. All of the above
1712: The gross weight of a fully charged CO2 cylinder is 80 lbs. When the bottle is empty it weighs 60 lbs. What is the minimum acceptable gross weight of the CO2 bottle before it should be recharged by the manufacturer?

    a. 55 lbs
    b. 68 lbs
    c. 78 lbs
    d. 82 lbs
1713: Line throwing equipment should NOT be operated __________.

    a. during a rain storm
    b. in an explosive atmosphere
    c. near a liferaft canister
    d. by other than licensed officers
1715: After allowing for pressure losses, the pressure-volume capacity of an inert gas blower must be able to maintain a pressure, in any cargo tank, at a minimum of __________.

    a. 50 millimeters of water pressure
    b. 100 millimeters of water pressure
    c. 150 millimeters of water pressure
    d. 200 millimeters of water pressure
1717: An inert gas system on a tanker should be used to __________.

    a. prevent the generation of flammable or combustible gas in tanks
    b. blow out cargo lines to prevent the build up of gas concentrations
    c. dilute tank atmospheres to keep gas concentrations below the lower explosive limit
    d. prevent fires in the pumproom by continually displacing flammable vapors
1718: You wish to communicate information that the swell in your area is 8-10 feet in height and from the northeast. This swell, as defined in the International Code of Signals, would be described as __________.

    a. rough
    b. moderate
    c. high
    d. confused
1720: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.

    a. 6
    b. 5
    c. 3
    d. 3 STARBOARD
1721: An inert gas system is designed to reduce the possibility of tank explosions by __________.

    a. eliminating sparks and fire in the vicinity of cargo tanks
    b. removing all hydrocarbon gases from the cargo tanks
    c. blanketing cargo tanks with inert foam
    d. reducing the oxygen concentration below levels necessary for combustion
1722: Where are remote readouts for oxygen concentration, pressure, and temperature of an inert gas system required to be located?

    a. Bridge and engine control consoles
    b. Bridge and tank(s) being inerted
    c. Main deck and engine control consoles
    d. Cargo control and engine control consoles
1723: The regulations that were passed to implement MARPOL 73/78 concerning oil pollution apply to a U.S. flag vessel that sails on which waters?

    a. Inland waters only
    b. Great Lakes only
    c. International waters
    d. All of the above
1725: The most effective treatment for warming a crew member suffering from hypothermia is __________.

    a. running or jumping to increase circulation
    b. raising body temperature rapidly by placing hands and feet in hot water
    c. bundling the body in blankets to rewarm gradually
    d. laying prone under heat lamps to rewarm rapidly
1727: Which method is used to supply inert gas from a flue gas system to the cargo tanks?

    a. Exhaust gas pressure from the stack
    b. High capacity fan
    c. Inert gas compressor
    d. Natural aspiration
1728: What is the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, allowed to be maintained in the cargo tanks prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing?

    a. 5%
    b. 8%
    c. 10%
    d. 12%
1729: The purpose of the deck seal in an inert gas system is to prevent __________.

    a. flammable vapors from entering machinery space
    b. flue gas escaping to atmosphere
    c. inert gas escaping to atmosphere
    d. air entering inert gas system
1730: Each inert gas system must be designed to supply the cargo tanks with a gas, or mixture of gasses, that has an oxygen content by volume of __________.

    a. 5% or less
    b. 10% or less
    c. 15% or less
    d. 20% or less
1731: Coast Guard Regulations permit which of the following systems to be used for fire prevention and the simultaneous inerting of cargo tanks on tank vessels?

    a. An inert gas system
    b. The deck foam system
    c. The fire main system
    d. A fixed water spray system
1732: The blowers of an inert gas generation system aboard a tanker, will be automatically secured if __________.

    a. normal water supply at the water seal is lost
    b. the temperature of the inert gas being delivered to the cargo tanks is more than 150°F
    c. the cooling water supply to the scrubbers is lost
    d. all of the above
1733: The last 1.0 meter (3.3 feet) of vapor piping before the vessel vapor connection must be painted __________.

    a. red/yellow/red
    b. yellow/red/yellow
    c. international orange
    d. hi-visibility yellow
1734: Which procedure should be followed when individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia?

    a. Give them brandy or other alcoholic stimulation to promote a return to an acceptable body temperature.
    b. Move them to a warm room to gradually raise their body temperature.
    c. Keep them moving to stimulate circulation to raise their body temperature.
    d. Warm them under an electric blanket to rapidly regain normal body temperature.
1735: On a vapor control system, each vessel's vapor connection flange must have a __________.

    a. 6" reducer
    b. stud at least 1" long projecting from the flange face
    c. pressure gauge permanently attached to the flange
    d. hose saddle
1736: On a hydrocarbon flammability chart the line which extends from 0% to 21.8% oxygen, lying tangent to the flammability range, is called the __________.

    a. minimum oxygen content line
    b. critical displacement line
    c. critical dilution line
    d. upper threshold limit
1737: In order for combustion to occur inside a piping system such as a vapor collection header in a marine emission control system, there must be __________.

    a. fuel
    b. oxygen
    c. ignition
    d. All of the above
1739: The high-level overfill tank alarm, installed in the on-board monitoring system, must __________.

    a. operate in unison with other alarms
    b. be both audible and visual
    c. be the same as the overfill alarm
    d. sound when the tank is 90% full
1740: Tank vessel inerting refers to __________.

    a. the introduction of inert gas into a tank with the object of reducing the oxygen content to below 8% by volume
    b. the introduction of inert gas into a gas free tank for the purpose of reducing the oxygen content to below 8% by volume
    c. the introduction of inert gas into a cargo tank during cargo discharge to replace the volume of discharged cargo
    d. All of the above
1741: The maximum allowable oxygen content within the ship's cargo tanks, inert gas piping and the vapor recovery system is __________.

    a. 4%
    b. 5%
    c. 8%
    d. 10%
1742: What is the report identifier code for the first AMVER report sent at the start of a voyage?

    a. DP
    b. DR
    c. PR
    d. SP
1743: Introducing inert gas into a tank already inert with the object of further reducing the oxygen or hydrocarbon content to prevent combustion if air enters the tank is called __________.

    a. purging
    b. gas freeing
    c. gas dispersion
    d. bonding
1744: Each hose used for transferring vapors must __________.

    a. have a design burst pressure of at least 25 psig
    b. be capable of withstanding at least 2.0 psi vacuum without collapsing or constricting
    c. be electrically continuous with a maximum resistance of ten thousand ohms
    d. All of the above
1745: During loading, what is the minimum pressure required to be maintained by the inert gas system on cargo tanks?

    a. 2" water gauge
    b. 4" water gauge
    c. 20" water gauge
    d. 40" water gauge
1746: An on-board monitoring system, using level sensors permanently installed in each vessel compartment, will have a high level alarm set at not more than __________.

    a. 90% of compartment capacity
    b. 95% of compartment capacity
    c. 97% of compartment capacity
    d. 99% of compartment capacity
1748: In an inert gas system, high pressure alarms are set in the main vapor collection line to cause an audible and visual alarm if the pressure reaches a certain level. What is the percentage of the lowest relief valve setting at which the alarm must sound?

    a. 70%
    b. 80%
    c. 90%
    d. 95%
1749: High pressure and low pressure alarms must be tested __________.

    a. no earlier than 24 hours prior to loading
    b. no later than 24 hours prior to loading
    c. anytime prior to loading
    d. weekly
1750: You are on an inerted tankship. A low pressure alarm must be set to cause an audible and visual alarm if the pressure in the tanks cannot be maintained at more than __________.

    a. 4" water gauge
    b. 90% of the vacuum relief setting
    c. 90% of the pressure drop through the scrubber
    d. 90% of the vacuum assist fan
1752: Vapor recovery hoses must be tested yearly at what ratio to their maximum allowable working pressure?

    a. 1½ mawp
    b. 2 mawp
    c. 3 mawp
    d. 5 mawp
1754: A large metallic device, mounted directly in the piping (usually located at the dock near the point where the vapor hose is attached), designed to prevent the passage of a rapidly moving flame through the piping is called a __________.

    a. flame arrestor
    b. flame screen
    c. detonation arrestor
    d. detonation blocker
1755: When checking the oxygen content of the cargo tanks prior to loading cargoes requiring vapor recovery, the atmosphere must be sampled __________.

    a. one meter from the tank bottom and one meter below the tank top
    b. one half the ullage of the tank and one meter below the tank top
    c. one half the ullage of the tank and one meter above the tank bottom
    d. at three meter intervals from the tank top
1756: Under federal regulations, what minimum level of Blood Alcohol Content (BAC) constitutes a violation of the laws prohibiting Boating Under the Influence of Alcohol (BUI) on commercial vessels?

    a. .18%BAC
    b. .10%BAC
    c. .06%BAC
    d. .04%BAC
1757: You are operating a liftboat. Before starting jacking operations you should __________.

    a. put the crane in a vertical position
    b. close the wheelhouse doors
    c. have all personnel don life jackets
    d. put a watch in the engineroom
1758: A flooded leg on a liftboat would adversely affect the vessel's stability underway by __________.

    a. increasing the righting moment
    b. decreasing the vessel's displacement
    c. increasing the reserve buoyancy
    d. shifting the CG (center of gravity) off center
1759: You are operating a liftboat. When beginning to jack down you should __________.

    a. jack down one leg at a time
    b. jack up first, then down
    c. undog doors to the engine room
    d. assemble all personnel on the main deck
1760: After jacking down your liftboat you have an unexpected list. You find that the only cause of this list must be a flooded leg. Your next course of action should be to __________.

    a. jack the vessel back up to a safe height
    b. proceed on to your next destination since the list is unimportant
    c. pump out all ballast to gain reserve buoyancy
    d. notify the U. S. Coast Guard
1761: After jacking down your liftboat you have an unexpected list. You find that the only cause of this list must be a flooded leg. The list caused by a flooded leg means your vessel has a(n)____________.

    a. negative GM (metacentric height)
    b. decrease in the GZ (righting arm)
    c. increase in the waterplane and the metacentric height
    d. less chance of deck edge immersion
1762: You are operating a liftboat. When jacking down and free of the bottom you should __________.

    a. raise one leg at a time
    b. not be concerned about any list
    c. raise all legs simultaneously
    d. have the crane standing upright
1763: You are operating a liftboat. When jacking down and a leg becomes stuck on the bottom, you should __________.

    a. raise the free legs all the way
    b. use the engines to rotate about the leg that is stuck
    c. jack the barge down part way to pull the leg free
    d. submerge the barge completely to give added pull
1764: After jacking down your liftboat you have an unexpected list. You find that the only cause of this list must be a flooded leg. Raising the flooded leg further would adversely affect the boats stability by __________.

    a. raising the KG and increasing the draft which may put you in an unsafe operating condition
    b. increasing GM and causing a fast roll
    c. increasing the righting arm on the high side
    d. causing the vessel to yaw when underway
1765: After jacking down your liftboat you have an unexpected list. You find that the only cause of this list must be a flooded leg. To keep adequate stability you should __________.

    a. get underway with the flooded leg ONLY half raised to reduce KG
    b. proceed with all legs half raised to lower KG
    c. pump out all ballast to increase reserve buoyancy
    d. jack back up and ballast the vessel's high side as necessary
1766: You are operating a liftboat. In preparation for jacking you should __________.

    a. make sure walkway is hanging over the bow
    b. make sure that all boats alongside are securely fast
    c. check that all equipment on deck is secured
    d. have all personnel remain in their quarters
1767: The explosive range of Diesel Oil mixed with air is __________.

    a. 0% to 1% by volume
    b. 0.8% to 5.3% by volume
    c. 1.3% to 6.0% by volume
    d. 6.3% to 12.1% by volume
1768: The flammable limit of methyl ethyl ketone is from __________.

    a. 1.8% to 11.5%
    b. 6.6% to 12.1%
    c. 9.6% to 15.1%
    d. 12.2% to 18.1%
1770: On a survival craft VHF radio precautions shall be taken to prevent the inadvertent selection of which channel __________.

    a. 6
    b. 8
    c. 16
    d. 22
1771: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, should be sent __________.

    a. 24 hours prior to departure
    b. within a few hours before or after departure
    c. 24 hours after departure
    d. after the first position report
1772: The definition of "partially protected waters", as used in the Regulations does not include __________.

    a. harbors, lakes and similar waters determined by the OCMI to be protected waters
    b. waters within 20 nautical miles from the mouth of a harbor of safe refuge
    c. the Great Lakes during the summer season
    d. sheltered waters presenting no special hazard
1773: What must Inland vessels of 100 GT and over be fitted with for oily mixtures?

    a. A fixed system to discharge the slops overboard
    b. A fixed system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception facility
    c. A portable system to discharge the slops overboard
    d. A portable system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception facility
1774: You are preparing to contain an oil spill. You must first receive approval from the Federal On-Scene Coordinator (OSC) prior to __________.

    a. employing a boom
    b. using suction equipment
    c. applying chemical agents
    d. deploying skimmers
1775: You are inspecting the nonmetallic oil transfer hoses on the vessel you operate. The maximum allowable pressure of the hose is 70 psi. Your inspection confirms the hose did not burst, bulge, leak or abnormally distort under the required static liquid pressure of __________.

    a. 70 psi
    b. 105 psi
    c. 140 psi
    d. 210 psi
1776: Which type of vessel shall be required to have an emergency towing arrangement fitted at both ends?

    a. A 30,000 dwt ton oil barge
    b. An 18,000 dwt ton tanker constructed in 1998
    c. A 5,000 dwt ton coastal tanker
    d. A 22,000 dwt ton tanker operated after Jan. 1, 1999
1777: The transfer procedures required to be followed on tankships shall contain __________.

    a. a list of each port of discharge
    b. a line diagram of the vessel's transfer piping
    c. a current crew list
    d. the duties by name of each person in charge required for each transfer operation
1778: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, should be sent __________.

    a. after the first position report
    b. 24 hours prior to departure
    c. 24 hours after departure
    d. within a few hours before or after departure
1779: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, should be sent __________.

    a. after the first position report
    b. within a few hours before or after departure
    c. 24 hours prior to departure
    d. 24 hours after departure
1780: How often must a compulsory vessel's GMDSS radio station be inspected?

    a. Annually, by the U.S. Coast Guard
    b. Annually, by the FCC or designated authority
    c. Annually, by the FCC, and every six months if the vessel sails outside of the Sea Areas A1 and A2
    d. The FCC's annual inspection may be waived if, and only if, monthly inspections are performed by the vessel's onboard GMDSS Radio Maintainer.
1781: Which frequencies and modes are allocated for distress alerting in GMDSS?

    a. 406 MHz via EPIRB
    b. 1626.5-1645.5 MHz via INMARSAT
    c. Channel 70 DSC plus six (6) MF/HF DSC frequencies
    d. All of the above
1782: Which channel has been designated for on-scene communications in GMDSS?

    a. 24
    b. 2182
    c. 70
    d. 16 and 2174.5
1783: Which statement concerning GMDSS maintenance requirements is FALSE?

    a. Compulsory vessels sailing in Sea Areas A1 and A2 must provide any one of the three maintenance options which are duplication of equipment, shore-based or at-sea maintenance capability.
    b. Compulsory vessels sailing in Sea Areas A3 and A4 must provide any two of the three maintenance options which are duplication of equipment, shore-based or at-sea maintenance capability.
    c. If shore-based maintenance is used, maintenance services do not have to be completed or performance verified unless the vessel will be sailing to a non-US port.
    d. Equipment warranties do not satisfy GMDSS maintenance requirements.
1783: Which statement concerning GMDSS maintenance requirements is FALSE?

    a. Compulsory vessels sailing in Sea Areas A1 and A2 must provide any one of the three maintenance options which are duplication of equipment, shore-based or at-sea maintenance capability.
    b. Compulsory vessels sailing in Sea Areas A3 and A4 must provide any two of the three maintenance options which are duplication of equipment, shore-based or at-sea maintenance capability.
    c. If shore-based maintenance is used, maintenance services do not have to be completed or performance verified unless the vessel will be sailing to a non-US port.
    d. Equipment warranties do not satisfy GMDSS maintenance requirements.
1784: Which statement concerning GMDSS distress alerts is TRUE?

    a. Information contained in a distress alert includes the name and position of the distressed vessel, and may include additional information such as the nature of the situation and what kind of assistance that may be required.
    b. Distress alerts may be used to alert other vessels, including those in port, of existing navigational hazards.
    c. Distress alerts may be used to alert other vessels, including those in port, of existing weather warnings.
    d. A vessel in the vicinity of a distress situation may leave the area without notifying the RCC that is overseeing the operation.
1785: What is a GMDSS functional or carriage requirement for compulsory vessels?

    a. A compulsory vessel must carry at least two (2) licensed GMDSS operators
    b. A compulsory vessel must satisfy certain equipment carriage requirements that are determined by where the vessel sails.
    c. A compulsory vessel must be able to transmit and respond to Distress alerts.
    d. All of the above
1786: Which statement concerning reserve sources of energy for GMDSS is FALSE?

    a. While the ship is at sea, there must be available at all times a supply of electrical energy sufficient to operate the radio installations and to charge any batteries used as part of a reserve source of energy.
    b. Both the VHF and MF/HF installations must be simultaneously supplied.
    c. A means of ensuring a continuous supply of electrical power must be provided to all GMDSS equipment that could be affected by an interruption in power.
    d. If a uninterrupted power supply or equivalent is used to supply power to the ship's GPS receiver or other source of positional information, a means must be provided to ensure the continuous supply of the information in the event of a failure to the ship's main or emergency source of power.
1787: Which GMDSS control selection may result in limited receiving range?

    a. Setting the squelch control to its minimum level
    b. The power switch is set to the "high" output position resulting in receiver over loading
    c. Setting the squelch control to its maximum level
    d. Setting the channel selection switch midway between channels 6 and 16
1788: Which channel is designated as the VHF follow-on communications channel and is required in all portable survival craft equipment?

    a. Channel 6
    b. Channel 13
    c. Channel 16
    d. Channel 70
1789: How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained onboard the ship in original form?

    a. 30 days
    b. 3 months
    c. 6 months
    d. 1 year
1790: How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained by the licensee when they relate to a distress situation or disaster?

    a. 6 months
    b. 1 year
    c. 2 years
    d. 3 years
1791: Where is the GMDSS Radio Logbook kept aboard ship?

    a. Attached to the Deck Logbook
    b. At the principal radio operating location
    c. In the Chief Mate's office
    d. In the Master's office
1792: For GMDSS, which statement concerning a compulsory vessel is FALSE?

    a. A conditional or partial exemption may be granted, in exceptional circumstances, for a single voyage outside the sea area for which the vessel is equipped.
    b. Once a compulsory vessel's GMDSS station has been fitted and inspected, the station must be inspected only once every five years.
    c. All passenger vessels regardless of size and all cargo vessels that are 300 Gross Tons or larger must comply.
    d. Compulsory vessels must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators for Distress and Safety radio-communications purpose..
1793: What is the minimum permit or license requirement of a GMDSS Radio Maintainer?

    a. Holding the Marine Radio Operator Permit is a pre-requisite before the GMDSS Maintainer Endorsement can be obtained
    b. Holding a valid GMDSS Radio Operator license is sufficient
    c. Holding the GMDSS Radio Maintainer license is sufficient
    d. Holding the GMDSS Radio Operator license for at least one year is a prerequisite to holding the GMDSS Radio Maintainer license
1793: What is the minimum permit or license requirement of a GMDSS Radio Maintainer?

    a. Holding the Marine Radio Operator Permit is a pre-requisite before the GMDSS Maintainer Endorsement can be obtained
    b. Holding a valid GMDSS Radio Operator license is sufficient
    c. Holding the GMDSS Radio Maintainer license is sufficient
    d. Holding the GMDSS Radio Operator license for at least one year is a prerequisite to holding the GMDSS Radio Maintainer license
1794: Which statement concerning GMDSS Radio Operator requirements is FALSE?

    a. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators at all times while at sea.
    b. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed Radio Operators at all times while at sea and may elect to carry a GMDSS Radio Maintainer as well.
    c. Communications involving safety of life at sea do not have to be logged as long as the compulsory vessel was not involved in such communications.
    d. While at sea, adjustments to, and the maintaining of, GMDSS equipment may be performed by the GMDSS Radio operator as long as the work is supervised by an onboard licensed GMDSS Radio Maintainer.
1795: Where can GMDSS regulations pertaining specifically to U.S.-flag vessels be found?

    a. These are located in CCIR #476.
    b. These are located in FCC Part 83.
    c. These are published only by the U.S. Coast Guard.
    d. These are located in 47 CFR Part 80.
1798: The combined fan discharge rate in an inert gas system is related to the __________.

    a. shoreside loading rate
    b. cargo pump discharge rate
    c. boiler forced draft fan rate
    d. size of the largest cargo tank
1799: Each inert gas system gas main must have an automatic shut down valve at the outlet of the gas production plant. This valve must close automatically upon __________.

    a. cargo pump failure
    b. blower failure
    c. deck seal low water level
    d. low inert gas temperature
1800: Which U.S. agency issues a Certificate of Financial Responsibility?

    a. Environmental Protection Agency
    b. Coast Guard
    c. Corps of Engineers
    d. Maritime Administration
1801: Each ship having an inert gas system must have a portable instrument to measure concentrations of hydrocarbon vapor in inert atmospheres and also to measure __________.

    a. nitrogen
    b. oxygen
    c. carbon dioxide
    d. water vapor
1802: The component in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulfur combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas, is called the __________.

    a. filter
    b. cooler
    c. scrubber
    d. purifier
1803: On offshore drilling units when two means of escape are provided from a space above the main deck, one means of escape must be required for rapid escape to __________.

    a. a weather deck
    b. the main deck
    c. the control house
    d. the escape capsules
1804: Your vessel displaces 869 tons and measures 136'L x33'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck which measures 52'Lx 33'B. The weight of the water is estimated at 52.8 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard?

    a. 4.83 feet
    b. 5.12 feet
    c. 5.46 feet
    d. 5.85 feet
1805: A sloop is a sailing vessel with __________.

    a. one mast
    b. two masts: with the mizzen stepped abaft the rudder post
    c. two masts: with the mizzen stepped forward of the rudder post
    d. two masts: a foremast and a mainmast
1806: Your vessel displaces 562 tons and measures 121'L x 29'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 46'L x 29'B and the weight of the water is 41 tons?

    a. 4.43 feet
    b. 4.61 feet
    c. 4.86 feet
    d. 5.12 feet
1807: Which is standing rigging?

    a. Halyards
    b. Stays
    c. Sheets
    d. Downhauls
1808: Which of the listed functions is the purpose of a gas scrubber in an inert gas generation system?

    a. Cools the inert gas.
    b. Maintains the oxygen content at 5% by volume.
    c. Bleeds off static electricity in the inert gas.
    d. Maintains flow to the water seal on the gas main.
1809: For GMDSS, which statement concerning compulsory vessels is TRUE?

    a. Vessels over 500 gross tons must carry at least three licensed GMDSS Radio Operators.
    b. Passenger vessels between 300-500 gross tons need to carry only one licensed GMDSS Radio Operator, but passenger vessels larger than 500 must carry two licensed Operators.
    c. Vessels larger than 500 gross tons must carry certain additional GMDSS equipment than what a vessel between 300-500 gross tons must carry.
    d. Vessels between 300-500 gross tons need to carry no more than one EPIRB, SART and survival craft transceiver, but vessels larger than 500 gross tons must carry two of each unit.
1810: Halon extinguishes a fire by __________.

    a. breaking the chain reaction
    b. smothering the fire
    c. cooling the fire
    d. coating the fuel with a nonflammable surface
1811: What should be your FIRST action if you discover a fire aboard ship?

    a. Sound the alarm.
    b. Attempt to put out the fire.
    c. Confine it by closing doors, ports, vents, etc.
    d. Call the Master.
1812: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the __________.

    a. apparent wind moves forward
    b. heeling moment decreases
    c. side slip decreases
    d. speed increases
1813: On offshore drilling units all sleeping areas, mess areas, recreational and hospital areas that are adjacent to or immediately above a storage area or machinery space, paint locker, washroom, or toilet space must be made __________.

    a. watertight
    b. weathertight
    c. odorproof
    d. soundproof
1814: Your vessel displaces 840 tons and measures 146'L x 38'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 65'L x 38'B and the weight of the water is 76 tons?

    a. 8.76 feet
    b. 8.93 feet
    c. 9.04 feet
    d. 9.27 feet
1815: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the __________.

    a. speed increases
    b. side slip decreases
    c. heeling moment decreases
    d. apparent wind moves forward
1816: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND Except where specifically required by the rules, a sailing vessel is NOT required to keep out of the way of a __________.

    a. vessel engaged in fishing
    b. vessel anchored
    c. power-driven pilot vessel on station
    d. vessel setting a channel buoy
1817: Offshore drilling units that carry twelve or more persons on a voyage of more than three days must have a __________.

    a. recreation room
    b. radar room
    c. hospital space
    d. navigation space
1818: In which Sea Area must a compulsory vessel carry either INMARSAT or HF SITOR equipment?

    a. This equipment must be carried at all times at sea regardless of where the vessel will be operating.
    b. This equipment partially satisfies the carriage requirement for vessels operating in Sea Area A3.
    c. This equipment satisfies in full the carriage requirement for vessels operating in Sea Area A2.
    d. HF SITOR equipment partially satisfies the carriage requirement for vessels operating in Sea Area A3, but INMARSAT equipment must be carried to satisfy the requirement when the vessel is in Sea Area A4.
1819: Your vessel displaces 968 tons and measures 158'L x 40'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 65'L x 40'B and the weight of the water is 80 tons?

    a. 9.14 feet
    b. 9.45 feet
    c. 9.68 feet
    d. 9.87 feet
1820: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 49°16.3'E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?

    a. 030947C MAR
    b. 03094703
    c. 06470303Z
    d. 030647Z MAR
1821: On offshore drilling units where natural ventilation is provided, each porthole or window must be fitted with __________.

    a. screens
    b. portlights
    c. covers
    d. curtains
1822: Which hazard probably would NOT be encountered when entering an empty but uncleaned fish hold?

    a. Lack of oxygen
    b. Methane gas
    c. Hydrogen sulfide gas
    d. Carbon monoxide
1823: What is the MINIMUM distance a vessel subject to the requirements of Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 must be located from nearest land to legally discharge paper trash?

    a. 5 nautical miles
    b. 10 nautical miles
    c. 12 nautical miles
    d. 25 nautical miles
1824: Most recreational sailing craft have triangular sails and are said to be __________.

    a. Gaff rigged
    b. Spinnaker rigged
    c. Marconi rigged
    d. Square rigged
1825: Each drilling unit equipped with helicopter fuel storage tanks must have the tanks installed as far as practicable from the __________.

    a. landing area and sources of vapor ignition
    b. main deck
    c. engine room
    d. drill floor
1826: Your vessel displaces 747 tons and measures 136'L by 34'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 56'L x 34'B and the weight of the water is 58.6 tons?

    a. 6.04 feet
    b. 6.23 feet
    c. 6.51 feet
    d. 6.76 feet
1826: Your vessel displaces 747 tons and measures 136'L by 34'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 56'L x 34'B and the weight of the water is 58.6 tons?

    a. 6.04 feet
    b. 6.23 feet
    c. 6.51 feet
    d. 6.76 feet
1827: The helicopter deck on an offshore drilling unit is required to be fitted with perimeter lights in alternating colors of __________.

    a. red and white
    b. yellow and white
    c. yellow and blue
    d. yellow and red
1828: A gas-free certificate would usually be issued by a(n) __________.

    a. ABS marine surveyor
    b. certified marine chemist
    c. port engineer
    d. Coast Guard marine inspector
1829: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 220° relative would be __________.

    a. close hauled on the port tack
    b. close hauled on the starboard tack
    c. running before the wind
    d. on a broad reach
1830: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 149°16.3'E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?

    a. 030947K MAR
    b. 094703K
    c. 022347Z
    d. 234703Z
1831: A slow and easy motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a __________.

    a. small GM
    b. low center of gravity
    c. stiff vessel
    d. large GZ
1832: For GMDSS, when may a compulsory vessel not be allowed to leave port?

    a. When the vessel is in an overloaded condition
    b. When the vessel has arranged for both duplication of equipment AND shore-based maintenance
    c. When the vessel has replaced a required piece of GMDSS-related equipment but its performance has not been verified or logged
    d. When the vessel is carrying only two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators and is capable of performing all required functions
1833: Batteries for VHF Survival Craft Transceivers must have sufficient capacity to operate for a minimum of __________.

    a. 4 hours
    b. 6 hours
    c. 8 hours
    d. 12 hours
1834: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 20'L by 18'B by 7'D. The vessel's displacement is 986 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.6. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

    a. .09 foot
    b. .45 foot
    c. .88 foot
    d. 1.35 feet
1835: On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable of being launched to the water at the minimum operating draft, under unfavorable conditions of trim and with the unit listed not less than __________.

    a. 16°
    b. 20°
    c. 24°
    d. 30°
1836: A ketch-rigged sailing vessel is sailing to windward with the wind about 50° on the port bow. All the sails are set and drawing properly. Which statement is TRUE?

    a. If you slack the mizzen sheet, the center of effort will move aft.
    b. If you slack the main sheet, the lift to drag ratio of the mainsail will increase.
    c. If you sheet in the mainsail without changing course, the vessel will heel farther and speed up.
    d. If you strike the mainsail, the center of effort of the whole rig will move down.
1837: Each liferaft, which does not have an indicated maximum stowage height indicated on the liferaft, must be __________.

    a. limited to carry no more than 10 persons
    b. stowed not more than 59 feet above the lightest waterline
    c. stowed in quick release racks
    d. inspected every six months
1838: When a sail is reefed, the sail area is _______ .

    a. reduced
    b. increased
    c. widened
    d. unchanged
1839: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 020° relative would be __________.

    a. coming about
    b. close hauled on the port tack
    c. running before the wind
    d. on a broad reach on the starboard tack
1840: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 149°16.3'W at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?

    a. 030947W
    b. 031947Z
    c. 031947 88
    d. 03MAR1947Z
1842: How many VHF Survival Craft Transceivers are required aboard passenger ships?

    a. 2
    b. 3
    c. 4
    d. 5
1843: With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers communicate?

    a. Communication is permitted between survival craft.
    b. Communication is permitted between survival craft and ship.
    c. Communication is permitted between survival craft and rescue unit.
    d. All of the above
1844: Your vessel displaces 368 tons and measures 96'L x 28'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 42'L x 28'B and the weight of the water is 36 tons?

    a. 4.98 feet
    b. 5.21 feet
    c. 5.43 feet
    d. 5.67 feet
1845: What is the minimum number of hand held, rocket propelled, parachute, red flare, distress signals required on board offshore drilling units?

    a. 4
    b. 8
    c. 12
    d. 16
1846: You are under sail on a close reach, and the wind is steady. While steady on course, you reef the mainsail and your speed slows. The apparent wind __________.

    a. is unchanged
    b. increases and draws aft
    c. increases and draws forward
    d. decreases and draws aft
1847: An offshore drilling unit must be equipped with a first aid kit approved by the __________.

    a. Coast Guard
    b. American Bureau of Shipping
    c. Minerals Management Service
    d. Mine Safety and Health Administration
1848: Your vessel displaces 477 tons and measures 116'L x 31'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 54'L x 31'B and the weight of the water is 51.5 tons?

    a. 6.43 feet
    b. 6.75 feet
    c. 6.99 feet
    d. 7.25 feet
1849: Which line would NOT be used in handling a mainsail?

    a. Halyard
    b. Downhaul
    c. Uphaul
    d. Sheet
1850: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 49°16.3 W at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?

    a. 031247Z
    b. 030947P
    c. 124733 MAR
    d. 309473
1851: When using a hand held smoke signal from a lifeboat, you should activate the signal __________.

    a. on the downwind side
    b. on the upwind side
    c. inside the boat
    d. at the stern
1852: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 32'L by 15'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement is 640 tons and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.8. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

    a. 0.74 foot
    b. 1.24 feet
    c. 1.41 feet
    d. 1.66 feet
1853: On offshore drilling units each fire station is identified by letters and numbers at least __________.

    a. 2 inches high
    b. 3 inches high
    c. 5 inches high
    d. 8 inches high
1854: How is the Master or operator of a vessel required to keep the crew informed of the regulations concerning the discharging of garbage overboard?

    a. Give each crewmember a copy of ANNEX V of MARPOL.
    b. Call an all hands meeting before sailing.
    c. Keep placards prominently posted.
    d. Have each person read and sign a copy of the regulations.
1855: An offshore drilling unit is required to carry on board an operations manual approved by the __________.

    a. Coast Guard
    b. National Cargo Bureau
    c. Minerals Management Service
    d. builder
1856: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 180° relative would be __________.

    a. close hauled on the starboard tack
    b. close hauled on the port tack
    c. on a broad reach on a port tack
    d. running before the wind
1857: Which statement concerning locating signals in the GMDSS is FALSE?

    a. Locating signals are transmitted by survival craft VHF transceivers.
    b. Locating signals are transmitted by SARTs.
    c. Locating signals are intended to facilitate the finding of a distressed vessel or its survivors
    d. Locating signals are not transmitted by autoalarm generators.
1858: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 180° relative would be __________.

    a. close hauled on the port tack
    b. close hauled on the starboard tack
    c. running before the wind
    d. on a broad reach
1859: The parts of the sail shown are correctly labeled EXCEPT the __________. (D003SL )

    a. head
    b. leach
    c. luff
    d. tack
1860: You are underway at sea when a fire is reported in the forward part of the vessel. The wind is from dead ahead at 20 knots. You should __________.

    a. remain on course and hold speed
    b. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed
    c. change course and put the stern to the wind
    d. remain on course but decrease speed
1861: On offshore drilling units, emergency lighting and each emergency power system must be tested at least once a __________.

    a. day
    b. week
    c. month
    d. year
1862: All electrical appliances aboard a vessel should be grounded to __________.

    a. prevent them from falling when the vessel rolls
    b. protect personnel from electrical shock
    c. increase their operating efficiency
    d. prevent unauthorized personnel from operating them
1863: On offshore drilling units, each storage battery for emergency lighting and power systems must be tested every six months under actual connected load for a period of at least __________.

    a. 1 hour
    b. 2 hours
    c. 3 hours
    d. 4 hours
1864: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 40'L by 20'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement is 996 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.7. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

    a. 0.95 foot
    b. 1.26 feet
    c. 2.10 feet
    d. 2.54 feet
1865: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 2.6 feet and drafts of: FWD 13'-07", AFT 15'-01". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine what tanks you should ballast to increase the GM to 3.4 feet.

    a. Tanks: DB1, DB3
    b. Tanks: DB5, DT1A
    c. Tanks: DB6, DB7, DT7
    d. Tanks: DB4, DT8
1866: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0046

    a. Available GM 5.0 ft
    b. Available GM 5.4 ft
    c. Available GM 6.1 ft
    d. Available GM 6.8 ft
1867: Under the Pollution Regulations, when you dump garbage in to the sea you must __________.

    a. notify the U.S. Coast Guard
    b. make an entry in the Official Logbook
    c. keep a record for two years
    d. No action is required if you are more than 25 miles from land and no plastic materials are dumped.
1868: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 22'L by 16'B by 7'D. The vessel's displacement is 568 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.6. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

    a. 0.56 foot
    b. 0.96 foot
    c. 1.18 feet
    d. 1.43 feet
1869: The three corners of the main sail are called __________. (D002SL )

    a. head, fore, and aft
    b. luff, leech, and spar
    c. headboard, foot, and tail
    d. head, tack, and clew
1870: When should a fire be ventilated?

    a. When attacking the fire directly
    b. When using a steam smothering system
    c. When using the fixed CO2 system
    d. All of the above
1871: If the cause of a sudden severe list is negative initial stability, counterflooding into empty tanks may __________.

    a. increase the righting moment
    b. cause an increase in the righting arm
    c. bring the vessel to an upright equilibrium position
    d. cause the vessel to flop to a greater angle
1872: Your vessel displaces 641 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 3.6 feet above the deck and weighs 36 tons. If you load 22 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.0 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?

    a. 2.33 feet
    b. 2.55 feet
    c. 2.77 feet
    d. 2.99 feet
1874: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of a __________.

    a. remote operated valve
    b. C02 system pressure switch
    c. fusible link
    d. heat or smoke detector
1875: After abandoning ship which action should be taken IMMEDIATELY upon entering a liferaft?

    a. Open equipment pack.
    b. Issue anti-seasickness medicine.
    c. Get clear of the ship.
    d. Dry the liferaft floor and inflate.
1876: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 140° relative would be __________.

    a. close hauled on the starboard tack
    b. close hauled on the port tack
    c. on a broad reach
    d. running before the wind
1877: Which shipboard equipment will detect a signal from a SART?

    a. S-Band Radar
    b. A DSC receiver
    c. X-Band Radar
    d. The autoalarm
1878: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 20'L by 18'B by 7'D. The vessel's displacement is 866 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.8. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

    a. 0.24 foot
    b. 0.56 foot
    c. 0.95 foot
    d. 1.12 feet
1879: Your vessel measures 127 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-10" is 5 seconds, what is the GM?

    a. 1.96 feet
    b. 2.24 feet
    c. 2.45 feet
    d. 2.68 feet
1880: The primary reason for placing covers over storage batteries is to __________.

    a. prevent the accumulation of explosive gases
    b. protect the hull from leaking electrolyte
    c. prevent movement of the battery in rough waters
    d. protect against accidental shorting across terminals
1881: What does a SART signal sound or look like?

    a. It transmits "SOS" and the vessel's name and position in slow speed Morse Code.
    b. It will appear on a radar unit's PPI as a line of dots radiating outward with the innermost dot indicating the SART's position.
    c. It will appear on a radar unit's PPI as a line of dots radiating outward with the outermost dot indicating the SART's position.
    d. None of the above
1882: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 260° relative would be __________.

    a. on a close reach
    b. on a broad reach
    c. on a starboard tack
    d. running before the wind
1883: On offshore drilling units, the Muster List ("Station Bill") must be posted in conspicuous locations and signed by the __________.

    a. company man
    b. driller
    c. owner
    d. Master or person in charge
1884: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND Unless the rules require otherwise, a sailing vessel must keep out of the way of __________.

    a. an overtaking vessel
    b. a pilot vessel on station
    c. another sailing vessel on a crossing course
    d. a vessel trawling
1885: In the case of an injury causing a person to be incapacitated, the Master or person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit must submit a report to the __________.

    a. nearest Marine Safety or Marine Inspection Office
    b. nearest hospital
    c. Department of Energy
    d. American Bureau of Shipping
1886: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 30'L by 15'B by 6'D. The vessel's displacement is 968 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.8. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

    a. .19 foot
    b. .42 foot
    c. .64 foot
    d. .87 foot
1887: When amendments are made to the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan, the revisions must be submitted to the Coast Guard __________.

    a. one month before the anniversary date of the plan
    b. six months before the end of the approval period
    c. and cannot be implemented without approval
    d. and can be implemented without immediate approval as long as final approval is received within six months of submission
1888: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 18'L by 10'B by 6'D. The vessel's displacement is 944 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.9. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of the tanks being slack?

    a. .08 foot
    b. .16 foot
    c. .45 foot
    d. .90 foot
1889: How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the immediate vicinity?

    a. The SART's blips on the PPI will become arcs and eventually become concentric circles.
    b. The DSC unit will react to the SART's signal and respond with the two-tone alarm.
    c. The SART can provide an approximate location to within a two nautical mile radius, per IMO standards.
    d. The SART signal appears as a target which comes and goes; the effect of heavy swells on a SART.
1890: Spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because __________.

    a. ventilation avoids CO2 build up
    b. ventilation supplies extra oxygen for charging the battery
    c. ventilation avoids flammable gas accumulation
    d. less electrolyte is required to maintain the batteries' charge
1891: What would most likely prevent a SART's signal from being detected?

    a. Signal absorption by the ionosphere
    b. Heavy sea swells
    c. The rescue personnel were monitoring the 10-cm radar
    d. The rescue personnel were monitoring the 3-cm radar
1892: What is the required amount of time that a SART's battery must be able to operate the unit in the standby mode?

    a. 8 hours
    b. 2 days
    c. 3 days
    d. 4 days
1893: Which equipment is the primary source of generating a locating signal?

    a. DSC only
    b. DSC and EPIRB
    c. SART and DSC
    d. EPIRB and SART
1894: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 24'L by 16'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement in salt water (specific gravity 1.025) is 864 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.47. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?

    a. 0.32 foot
    b. 0.78 foot
    c. 0.96 foot
    d. 1.12 feet
1895: How can a SART's effective range be maximized?

    a. The SART should be placed in water immediately upon activation.
    b. The SART should be held as high as possible.
    c. Switch the SART into the "high" power position.
    d. If possible, the SART should be mounted horizontally so that its signal matches that of the searching radar signal.
1896: The edge of the sail labeled "A" is called the __________. (D001SL )

    a. leech
    b. clew
    c. luff
    d. headboard
1897: Which is a part of a vessel's standing rigging?

    a. Sheet
    b. Backstay
    c. Topping lift
    d. Downhaul
1898: Your vessel displaces 585 tons and measures 128'L by 26'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (30'L by 18'B by 9'D) is filled with 2.8 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 15.4 tons)

    a. 0.66 foot
    b. 1.12 feet
    c. 1.37 feet
    d. 1.58 feet
1899: Your vessel displaces 684 tons and measures 132'L by 31'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (32'L by 29'B by 9'D) is filled with 2 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 26.5 tons)

    a. 2.17 feet
    b. 2.32 feet
    c. 2.52 feet
    d. 3.01 feet
1900: The accumulation of dangerous fumes generated by the storage batteries is best prevented by __________.

    a. covering the batteries in a nonconducting, solid enclosure
    b. mounting the batteries in a position as high as possible
    c. natural or mechanical ventilation
    d. securing the batteries to vibration reducing mounting brackets
1901: Which conditions will normally cause a SART to operate in the active mode?

    a. It will respond only to interrogation by 9-Ghz radar signals.
    b. A SART will normally respond to interrogation from a searching vessel's radar if the radar antenna is at least 15 meters high.
    c. A SART will normally respond to interrogation from a searching aircraft's radar if the radar's output power is at least 10,000 watts and the aircraft is at a height of 3000 feet and within 30 nautical miles.
    d. All of the above
1902: Which task is NOT the responsibility of the GMDSS Radio Operator?

    a. Inspecting and cleaning the SART's container, and clearing the immediate storage area of any debris or obstacles.
    b. Measuring the SART's transmitted frequency.
    c. Placing the SART in the test mode and verifying that the nearby PPI shows concentric circles.
    d. Ensuring the SART's batteries are replaced before their expiration date.
1903: You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "W" hoisted. What should you do?

    a. Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is stopped and making no way through the water.
    b. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she is disabled.
    c. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because someone on board requires medical assistance.
    d. Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is declaring that she is "healthy" and requests free pratique.
1904: A sailing vessel with the wind coming over the port side is said to be on a __________.

    a. port jibe
    b. starboard jibe
    c. port tack
    d. starboard tack
1905: What fitting on the mast works in conjunction with the shrouds to control side bend of the mast?

    a. Chainplate
    b. Hound
    c. Crowfoot
    d. Spreader
1906: Your vessel displaces 930 tons and measures 156'L by 38'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (46'L by 28'B by 8'D) is filled with 1.5 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 36.8 tons)

    a. 2.16 feet
    b. 2.44 feet
    c. 2.75 feet
    d. 2.99 feet
1908: Your vessel displaces 750 tons and measures 151'L by 35'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (60'L by 31'B by 10'D) is filled with 3.5 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 53.1 tons)

    a. 4.14 feet
    b. 4.38 feet
    c. 4.55 feet
    d. 4.94 feet
1909: On a passenger vessel, the vessel's name must appear on __________.

    a. ring life buoy
    b. lifeboats
    c. lifeboat oars
    d. All of the above
1910: Which visual distress signal is acceptable for daylight use only?

    a. Hand-held red flare
    b. Self-contained rocket-propelled parachute red flare
    c. Hand-held orange smoke distress flare
    d. Red aerial pyrotechnic flare
1911: A ketch is a sailing vessel with __________.

    a. one mast
    b. two masts: with the mizzen stepped abaft the rudder post
    c. two masts: with the mizzen stepped forward of the rudder post
    d. two masts: a foremast and a mainmast
1912: Your vessel displaces 640 tons. The existing deck cargo has center of gravity of 2.3 feet above the deck and weighs 18 tons. If you load 12 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 21 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?

    a. 1.75 feet
    b. 1.94 feet
    c. 2.08 feet
    d. 2.26 feet
1913: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 8'-04", AFT 15'-08". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0047

    a. 1.77 feet
    b. 1.91 feet
    c. 2.09 feet
    d. 2.21 feet
1914: Your vessel displaces 728 tons and measures 138'L by 31'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (36'L by 29'B by 9'D) is filled with 3.6 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 29.8 tons)

    a. 2.35 feet
    b. 2.50 feet
    c. 2.72 feet
    d. 2.96 feet
1915: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the __________.

    a. apparent wind moves aft
    b. heeling moment increases
    c. side slip decreases
    d. mainsheet must be eased
1916: What is part of a vessel's standing rigging?

    a. Sheet
    b. Backstay
    c. Topping lift
    d. Downhaul
1917: How can the SART's audible tone monitor be used?

    a. It informs survivors that assistance may be nearby.
    b. It informs survivors when the battery's charge condition has weakened.
    c. It informs survivors when the SART switches to the standby mode.
    d. It informs survivors that a nearby vessel is signaling on DSC.
1918: Which equipment is not a source of locating signals?

    a. EPIRB's that transmit on 406 MHz
    b. Survival craft VHF transceivers that provide a beacon on 121.5 MHz
    c. COSPAS-SARSAT EPIRBs
    d. SARTs operating on 9 GHz
1919: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 050° relative would be __________.

    a. close hauled on the starboard tack
    b. reaching on a starboard tack
    c. on a broad reach on a port tack
    d. running before the wind
1920: Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers?

    a. Buoyant vests may be substituted for life preservers.
    b. Kapok life preservers must have vinyl-covered pad inserts.
    c. Life preservers must always be worn with the same side facing outwards.
    d. Life preservers are not designed to turn a person's face clear of the water when unconscious.
1921: Certificates of Inspection for offshore drilling units are issued for a period of __________.

    a. 12 months
    b. 24 months
    c. 36 months
    d. 48 months
1922: BOTH INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND A sailing vessel shall not impede the safe passage of a __________.

    a. power-driven vessel following a traffic lane
    b. pilot vessel enroute to a pilot station
    c. law enforcement vessel
    d. All of the above
1923: Except as provided by approved special examinations, each offshore drilling unit must be dry-docked at least once during every __________.

    a. 12 month period
    b. 18 month period
    c. 24 month period
    d. 36 month period
1924: Your vessel displaces 645 tons and measures 132'L by 34'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (30'L by 26'B by 8'D) is filled with 3.0 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 22.3 tons)

    a. 1.76 feet
    b. 1.94 feet
    c. 2.10 feet
    d. 2.44 feet
1925: A construction portfolio prepared for each new offshore drilling unit must be approved by the __________.

    a. American Bureau of Shipping
    b. National Cargo Bureau
    c. U.S. Coast Guard
    d. Minerals Management Service
1926: A "reaching" course is one in which the wind __________.

    a. comes directly over the bow
    b. comes directly over the stern
    c. comes over an area extending from broad on the bow to the quarter
    d. has no effect on the vessel
1927: On offshore drilling units, the minimum number of inclined ladders which must be fitted between each weather deck is __________.

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
1928: Your vessel displaces 740 tons and measures 141'L by 34'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (41'L by 30'B by 9'D) is filled with 2.5 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 35.1 tons)

    a. 2.14 feet
    b. 2.75 feet
    c. 2.96 feet
    d. 3.18 feet
1929: Which statement concerning homing signals in the GMDSS is FALSE?

    a. A homing signal provides a bearing for rescue personnel to follow to the signal's SOURCE.
    b. A homing signal is detected by the COSPAS-SARSAT satellites.
    c. A homing signal cannot be detected by a GPS receiver.
    d. A homing signal may be transmitted by equipment attached to the survival craft.
1930: You must ensure that lifesaving equipment is __________.

    a. locked up
    b. readily accessible for use
    c. inaccessible to passengers
    d. on the topmost deck of the vessel at all times
1931: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 17'-03", AFT 19'-03". The KG is 23.6 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).

    a. 3.0°
    b. 4.4°
    c. 6.0°
    d. 7.5°
1932: Which statement about sailing close-hauled is TRUE?

    a. If you ease the sheets, you can sail faster and closer to the wind.
    b. If you ease the sheets, you can sail faster on the same course.
    c. If you steer closer to the wind, you will slow down.
    d. If you sheet your sails closer to the centerline, you must bear away from the wind.
1933: The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, must be sent __________.

    a. within 12 hours of departure
    b. within 24 hours of departure
    c. within a few hours before or after departure
    d. prior to departure
1934: Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals?

    a. Radio Direction Finder (RDF)
    b. An EPIRB transmitting on 406 MHz
    c. Survival Craft Transceiver
    d. A SART transmitting on 406 MHz
1935: Temporary Certificates of Inspection for offshore drilling units are effective until the __________.

    a. Operations Manual is approved
    b. Minerals Management Service approval is issued
    c. classification society approval is issued
    d. permanent Certificate of Inspection is issued
1936: Your vessel displaces 696 tons and measures 135'L by 34'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (32'L by 29'B by 9'D) is filled with 2.0 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 26.5 tons)

    a. 1.96 feet
    b. 2.04 feet
    c. 2.25 feet
    d. 2.48 feet
1937: On offshore drilling units, a fire drill must be conducted at least once a __________.

    a. week
    b. month
    c. quarter
    d. year
1938: A wobbling tail shaft is an indication of __________.

    a. shallow water
    b. an engine that is misfiring
    c. a tight tail shaft gland
    d. worn stern bearing or misalignment
1939: You have 520 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud. If you have 160 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.2, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (D036DG )

    a. 1.43 feet
    b. 2.79 feet
    c. 3.10 feet
    d. 3.64 feet
1940: Life jackets should be stowed in __________.

    a. survival craft
    b. messrooms
    c. readily accessible locations
    d. locked watertight containers
1941: On offshore drilling units, boat drills must be conducted at least __________.

    a. monthly
    b. quarterly
    c. daily
    d. annually
1942: Which EPIRB transmits a distress alert that is received and relayed by an INMARSAT satellite?

    a. Class A EPIRBs
    b. Class B EPIRBs
    c. L-Band EPIRBs
    d. Category I EPIRBs
1943: Which statement concerning satellite EPIRBs is TRUE?

    a. Once activated, these EPIRBs continuously send up a signal for use in identifying the vessel and for determining the position of the beacon.
    b. The coded signal identifies the nature of the Distress situation.
    c. The coded signal only identifies the vessel's name and port of registry.
    d. If the GMDSS Radio Operator does not program the EPIRB, it will transmit default information such as the follow-on communications frequency and mode.
1944: You have 640 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 160 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.4 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (see illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )

    a. 1.24 feet
    b. 1.65 feet
    c. 1.98 feet
    d. 2.46 feet
1945: What is the best method to overcome the effects of shadowing when attempting to place an INMARSAT-B call?

    a. A small course change should work.
    b. Select a CES that serves the INMARSAT satellite that will handle the call.
    c. Installing a shadow correction filter will compensate in fringe areas.
    d. Turning on compensators will work in all but extreme cases of shadowing.
1946: You have 8 containers of steward's supplies each measuring 6'L by 6'B by 6'H and weighing 1.5 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (Refer to trim and stability letter for M.V. Surveyor.) (D037DG )

    a. 1.00 foot
    b. 1.33 feet
    c. 1.48 feet
    d. 2.00 feet
1946: You have 8 containers of steward's supplies each measuring 6'L by 6'B by 6'H and weighing 1.5 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (Refer to trim and stability letter for M.V. Surveyor.) (D037DG )

    a. 1.00 foot
    b. 1.33 feet
    c. 1.48 feet
    d. 2.00 feet
1947: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND Your 18-meter vessel is under sail at night displaying sidelights, stern light, and a red light over a green light at the masthead. If you start the auxiliary engine and engage the propeller, you must_______.

    a. turn your stern light off
    b. show two green lights instead of a red and green at the masthead
    c. display a white light in sufficient time to prevent collision
    d. turn off the red over green, turn on the white masthead light
1948: You have 600 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 150 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.8 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )

    a. 1.96 feet
    b. 2.25 feet
    c. 3.20 feet
    d. 3.55 feet
1949: What is meant by "CES"?

    a. Coast Earth Satellite
    b. Coast Earth Station
    c. Central Equatorial Station
    d. Coastal Equivalent Station
1950: The lifesaving equipment on all vessels shall be __________.

    a. inspected weekly
    b. stowed in locked compartments
    c. readily accessible
    d. tested yearly
1951: If you must jump from a vessel, the correct posture includes __________.

    a. holding down the life preserver against the chest with one arm crossing the other, covering the mouth and nose with a hand, and feet together
    b. knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legs
    c. body straight and arms held tightly at the sides for feet first entry into the water
    d. both hands holding the life preserver below the chin with knees bent and legs crossed
1952: Your vessel displaces 497 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 2.5 feet above the deck and weighs 24 tons. If you load 18 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 18 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?

    a. 1.86 feet
    b. 2.07 feet
    c. 2.35 feet
    d. 2.76 feet
1953: Which fitting is used to connect the boom to the mast?

    a. Clevis pin
    b. Gunter-lug
    c. Gooseneck
    d. Transom
1955: How often must the emergency generator be tested on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

    a. Once each day
    b. Once each week
    c. Once each month
    d. Once each year
1956: You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 225 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.4 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (D036DG )

    a. 1.96 feet
    b. 2.28 feet
    c. 2.65 feet
    d. 2.93 feet
1957: The first AMVER position report must be sent within how many hours of departure?

    a. 12
    b. 24
    c. 36
    d. 48
1958: You have 710 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 150 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.1 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )

    a. 1.84 feet
    b. 2.13 feet
    c. 2.43 feet
    d. 2.78 feet
1959: You have approximately 34 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 7.5 feet? (total displacement is 638 tons)

    a. 0.1 foot
    b. 0.2 foot
    c. 0.3 foot
    d. 0.4 foot
1961: Which maintenance functions can a GMDSS Radio Operator perform?

    a. The Operator can make fine internal adjustments to the transmitter as long as the output power does not change by more than one percent.
    b. The Operator is responsible for ensuring that INMARSAT antennas are free of built-up soot and clear of obstacles.
    c. All levels of maintenance must be performed by a licensed GMDSS Radio Maintainer.
    d. The Operator may install an EPROM in order to ensure that the equipment continues to operate within legal constraints.
1962: You have 200 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 140 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 4.2 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (D036DG )

    a. 0.56 foot
    b. 0.87 foot
    c. 1.04 feet
    d. 2.44 feet
1963: How is a distress message normally initiated through INMARSAT?

    a. All INMARSAT units have a dedicated key that can be pressed for immediate action.
    b. By adding the word "DISTRESS" in the first line of the message's preamble
    c. Certain INMARSAT units have a dedicated key that can be pressed for immediate action, while other systems provide menu-driven features.
    d. By transmitting the distress message on the U.S. Coast Guard's dedicated monitoring channel.
1964: When crossing a bar in rough weather, you should enter on a(n) __________.

    a. tidal bore
    b. ebbing current
    c. flood current
    d. All of the above
1965: Which statement concerning exposure to microwave signal radiation is TRUE?

    a. There is minimal hazard potential as long as the Operator notifies other system users aboard the vessel that the potential exists.
    b. The INMARSAT-B ray dome normally prevents nearby persons from being able to determine the direction of the internal antenna.
    c. There is equally significant hazard potential from all INMARSAT antenna systems.
    d. FCC type acceptance regulations require that radiated power be kept to a minimum so as to prevent hazard potential.
1966: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 090° relative would be __________.

    a. close hauled on the starboard tack
    b. reaching on the starboard tack
    c. on a broad reach on the starboard tack
    d. close hauled on the port tack
1967: Define the acronym MSI.

    a. Maritime Safety Information
    b. Maritime Shipping Index
    c. Maritime Satellite Indicator
    d. Mariner Safety Intelligence
1968: Which categories of NAVTEX messages may not be selectively rejected through receiver programming?

    a. Navigational warnings
    b. Weather warnings
    c. SAR information
    d. All of the above
1969: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 290° relative would be __________.

    a. on a close reach on a port tack
    b. close hauled on a starboard tack
    c. on a broad reach on a port tack
    d. on a beam reach on a starboard tack
1970: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?

    a. Octanol
    b. Acetonitrile
    c. Hog grease
    d. Carbon black hose
1971: Which category of NAVTEX messages may be rejected in some receivers, BUT SHOULD NOT?

    a. Category L navigational warnings
    b. Category A navigational warnings
    c. SAR and distress alert information
    d. Weather warnings
1972: Which statement about sailing close-hauled is TRUE?

    a. If you ease the sheets and change heading, you can sail faster but not so close to the wind.
    b. If you ease the sheets you will be in irons.
    c. If you sheet your sails closer to the centerline, you can sail closer to the wind and decrease leeway.
    d. If you sheet your sails closer to the centerline, you will luff.
1973: To ensure receipt of all relevant MSI, a NAVTEX receiver should be turned on at least how many hours prior to departure from port?

    a. 2
    b. 4
    c. 6
    d. 8
1974: When experiencing heavy winds, you should reef sails to __________.

    a. bring the sails parallel to the wind
    b. reduce sail area exposed to the wind
    c. allow the sails to catch more wind
    d. remove all tension on the main and jib sheets
1975: On a commercial fishing vessel, a wearable personal flotation device must be marked with the name of the __________.

    a. vessel
    b. assigned individual
    c. owner of the device
    d. Any of the above
1976: A capsized small sail vessel is best righted when what part of the vessel is downwind?

    a. Stern
    b. Bow
    c. Centerboard
    d. Mast
1977: A stay is __________.

    a. standing rigging
    b. a downhaul
    c. a halyard
    d. a jib
1978: How should you try to right a capsized small sailing vessel?

    a. Position all personnel at the stern and rock the vessel upright.
    b. Position all personnel around the mast and lift the vessel upright.
    c. Lock the centerboard in the down position, stand on the centerboard, and pull on a shroud or a halyard.
    d. Put the centerboard in the up position and have all personnel haul in on the line attached to the mast.
1979: A documented oceangoing fishing vessel is required to have emergency instructions posted if it __________.

    a. exceeds 49 feet in length
    b. is over 25 gross tons
    c. carries more than 16 persons
    d. has sleeping accommodations
1980: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?

    a. Dodecyl methacrylate
    b. Asphalt
    c. Camphor oil
    d. Latex
1981: On a mobile offshore drilling unit it is required to __________.

    a. inspect the lifesaving gear provided in any helicopter landing on the rig
    b. check the Certificate of Inspection of any support vessel bringing hazardous materials to the rig
    c. insure that engineering spaces are in a clean and sanitary condition
    d. record the length of each abandonment drill in the rig's log book
1982: Which system may be useful for messages, such as local storm warnings or a shore-to-ship distress alert, for which it is inappropriate to alert all ships in the satellite coverage area?

    a. NAVTEX
    b. EGC
    c. AMVER
    d. DSC
1983: What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?

    a. Electricity
    b. Chain reaction
    c. Pressure
    d. Smoke
1984: You have 550 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 120 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.6 feet. What is the maximum additional deck cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )

    a. 20 tons
    b. 60 tons
    c. 120 tons
    d. 240 tons
1985: Each emergency generator on a mobile offshore drilling unit, when tested, must be run under a full load for at least __________.

    a. one hour
    b. two hours
    c. ten hours
    d. four hours
1986: Which statement is TRUE?

    a. You need not keep a record of ground garbage dumped into the sea more than 25 miles offshore.
    b. You must keep a record of garbage discharged in port to a shore facility.
    c. You need not keep a record of garbage incinerated on the ship.
    d. You must keep a record of the approximate weight of the garbage dumped.
1987: When a fire drill is conducted on a mobile offshore drilling unit, the designated person in charge must ensure that __________.

    a. all personnel report to their stations
    b. each hose is brought to full pressure at the nozzle
    c. at least three portable extinguishers are activated
    d. All of the above
1988: You have 590 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 84 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.7 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )

    a. 2.54 feet
    b. 2.85 feet
    c. 3.11 feet
    d. 3.55 feet
1989: What is the proper method to fix running rigging to a cleat?

    a. Half-hitches then a round turn
    b. One round turn
    c. A series of half-hitches
    d. A round turn, figure eights, and a half-hitch
1990: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?

    a. Acetonitrile
    b. Molten sulfur
    c. Dodecanol
    d. Soybean oil
1991: It is the responsibility of the person in charge to __________.

    a. revise the operating manual when rig personnel change
    b. be fully aware of the provisions in the operating manual
    c. maintain the rig's construction portfolio
    d. All of the above
1992: A deep keel on a sailing vessel increases the_____________.

    a. resistance to lateral movement
    b. length-depth ratio resulting in a faster hull design
    c. height of the center of gravity above the hull resulting in a more stable vessel
    d. mast height to compensate for increased lateral resistance
1993: The person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit must insure that __________.

    a. the Muster List ("Station Bill") is approved by the Coast Guard
    b. the date of each fire extinguisher test is recorded
    c. all personnel are trained to launch the survival craft
    d. a fire drill is held at least once each day
1994: Which kind(s) of broadcasts are available through Safety NET?

    a. MSI and messages to pre-defined groups of subscribers
    b. MSI and vessel traffic lists
    c. Hourly NOAA weather broadcasts from the NWS
    d. Coastal weather broadcasts
1995: Who is responsible for insuring that each survival craft on a mobile offshore drilling unit is cleaned and inspected once a year?

    a. The certificated lifeboatman assigned to that craft
    b. The certificated able seaman assigned to that craft
    c. The Coast Guard inspecting officer
    d. The designated person in charge of the rig
1996: You have 240 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 360 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.9 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson) (D036DG )

    a. 1.35 feet
    b. 1.86 feet
    c. 2.56 feet
    d. 3.60 feet
1997: Vessels to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies may discharge garbage containing plastics __________.

    a. 5 nautical miles from nearest land
    b. 12 nautical miles from nearest land
    c. 25 nautical miles from nearest land
    d. None of the above
1998: Which satellite system promulgated Maritime Safety Information?

    a. AMVER
    b. SafetyNET
    c. NAVTEX
    d. INMARSAT-M SES
1999: Which channel and mode should be used when initiating a Distress alert transmission?

    a. Channel 6 DSC
    b. Channel 6 Radiotelephony
    c. Channel 13 Radiotelephony and Channel 16 DSC
    d. Channel 70 DSC
2000: What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?

    a. Phosphoric acid
    b. Nonane
    c. Methyl ethyl ketone
    d. Sulfur (molten)
2001: The person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit must insure that __________.

    a. each bilge pump is operated at least once a week
    b. all personnel are provided with work vests
    c. whistles and general alarm bells are tested once each day
    d. the date and hour of each fire drill is recorded in the log
2002: You have 420 tons of below deck tonnage and 150 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 135 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See the trim and stability letter for M.V. Hudson, illustration D036DG.) (D036DG )

    a. 90 tons
    b. 140 tons
    c. 155 tons
    d. 240 tons
2003: Who is responsible for maintaining the logbook on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

    a. The person in charge
    b. The safety man
    c. The rig superintendent
    d. The driller
2004: You have 420 tons of below deck tonnage and 180 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 140 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

    a. 60 tons
    b. 100 tons
    c. 180 tons
    d. 240 tons
2005: If there is unsafe machinery on a mobile offshore drilling unit, who is responsible for reporting the existence of the unsafe condition to the Coast Guard?

    a. The chief mechanic
    b. The port engineer
    c. The rig superintendent
    d. The designated person in charge
2006: You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage and 100 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 160 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

    a. 85 tons
    b. 135 tons
    c. 195 tons
    d. 245 tons
2007: The bottom of the mast rests on the __________.

    a. foot plate
    b. sole plate
    c. hounds
    d. mast step
2008: Your vessel measures 119 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 5'-05" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?

    a. 1.14 feet
    b. 1.36 feet
    c. 1.55 feet
    d. 1.96 feet
2009: Your vessel measures 114 feet long by 16 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 5'-06" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?

    a. 1.38 feet
    b. 1.53 feet
    c. 1.76 feet
    d. 1.98 feet
2010: Your vessel measures 128 feet long by 21 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-06" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?

    a. 1.56 feet
    b. 2.37 feet
    c. 2.55 feet
    d. 2.74 feet
2011: What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC distress alert is received?

    a. No action is necessary, as the DSC control unit will automatically switch to the NBDP follow-on communications frequency.
    b. The operator should immediately set continuous watch on the radiotelephone frequency that is associated with the frequency band on which the distress alert was received.
    c. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on VHF channel 70.
    d. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on the NBDP frequency that is associated with the frequency band on which the distress alert was received.
2012: What is the primary purpose for Digital Selective Calling (DSC)?

    a. DSC provides reception of weather and navigational warnings plus search and rescue information.
    b. DSC provides low-cost, routine communications for the vessel operator.
    c. DSC is to be used for transmitting and receiving distress alerts to and from other ships or coast radio stations via radio.
    d. This aids SAR authorities in tracking a vessel's position by satellite.
2013: What is the minimum number of lifeboats which MUST be carried on a mobile offshore drilling unit that is allowed to carry more than 30 persons?

    a. 4
    b. 3
    c. 2
    d. 1
2014: Your vessel measures 131 feet long by 20 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 8'-03" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?

    a. 1.26 feet
    b. 1.74 feet
    c. 1.93 feet
    d. 2.15 feet
2015: A shroud is __________.

    a. a light sail
    b. a topmast stay
    c. a sheet
    d. standing rigging
2016: Your vessel measures 125 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-09" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?

    a. 0.95 foot
    b. 1.25 feet
    c. 1.55 feet
    d. 1.78 feet
2017: A shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan is required of __________.

    a. all vessels, regardless of size and commercial application
    b. any barge or ship constructed or operated in such a manner that no oil in any form can be carried aboard
    c. an oil tanker of 150 gross tons and above, or other ship of 400 gross tons and above
    d. an oil tanker of 400 gross tons and above, or other ships of 150 gross tons and above
2018: When can routine communications be resumed on a frequency or channel on which radio silence has been imposed?

    a. After determining that the frequency or channel appears to be no longer in use
    b. After determining that geographic distance from the distress situation will prohibit any other signal from interfering with emergency communications
    c. After the Rescue Coordination Center transmits a message on the frequency or channel being used for emergency communications stating that such traffic has concluded
    d. Routine communications can resume if, in the Master's opinion, communications on that frequency or channel will not interfere with emergency communications.
2019: You have 38 containers of ships stores each measuring 6'L by 6'B by 5'H and weighing 0.6 ton each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (See illustration D037DG, stability letter for M.V. Surveyor) (D037DG )

    a. 0.54 foot (0.16 meter)
    b. 1.06 feet (0.32 meter)
    c. 1.35 feet (0.41 meter)
    d. 1.64 feet (0.50 meter)
2020: Free communication will adversely affect transverse stability only when the flooded space is __________.

    a. off-center
    b. on the centerline
    c. completely flooded
    d. open to the sea above and below the waterline
2021: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close hauled the __________.

    a. true wind velocity increases
    b. heeling moment decreases
    c. side slip increases
    d. jib sheet must be eased
2023: If you were to jibe in a strong wind, the part of the rigging most likely to fail would be the __________.

    a. forestay
    b. backstay
    c. jumper stay
    d. halyard
2024: Which step should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be abandoned because of a distress situation?

    a. Alert the U.S. Coast Guard by using the survival craft's portable INMARSAT unit.
    b. Program the SART and EPIRB to transmit the vessel's location and situation.
    c. Place the SART and EPIRB in the "ON" position and secure them to the survival craft.
    d. No additional steps are needed as the SART and EPIRB will both automatically float free and operate properly.
2025: BOTH INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are under sail with the auxiliary engine running and the propeller engaged on a 15 meter sail vessel. Which statement is TRUE?

    a. This condition is indicated by a conical shape, apex downwards.
    b. You should maintain course and speed when approaching a power-driven vessel.
    c. You must display two green lights in a vertical line at or near the masthead.
    d. You are considered a sailing vessel as long as sail propulsion affects the vessel's maneuverability.
2026: Which statement is TRUE concerning the gooseneck?

    a. It is a sailing maneuver which brings the vessel's head through the wind.
    b. It connects the boom to the mast and allows the boom to swing freely.
    c. It is a sailing condition where there is a loss of air flow over the sails.
    d. None of the above
2027: Who is responsible for transmitting a message stating that distress communications have ceased?

    a. The Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) controlling the distress communications
    b. The vessel providing the initial communications with the distressed vessel
    c. The Coast Radio Station (CRS) that was first contacted concerning the distress situation
    d. No formal message must be transmitted as long as no distress-related communications have occurred after reasonable time.
2028: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-10". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 11 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

    a. 6 tons
    b. 12 tons
    c. 18 tons
    d. 24 tons
2029: A yawl is a sailing vessel with __________.

    a. a single mast
    b. two masts: with the mizzen stepped abaft the rudder post
    c. two masts: with the mizzen stepped forward of the rudder post
    d. two masts: a foremast and a mainmast
2030: You have 60 tons of below deck tonnage and 220 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 240 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

    a. 65 tons
    b. 85 tons
    c. 110 tons
    d. 125 tons
2031: Which condition is NOT necessary for a combustible liquid to burn?

    a. The temperature of the substance must be equal to or above its fire point.
    b. The air must contain oxygen in sufficient quantity.
    c. The mixture of vapors with air must be within the "explosive range."
    d. All of the above are necessary for a combustible liquid to burn.
2032: What is the primary hazard, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire?

    a. Possibility of reflash
    b. Electrocution or shock
    c. Explosion
    d. Flashover
2033: How is "radio silence" imposed?

    a. By the Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel
    b. By the Coast Earth Station (CES) controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel
    c. By the Public Correspondence Station (PCS), controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel
    d. By the High Seas Service (HSS) controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel.
2034: You have 12 containers of rig supplies each measuring 10'L by 4'B by 5'H and weighing 2.0 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (D037DG )

    a. 0.5 foot
    b. 0.9 foot
    c. 1.1 feet
    d. 1.6 feet
2035: What is usually the first step for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take when initiating a distress priority message via INMARSAT?

    a. Dialing the correct code on the telephone remote unit
    b. Pressing a "Distress Key" on the equipment
    c. Contacting the CES operator and announcing a distress condition is in existence
    d. Contacting the CES operator using the radiotelephone distress procedure "Mayday"...etc.
2036: Which system provides maximum communications range?

    a. MF SITOR
    b. INMARSAT
    c. Digital Selective Calling on 8414.5KHz
    d. VHF ARQ
2037: Which system is most likely to be subject to fading or static interference?

    a. HF SITOR
    b. INMARSAT
    c. Digital Selective Calling on channel 70
    d. VHF ARQ
2038: Which system is least likely to be subject to fading or static interference?

    a. HF SITOR
    b. INMARSAT
    c. Digital Selective Calling on channel 70
    d. VHF ARQ
2039: You have approximately 14 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 6 feet? (total displacement is 210 tons)

    a. 0.2 foot
    b. 0.3 foot
    c. 0.4 foot
    d. 0.5 foot
2040: You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 145 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 220 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

    a. 22 tons
    b. 48 tons
    c. 94 tons
    d. 239 tons
2041: You are keeping the required garbage disposal records. The amount of garbage disposed must be stated in __________.

    a. barrels of 55 gallon capacity
    b. both kilos and pounds
    c. both cubic meters and cubic feet
    d. cubic meters
2042: Which line would be used to hoist a sail?

    a. Forestay
    b. Halyard
    c. Mainsheet
    d. Foreguy
2043: How does a coast radio station communicating by HF radio normally identify itself?

    a. By its subscriber number
    b. By its call sign
    c. By its MMSI
    d. By its MID
2044: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are under sail making 5 knots. The apparent wind is broad on the port beam at 10 knots. You see another sailing vessel dead ahead on a meeting course. What action is correct?

    a. Both vessels must maneuver to avoid collision.
    b. You must keep out of the way of the other vessel.
    c. Only the other vessel must maneuver to avoid collision.
    d. You are only required to maneuver if collision cannot be avoided by maneuver of the other vessel.
2045: How often does a coast radio station that regularly broadcasts traffic lists transmit the list?

    a. As often as is deemed necessary to effect delivery
    b. No less often than every four hours
    c. Only on an as-needed basis
    d. Once per 24-hour period
2046: Your drafts are: FWD 5'-11", AFT 6'-11". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 16 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

    a. 8 tons
    b. 12 tons
    c. 10 tons
    d. 14 tons
2047: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0048

    a. 280 tons
    b. 395 tons
    c. 750 tons
    d. 990 tons
2048: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-02", AFT 6'-08". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 23 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

    a. 6 tons
    b. 12 tons
    c. 18 tons
    d. 24 tons
2049: The bottom of the mast rests on a part of the keel called the mast __________.

    a. foot
    b. heel
    c. step
    d. sole
2050: You have 160 tons of below deck tonnage and 300 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 110 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

    a. 55 tons
    b. 99 tons
    c. 140 tons
    d. 360 tons
2051: You are standing a radio watch aboard the rig. A crew boat calls you on VHF channel 16. When you reply with your vessel name and call letters, you should request the crew boat to switch to an intership channel such as channel __________.

    a. 6
    b. 10
    c. 12
    d. 14
2052: Which radio call-in plan is the most prudent?

    a. The designated responsible person must be instructed to call the Coast Guard search and rescue authorities immediately if your call does not come in on schedule.
    b. There must be a designated responsible person available at all times to receive your call.
    c. There must be a designated responsible person who knows they are expecting your call at a certain time.
    d. Two responsible persons should be designated so that one can relieve the other as necessary.
2053: What is the international calling and distress channel found on all VHF-FM equipped drilling rigs?

    a. Channel 1
    b. Channel 10
    c. Channel 16
    d. Channel 68
2054: Your vessel measures 126 feet (38 meters) long by 21 feet (6 meters) in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 8 feet (2 meters) is 6 seconds, what is the GM?

    a. 2.4 feet (0.70 meters)
    b. 2.8 feet (0.85 meters)
    c. 3.0 feet (0.90 meters)
    d. 3.2 feet (0.98 meters)
2055: What agency issues the Ship Station license for the VHF marine radio on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

    a. U.S. Coast Guard
    b. Department of Transportation
    c. Federal Broadcast Authority
    d. Federal Communications Commission
2056: By regulation, cargo tank atmosphere must be inert before and during which operation?

    a. Stripping
    b. Loading
    c. crude oil washing
    d. All of the above
2056: By regulation, cargo tank atmosphere must be inert before and during which operation?

    a. Stripping
    b. Loading
    c. crude oil washing
    d. All of the above
2057: You cannot operate a VHF or SSB radiotelephone aboard a rig unless that station is licensed by the __________.

    a. Federal Communications Commission
    b. U.S. Coast Guard
    c. Minerals Management Service
    d. Department of Energy
2058: By regulation, cargo tank atmosphere must be inert before and during which operation?

    a. crude oil washing
    b. Loading
    c. discharging
    d. All of the above
2059: What standing rigging supports the mast in the fore-and-aft and athwartships directions?

    a. Sheets and guys
    b. Guys and vangs
    c. Vangs and shrouds
    d. Shrouds and stays
2060: You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage and 230 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 220 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

    a. 60 tons
    b. 180 tons
    c. 240 tons
    d. none
2061: Where would you find the "call sign" or "call letters" of the radio station on your rig?

    a. In the rig safety manual
    b. On the Certificate of Inspection
    c. On the Ship Station License
    d. On the rig Watch Bill
2062: You are running before the wind in a fresh breeze. The boom may be prevented from accidentally jibing by using a(n) __________.

    a. buntline
    b. clewline
    c. outhaul
    d. preventer
2063: If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.

    a. tie themselves to the unit so they won't drift with the current
    b. form a small circular group to create a warmer pocket of water in the center of the circle
    c. send the strongest swimmer to shore for assistance
    d. form a raft by lashing their life preservers together
2064: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are under sail and overtaking a tug and tow. Which action is correct?

    a. The power-driven tug must maneuver to avoid collision.
    b. You must maneuver to avoid the tug and tow.
    c. You must maneuver to avoid collision only if the tug is to leeward and the wind is on your port side.
    d. Both vessels are required to maneuver to avoid collision.
2065: By regulation, cargo tank atmosphere must be inert before and during which operation?

    a. crude oil washing
    b. topping off
    c. stripping
    d. All of the above
2066: A boom vang __________.

    a. holds the boom down and flattens the main sail
    b. draws the head of the sail to windward
    c. tautens the standing rigging
    d. douses the gaff topsail
2067: You are standing radio watch and monitoring VHF Channel 16 when you receive a call to your rig, TEXAS STAR, from a supply boat. What is the proper way to answer this call?

    a. 'This is TEXAS STAR. Pick a channel.'
    b. 'This is TEXAS STAR on Channel 16. Come back.'
    c. 'This is TEXAS STAR, WSR 1234, reply Channel 10.'
    d. 'Please stand by. We're busy right now.'
2069: The metal horseshoe-shaped pieces used to bend a sail onto a stay are called_________.

    a. hanks
    b. shackles
    c. warps
    d. gudgeons
2070: You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 210 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 100 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

    a. 25 tons
    b. 65 tons
    c. 95 tons
    d. 175 tons
2071: The generators on your rig have shut down, leaving you without navigation lights. Which emergency signal would you transmit over the VHF radio to alert vessels in the area of your predicament?

    a. Mayday, Mayday, Mayday
    b. Pan, Pan, Pan
    c. Security, Security, Security
    d. Lights out, Lights out, Lights out
2072: By regulation, cargo tank atmosphere must be inert before and during which operation?

    a. stripping
    b. topping off
    c. gravitating
    d. All of the above
2073: If your rig is equipped with a SSB radio, what frequency would you use to initiate a distress call?

    a. 1982 kHz
    b. 2082 kHz
    c. 2182 kHz
    d. 2282 kHz
2074: You have 4 containers of rig supplies each measuring 8'L by 8'B by 8'H and weighing 1.2 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (See illustration D037DG, stability letter for M.V. Surveyor) (D037DG )

    a. 1.33 feet
    b. 1.68 feet
    c. 1.96 feet
    d. 2.16 feet
2075: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 28'-06", AFT 29'-10". The KG is 27.4 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).

    a. 3.7°
    b. 4.4°
    c. 5.0°
    d. 6.5°
2076: A cargo tank that is initially gas freed, can be inerted by introducing inert gas by a process known as __________.

    a. dilution
    b. displacement
    c. precipitation
    d. Either A or B
2077: BOTH INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are proceeding under sail with the auxiliary engine running and the propeller engaged. Which statement is TRUE?

    a. If most of the propelling power comes from the sails, your vessel is considered a sailing vessel.
    b. You must display a red light over a green light at the masthead.
    c. In fog you must sound one prolonged blast at two-minute intervals when making way.
    d. By day, you must display a black diamond shape forward.
2078: A device fitted over the discharge opening on a relief valve consisting of one or two woven wire fabrics is called a flame __________.

    a. stopper
    b. screen
    c. filter
    d. restrictor
2079: Your vessel displaces 479 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 3.0 feet above the deck and weighs 16 tons. If you load 23 tons of anchor and anchor chain with an estimated center of gravity of 9 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG above the deck?

    a. 0.33 foot
    b. 1.00 foot
    c. 1.45 feet
    d. 1.67 feet
2080: You have 260 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 150 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.2 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

    a. 110 tons
    b. 140 tons
    c. 180 tons
    d. 210 tons
2081: On offshore drilling units, each inflatable liferaft must be serviced every __________.

    a. 12 months
    b. 24 months
    c. 36 months
    d. 48 months
2082: On a tank barge constructed on or after July 1, 1951, regulations require that each cargo tank be equipped with a vent that has a diameter of not less than __________.

    a. 1.5 inches
    b. 2.0 inches
    c. 2.5 inches
    d. 3.0 inches
2083: On offshore drilling units each inflatable liferaft that is not intended for davit launching must be stowed so as to float free or be __________.

    a. equipped with a hydrostatic release
    b. stowed in approved racks
    c. located above the main deck area
    d. replaced every 12 months
2084: The sea painter of a lifeboat should be secured __________.

    a. to the bow of the lifeboat
    b. to an inboard thwart in the forward one-third of the boat
    c. as close as possible to amidships of the lifeboat
    d. anywhere along the inboard side of the boat
2085: An offshore drilling unit must have enough inflatable liferafts to accommodate at least what percentage of the persons allowed?

    a. 20%
    b. 30%
    c. 50%
    d. 100%
2086: A partially full tank causes a virtual rise in the height of the __________.

    a. metacenter
    b. center of buoyancy
    c. center of flotation
    d. center of gravity
2087: The davit aboard a MODU is used to __________.

    a. lower personnel down by a transfer basket
    b. lower food and water to personnel in a liferaft
    c. lower the liferaft down with its full complement
    d. move equipment around the deck
2088: If the OCMI has NOT granted an extension, free-fall lifeboats must be lowered into the water and launched with the assigned crew at least once every __________.

    a. 3 months
    b. 6 months
    c. year
    d. 2 years
2089: On a vessel carrying grades A, B, C or D cargoes, enclosed spaces where sources of vapor ignition are normally present shall NOT be segregated from cargo tanks by __________. (vessel constructed after 1970)

    a. cofferdams
    b. galleys
    c. pump rooms
    d. tanks used to carry liquids having a flash point of 150°F or above
2090: You have 520 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 160 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.7 feet. What is the maximum cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See the stability letter for the M.V. Hudson illustration D036DG.) (D036DG )

    a. 84 tons
    b. 160 tons
    c. 244 tons
    d. 317 tons
2091: To inflate a davit launched liferaft you __________.

    a. initially connect the compressed air nozzle to the inflation tube
    b. pull the inflation lanyard
    c. connect the hand pump to the inflation tube and pump it up
    d. connect the helium nozzle to the inflation tube
2092: According to regulations, cargo pumps in tank vessels carrying grade A, B, C, or D liquid cargo, shall be isolated from sources of vapor ignition by __________. (vessel constructed 1970)

    a. cofferdams
    b. general cargo spaces
    c. passageways or living quarters
    d. gastight bulkheads
2093: The davit launched liferaft can be boarded __________.

    a. from the water only
    b. at the deck
    c. by jumping down onto it
    d. through the escape tube
2094: Your vessel measures 122 feet long by 18 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 6'-09" is 5 seconds, what is the GM?

    a. 1.4 feet
    b. 2.1 feet
    c. 2.5 feet
    d. 2.9 feet
2095: Sails may be wing and wing when __________.

    a. close hauled
    b. tacking
    c. wearing
    d. sailing with the wind aft
2096: Steam driven pumps are considered, by regulations, sources of vapor ignition if the steam temperature is at least __________.

    a. 100°C
    b. 212°F
    c. 500°F
    d. 1200°F
2097: If you reef a marconi mainsail, the sail area __________.

    a. becomes less
    b. becomes larger
    c. does not change
    d. moves aft
2098: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0049

    a. 395 tons
    b. 530 tons
    c. 750 tons
    d. 990 tons
2099: Cargo hose carried on tank vessels shall be able to withstand a pressure of at least __________.

    a. 75 psi
    b. 100 psi
    c. 120 psi
    d. 150 psi
2100: You have 180 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 300 tons with a VCG above the deck of 3.0 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

    a. 20 tons
    b. 60 tons
    c. 100 tons
    d. 400 tons
2101: A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in oil exploration located 10 nautical miles from nearest land MAY discharge __________.

    a. food waste
    b. food, ground to less than 1"
    c. paper, ground to less than 1"
    d. None of the above
2102: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close-hauled the __________.

    a. apparent wind remains steady
    b. heeling moment decreases
    c. side slip decreases
    d. speed decreases
2103: All lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type liferafts shall be stripped, cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at least once every __________.

    a. year
    b. 18 months
    c. two years
    d. 30 months
2104: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 25.2 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 27'-11", AFT 28'-09"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

    a. 54°
    b. 59°
    c. 65°
    d. 71°
2105: If a davit-launched liferaft aboard a MODU cannot be launched because of damage to the davit, you should __________.

    a. inflate the liferaft on deck
    b. roll the liferaft over the side
    c. go to another liferaft station
    d. get a saw and cut the liferaft free
2106: In special cases, the Commandant of the Coast Guard may permit cargo piping to pass through machinery spaces, provided that the only cargo carried through such piping is(are) __________.

    a. grades A or B
    b. grades D or E
    c. grade E
    d. LFG
2107: What is NOT running rigging?

    a. Downhaul
    b. Backstay
    c. Halyard
    d. Sheet
2108: Air compressors are NOT permitted in which space(s) on a tank barge carrying grade A cargo?

    a. A cargo handling room
    b. A space in which cargo hose is stored
    c. An enclosed space containing cargo piping
    d. All of the above
2109: A fire is discovered in the forepeak of a vessel at sea. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should __________.

    a. change course and put the stern to the wind
    b. remain on course and hold speed
    c. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed
    d. remain on course but slack the speed
2110: You have 650 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 140 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.5 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

    a. 15 tons
    b. 48 tons
    c. 83 tons
    d. 140 tons
2111: The hinge fitting used to attach the boom to the mast is the __________.

    a. gooseneck
    b. step
    c. swivel
    d. pintle
2112: You are sailing the navigable waters of the United States. You must have a currently corrected copy (or extract) of the __________.

    a. List of Lights
    b. Tide Tables
    c. Sailing Directions
    d. H.O. 249 Sight Reduction Tables
2113: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 2865 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.8 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0050

    a. KG 26.2 feet
    b. KG 27.4 feet
    c. KG 28.5 feet
    d. KG 29.5 feet
2114: You have hand launched an inflatable liferaft. What should be one of your FIRST actions after all persons have boarded the liferaft?

    a. Open the equipment pack.
    b. Inflate the liferaft floor.
    c. Decide on food and water rations.
    d. Cut the sea painter and clear the vessel.
2116: You have 10 containers of rig supplies each measuring 10'L by 6'B by 6'H and weighing 1.8 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (See illustration D037DG, stability letter for M.V. Surveyor) (D037DG )

    a. 0.94 foot
    b. 1.36 feet
    c. 1.78 feet
    d. 1.96 feet
2118: You have 50 containers of ships stores each measuring 6'L by 4'B by 3'H and weighing 0.4 ton each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (D037DG )

    a. 1.50 feet
    b. 2.25 feet
    c. 2.66 feet
    d. 2.91 feet
2119: Your vessel displaces 475 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 2.6 feet above the deck and weighs 22 tons. If you load 16 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 8 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?

    a. 1.64 feet
    b. 1.79 feet
    c. 1.96 feet
    d. 2.14 feet
2120: You have 480 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 200 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.8 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

    a. 34 tons
    b. 62 tons
    c. 134 tons
    d. 186 tons
2121: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________.

    a. smoke flares
    b. a life line
    c. a hydrostatic release
    d. a signal mirror
2122: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-00", AFT 6'-06". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 17 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

    a. 14 tons
    b. 18 tons
    c. 24 tons
    d. 33 tons
2123: Your oceangoing vessel has medical waste to be disposed of ashore. How many hours advance notice must you give the port or terminal?

    a. 6
    b. 12
    c. 24
    d. 48
2124: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 25.8 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 15'-02", AFT 15'-10"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

    a. 73°
    b. 79°
    c. 87°
    d. 98°
2125: Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft?

    a. The Chief Mate
    b. An approved servicing facility
    c. Shipyard personnel
    d. A certificated lifeboatman
2126: Which spaces are required to be segregated from cargo tanks carrying grades A, B, C, or D cargoes?

    a. Pump rooms
    b. Enclosed deck spaces
    c. Cofferdams
    d. Navigation spaces
2127: On vessels on an international voyage, each inflatable liferaft shall have a carrying capacity of not less than __________.

    a. 50 percent of all persons on board
    b. 75 percent of all persons on board
    c. 6 persons
    d. 10 persons
2128: Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-04". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 10 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

    a. 14.8 tons
    b. 18.0 tons
    c. 25.0 tons
    d. 32.0 tons
2129: Which of the following statements relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?

    a. The AMVER system does not reduce the time lost for vessels responding to calls for assistance.
    b. An AMVER participant is not relieved of the obligation to give 24 hour advance notice to the U.S. Coast Guard before entering a U.S. port from offshore.
    c. There is no cost to the ship or owner for messages sent within the AMVER system.
    d. An AMVER participant is under greater obligation to render assistance to a vessel in distress than a non-participant.
2130: You have 300 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 180 tons with a VCG above the deck of 1.9 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

    a. 108 tons
    b. 124 tons
    c. 162 tons
    d. 342 tons
2131: When a person is in shock, their skin will be __________.

    a. warm and dry
    b. warm and damp
    c. cold and dry
    d. cold and damp
2132: On which vessels is GMDSS required?

    a. All vessels capable of international voyages
    b. Vessels operating outside of the range of VHF coastal radio stations
    c. SOLAS Convention ships of 300 gross tonnage or more.
    d. Coastal vessels of less than 300 gross tons
2133: If a vessel is sagging, which kind of stress is placed on the sheer strake?

    a. Compression
    b. Racking
    c. Tension
    d. Thrust
2134: The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of the air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample registers 55 on the instrument. What is the concentration of gases?

    a. 55%
    b. 5.5%
    c. 4.1%
    d. 0.7%
2135: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0051

    a. 395 tons
    b. 530 tons
    c. 750 tons
    d. 990 tons
2136: A vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-08", AFT 20'-10". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 195 tons of cargo are discharged 76 feet forward of amidships.

    a. FWD 19'-07", AFT 20'-10"
    b. FWD 19'-09", AFT 21'-01"
    c. FWD 20'-00", AFT 21'-00"
    d. FWD 20'-01", AFT 21'-05"
2137: Where would you find the FCC authorization for transmitting on your rig's EPIRB?

    a. On the Ship Station License
    b. On the side of the EPIRB transmitter
    c. In the radio log
    d. On the Certificate of Inspection
2139: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 24.0 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 28'-01", AFT 28'-06"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

    a. 64°
    b. 71°
    c. 77°
    d. 82°
2140: You have 700 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 200 tons with a VCG above the deck of 3.0 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? (See illustration D036DG, stability letter for M.V. Hudson.) (D036DG )

    a. 20 tons
    b. 50 tons
    c. 80 tons
    d. 210 tons
2141: How often is a drill on the use of the line throwing appliance required to be held on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

    a. Once a month
    b. Once a year
    c. Once a week
    d. Once every three months
2142: What is meant by the term "overhaul" in firefighting?

    a. Slow down the spread of fire by cooling adjacent structures
    b. Cover the fire with foam
    c. Smother the fire with a blanket or similar object
    d. Break up solid objects to ensure that any deep seated fires are extinguished
2146: Aboard damaged vessels, the MOST important consideration is preserving __________.

    a. bilge pumping capacity
    b. reserve buoyancy
    c. level attitude
    d. instability
2147: Each life preserver must be readily accessible to the person for whom it is intended while he or she is __________.

    a. at work, only
    b. in his or her berthing area, only
    c. BOTH at work and in his or her berthing area
    d. None of the above
2148: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-07". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 142 tons of fuel are pumped 86 feet aft.

    a. FWD 18'-09", AFT 22'-01"
    b. FWD 19'-00", AFT 21'-01"
    c. FWD 19'-00", AFT 21'-08"
    d. FWD 19'-01", AFT 21'-04"
2149: On a barge carrying grade A cargo, who determines where smoking may be permitted during a loading operation?

    a. The OCMI who issued the Certificate of Inspection
    b. The certificated tankerman on duty
    c. The vessel owner
    d. Smoking is not permitted during a loading operation.
2150: You have approximately 6 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 7 feet? (total displacement is 422 tons)

    a. 0.1 foot
    b. 0.3 foot
    c. 0.5 foot
    d. 0.9 foot
2151: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0052

    a. Available GM 6.9 ft
    b. Available GM 5.3 ft
    c. Available GM 4.1 ft
    d. Available GM 3.8 ft
2152: You have 6 containers of ship stores each measuring 8'L by 4'B by 6'H and weighing 0.5 ton each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (See illustration D037DG, stability letter for M.V. Surveyor) (D037DG )

    a. 1.06 feet
    b. 1.32 feet
    c. 1.65 feet
    d. 1.90 feet
2153: On offshore drilling units each ring life buoy must be marked, in a contrasting color, with the unit's __________.

    a. name and port of registry
    b. owner and port of registry
    c. port of registry and identification number
    d. name and owner
2154: What is the basic concept of GMDSS?

    a. Search and rescue authorities ashore can be alerted to a distress situation.
    b. Shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in distress will be rapidly alerted.
    c. Shoreside authorities and vessels can assist in a coordinated SAR operation with minimum delay.
    d. All of the above
2155: When sailing with the wind aft, a vessel may carry sails on both sides at the same time. The sails are __________.

    a. wing and wing
    b. luffed
    c. reefed
    d. cringled
2156: The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of the air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample registered 55 on the instrument's dial. What is the concentration of flammable gases?

    a. 0.7%
    b. 4.1%
    c. 5.5%
    d. 55%
2157: On offshore drilling units, each EPIRB or SART must be tested once every __________.

    a. day
    b. week
    c. month
    d. year
2158: You have approximately 15 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 300 tons)

    a. 0.1 foot
    b. 0.2 foot
    c. 0.3 foot
    d. 0.4 foot
2159: Your vessel displaces 528 tons. The existing cargo has a center of gravity of 2.9 feet above the deck and weighs 28 tons. If you load 14 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 9 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?

    a. 1.76 feet
    b. 1.93 feet
    c. 2.18 feet
    d. 2.43 feet
2160: You have approximately 29 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 5 feet? (total displacement is 483 tons)

    a. 0.3 foot
    b. 0.4 foot
    c. 0.5 foot
    d. 0.6 foot
2161: You are in a survival craft broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?

    a. The nature of the distress
    b. The time of day
    c. Your radio call sign
    d. Your position by latitude and longitude
2162: Which tank barges require draft marks?

    a. Tank barges over 50 GT
    b. Tank barges over 100 GT
    c. Notch barges over 1000 GT
    d. All tank barges
2163: You are approaching a small vessel and see that it has the signal flag "T" hoisted. What should you do?

    a. Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is stopped and making no way through the water.
    b. Keep clear of the vessel because it is engaged in pair trawling.
    c. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because it requires assistance.
    d. Keep clear of the vessel because it has a diver down.
2164: Your vessel is damaged, listing to port and on occasion flopping to the same angle to starboard. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll around the angle of list. There is excessive trim by the stern with little freeboard aft. What action should you take FIRST to correct this situation?

    a. Jettison any off-center topside weights to lower GM and correct the list.
    b. Pump out any slack after double-bottom tanks to reduce free surface and increase freeboard aft.
    c. Pump out the after peak and fill the forepeak to change the trim.
    d. Press up any slack double-bottom tanks forward of the tipping center, then fill the forepeak if empty.
2165: A schooner is a fore-and-aft rigged vessel with __________.

    a. a single mast
    b. two masts: with the mizzen stepped abaft the rudder post
    c. two masts: with the mizzen stepped forward of the rudder post
    d. at least two masts: a foremast and a mainmast
2168: When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under which type of stress?

    a. compression
    b. tension
    c. shear
    d. racking
2169: The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial and remain there. What is the concentration of flammable gas?

    a. 0
    b. 1.3 to 7.6%
    c. over 7.6%
    d. over 100%
2170: You have approximately 60 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 960 tons)

    a. 0.6 foot
    b. 0.5 foot
    c. 0.4 foot
    d. 0.3 foot
2171: The approval period for a shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan expires after __________.

    a. two years
    b. three years
    c. four years
    d. five years
2172: Your vessel displaces 560 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 4.5 feet above the deck and weighs 34 tons. If you load 10 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.8 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?

    a. 4.11 feet
    b. 4.36 feet
    c. 4.57 feet
    d. 4.78 feet
2173: Which statement concerning exposure to radiation is TRUE?

    a. The INMARSAT unit's ray dome filters out potentially dangerous UV rays.
    b. Certain INMARSAT systems will automatically transmit when called and can expose an individual to harmful radiation.
    c. INMARSAT-A and B antennas are safe because they are omnidirectional.
    d. An INMARSAT-C antenna must be carefully avoided because it focuses the transmitter's signal into a fine beam of energy.
2174: You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial then fall to zero. What is the concentration of flammable gas?

    a. Less than the flammable range
    b. Within the flammable range
    c. Over the flammable range
    d. The explosimeter is defective and giving a false reading.
2175: To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.

    a. be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other survivors in the water
    b. float on their backs with their arms extended for maximum exposure to the air
    c. remove their life preservers and hold on to the uninjured survivors
    d. sip water at intervals of fifteen minutes
2176: According to regulations, cargo pump rooms, on the tank vessels handling grades A, B, or C liquid cargo, shall be equipped with power ventilation of the exhaust type having capacity sufficient to effect a complete change of air in not more than __________.

    a. 1 minute
    b. 2 minutes
    c. 3 minutes
    d. 5 minutes
2177: What is the primary equipment for receiving MSI?

    a. SART
    b. EPIRB
    c. NAVTEX
    d. INMARSAT-B
2178: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-05". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft by 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 20 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded while maintaining the same trim? (D037DG )

    a. none
    b. 10.5 tons
    c. 14.0 tons
    d. 17.5 tons
2180: You have approximately 16 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 640 tons)

    a. 0.1 foot
    b. 0.2 foot
    c. 0.3 foot
    d. 0.4 foot
2181: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should __________.

    a. shut off all electrical power
    b. close all openings to the area
    c. remove combustibles from direct exposure
    d. cool the bulkheads around the fire
2182: Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-02". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 8 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 11 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? (D037DG )

    a. None
    b. 10 tons
    c. 18 tons
    d. 24 tons
2183: On offshore drilling units, all lifeboats are required to be marked with the __________.

    a. name and port of the unit
    b. owner and port of the unit
    c. drilling location
    d. builder
2184: Your vessel is damaged and is listing to port. The rolling period is short. There is sufficient freeboard so that deck edge submersion is not a problem. What corrective action should be taken FIRST in regard to the vessel's stability?

    a. Press up any slack double-bottom tanks to eliminate free surface
    b. Flood any empty double-bottom tanks to add weight low and down
    c. Jettison topside weights to reduce KG and KB
    d. Shift any off-center weights from port to starboard
2185: On offshore drilling units, all lifeboats are required to be marked with the __________.

    a. name of the owner of the unit
    b. number of persons allowed in the boat
    c. drilling location of the unit
    d. All of the above
2186: Which statement is TRUE concerning cargo hose on tank barges?

    a. Cargo hose must be able to withstand the shut-off head plus the static head of the cargo pump.
    b. Cargo hose must be able to withstand the static head of the cargo pump but no less than 100 psi.
    c. Cargo hose must be able to withstand the shut-off head less the static head of the cargo pump but no less than 100 psi.
    d. Cargo hose must be able to withstand at least 150 psi.
2187: What is a functional or carriage requirement for compulsory vessels?

    a. A compulsory vessel must carry at least two FCC licensed GMDSS Radio Operators.
    b. A compulsory vessel must satisfy certain equipment carriage requirements that are determined by where the vessel sails.
    c. A compulsory vessel must be able to transmit and respond to Distress alerts.
    d. All of the above
2188: You have 6 containers of rig supplies each measuring 8'L by 4'B by 3'H and weighing 1.6 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity? (D037DG )

    a. 0.4 foot
    b. 0.9 foot
    c. 1.75 feet
    d. 2.18 feet
2189: Changing direction by bringing the stern of the vessel through the eye of the wind is known as __________.

    a. jibing
    b. running before the wind
    c. tacking
    d. reefing
2190: You have approximately 24 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 540 tons)

    a. 0.14 foot
    b. 0.23 foot
    c. 0.36 foot
    d. 0.44 foot
2191: A fishing vessel that is required to have a fireman's outfit, must have all of the following in the outfit except a __________.

    a. flashlight
    b. combustible gas indicator
    c. self-contained breathing apparatus
    d. fire axe
2192: Your vessel displaces 689 tons and measures 123'L x 31'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck which measures 65'Lx 31'B. The weight of the water is estimated at 62 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard?

    a. 5.51 feet
    b. 5.67 feet
    c. 5.89 feet
    d. 6.14 feet
2193: On offshore drilling units, the lifeboats' fuel tanks must be emptied and the fuel changed at least once every __________.

    a. 12 months
    b. 24 months
    c. 36 months
    d. 48 months
2194: Your vessel is damaged with no list, but down by the stern. There is progressive flooding and trim by the stern is increasing. What is the effect on transverse stability after the deck edge at the stern is submerged?

    a. KB increases, increasing BM and therefore GM
    b. KG increases due to the weight of the added water on deck
    c. BM decreases from loss of water plane and greater volume.
    d. There is no effect on transverse stability.
2195: Who is charged with appointing persons to be in command of the lifeboats and(or) liferafts on a mobile offshore drilling unit?

    a. Rig superintendent
    b. Tool Pusher
    c. Company man
    d. Designated person in charge
2196: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND You are on a sailing vessel with the wind on the starboard side and are approaching another sailing vessel that has the wind on the port side. Which action should you take?

    a. Reduce sail and hold course.
    b. Alter course away from the other vessel.
    c. Maintain course and speed.
    d. Any maneuver to avoid collision.
2197: A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position provided that all personnel __________.

    a. are seated with seat belts on and doors shut
    b. are seated with seat belts on and doors open
    c. are to shift to one side to right it
    d. escape from the craft
2198: Which statement is TRUE concerning a sailing vessel with the sails properly trimmed?

    a. The more the sails are sheeted in, the greater your speed will be when sailing downwind.
    b. As the sails are sheeted in, the vessel will heel less when close hauled.
    c. As the sails are sheeted in on a close hauled course, speed will increase as the side forces on the vessel decrease.
    d. Sheeting in the sails will allow the vessel to sail closer to the wind but will decrease speed.
2199: Your vessel displaces 564 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 1.5 feet above the deck and weighs 41 tons. If you load 22 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.5 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?

    a. 1.62 feet
    b. 1.85 feet
    c. 2.10 feet
    d. 2.46 feet
2200: To check stability, a weight of 35 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, whose head is 35 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer shows a list of 7.0° with the weight suspended. Displacement including the weight is 14,000 tons. The GM in this condition is __________.

    a. 0.71 foot
    b. 0.95 foot
    c. 1.26 feet
    d. 2.01 feet
2201: The name of the fishing vessel is NOT required to be marked on a(n) __________.

    a. EPIRB
    b. inflatable liferaft
    c. life float
    d. buoyant apparatus
2202: Which approved lifesaving device is required for each person on board a motor vessel carrying passengers?

    a. Buoyant cushion
    b. Buoyant vest
    c. Life jacket
    d. Ring life buoy
2203: Who is responsible for lowering the survival craft?

    a. Roustabout
    b. First man aboard
    c. Last man aboard
    d. Helmsman
2204: Which communications functions must all vessels be capable of performing under GMDSS as defined by the International Maritime Organization?

    a. Radio direction finding
    b. Distress alerting to and from vessels, search and rescue coordination, on-scene communications, signals for locating, Maritime Safety Information, general and bridge-to-bridge communications.
    c. Communications in each of the operational ocean areas
    d. All communications possible within the International Safety-NET service
2205: You board an inflatable liferaft that has been hand launched from a sinking vessel. What should you do FIRST after everyone is onboard the liferaft?

    a. Cut the painter.
    b. Operate the radio equipment.
    c. Open the equipment pack.
    d. Ventilate the liferaft of CO2.
2206: Which action will NOT reduce heeling of a vessel when sailing on a tack?

    a. Heading up until your sails begin to luff
    b. Easing sheets
    c. Reefing sails
    d. Changing to larger sails
2207: You are keeping the required garbage disposal records. The amount of garbage disposed must be stated in __________.

    a. both cubic meters and cubic feet
    b. cubic meters
    c. both kilos and pounds
    d. barrels of 55 gallon capacity
2208: Your 20-ton ketch-rigged sailing vessel is sailing close hauled on the port tack in a moderate breeze with all sails properly trimmed. You wish to bear off quickly to avoid a floating hazard. To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________.

    a. slack the jib sheet
    b. slack the mizzen sheet
    c. put your rudder hard to port
    d. All of the above
2209: What are the health hazard ratings for a product of triethylbenzene?

    a. 1,1,1
    b. 2,2,2
    c. 0,1,1
    d. Unavailable
2210: To check stability, a weight of 10 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom whose head is 45 ft. from the ship's centerline. The clinometer show's a list of 5.0° with weight suspended. Displacement including the weight is 9,000 tons. The GM while in this condition is __________.

    a. 0.57 foot
    b. 0.72 foot
    c. 0.96 foot
    d. 1.25 feet
2211: You discharge garbage overboard at sea. When recording your vessel's position as required, you must include __________.

    a. latitude, longitude and estimated distance from shore
    b. latitude, longitude and approximate depth of water
    c. latitude, longitude, course, speed, and a copy of that days noon position slip
    d. Latitude and longitude only
2212: In order to maintain speed while changing course from a close reach to a broad reach, the sails should be __________.

    a. lowered
    b. reefed
    c. hauled in
    d. eased out
2213: When abandoning a MODU, after launching the survival craft you should __________.

    a. plot a course for the nearest land
    b. take a vote on which direction you should go
    c. stay in the immediate area
    d. go in one direction until fuel runs out
2214: Which statement concerning maintenance requirements is FALSE?

    a. Compulsory vessels sailing in Sea Areas A1 and A2 must provide any one of the three maintenance options which are duplication of equipment, shore based or at-sea maintenance capability.
    b. Compulsory vessels sailing in Areas A3 and A4 must provide any two of the three maintenance options which are duplication of equipment, shore based or at-sea maintenance capability.
    c. If shore-based maintenance is used, maintenance services do not have to be completed or performance verified unless the vessel will be sailing to a non-US port.
    d. Equipment warranties do not satisfy GMDSS maintenance requirements.
2215: If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon a MODU in a survival craft, you should __________.

    a. go in one direction until the fuel runs out
    b. plot a course for the nearest land
    c. take a vote on which direction you should go
    d. shut down the engine(s) and set the sea anchor
2216: Which statement is generally correct regarding the maintenance requirements for ships under GMDSS?

    a. Redundancy of functions of certain equipment will partially meet this requirement.
    b. On-board maintenance provided by a person holding a GMDSS maintainer's license will partially meet the requirements.
    c. Shoreside maintenance and scheduled tests and inspections will partially meet this requirement.
    d. All of the above
2217: Steering a survival craft broadside to the sea could cause it to __________.

    a. capsize
    b. run smoother
    c. run faster
    d. sink
2218: The maximum length allowed between main, transverse bulkheads on a vessel is referred to as the __________.

    a. floodable length
    b. factor of subdivision
    c. compartment standard
    d. permissible length
2219: Each buoyant work vest must be __________.

    a. U.S. Coast Guard approved
    b. marked with the name of the vessel
    c. equipped with a water light
    d. All of the above
2220: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0053

    a. 395 tons
    b. 530 tons
    c. 750 tons
    d. 990 tons
2221: In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________.

    a. into the seas
    b. broadside to the seas
    c. in the same direction as the seas
    d. in a series of figure-eights
2222: Which system is most likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances?

    a. MF/HF radiotelephony
    b. VHF DSC
    c. INMARSAT
    d. SafetyNET
2223: Knowing the compass heading that is 90° to the side of a MODU will enable the operator of a survival craft to initially steer __________.

    a. into the wind
    b. away in fire and smoke
    c. directly to the standby boat
    d. directly to the nearest land
2224: Your vessel is drifting with the wind broad on the port beam. The marconi sail is set and flapping free. As you sheet in the maximum drive is attained when the sail __________.

    a. is at right angles to the true wind
    b. first takes the shape of an airfoil
    c. is filled with a slight flap at the leech
    d. is 45° from the apparent wind
2225: Which system is least likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances?

    a. NAVTEX
    b. INMARSAT
    c. MF NBDP
    d. HF NBDP
2225: Which system is least likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances?

    a. NAVTEX
    b. INMARSAT
    c. MF NBDP
    d. HF NBDP
2226: You are sailing on a close reach when a strong wind suddenly heels the vessel hard over. To reduce the heeling and yet maintain speed, you should __________.

    a. ease the mainsheet and bear more away from the wind
    b. haul in on the mainsheet and steer more towards the wind
    c. haul in on the mainsheet and ease the jib sheet
    d. ease all sheets and bear more into the wind
2227: When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air they are used for __________.

    a. an air supply for personnel
    b. additional flotation
    c. priming the sprinkler system
    d. filling the self righting bags
2228: Your sails are properly trimmed while on a reaching course. Changing to a close hauled course will __________.

    a. require you to sheet in for best speed
    b. result in a reduction of speed
    c. cause a greater heeling force to leeward
    d. All of the above
2229: To get the best speed when tacking and using a mainsail and jib, the sails should be trimmed such that __________.

    a. the jib is on one side of the vessel and the mainsail on the other
    b. an air slot is formed between the two sails
    c. one sail is as close to a right angle as possible to the other
    d. as much of a gap as possible exists between the two sails in order to catch the most wind
2230: To check stability, a weight of 40 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, whose head is 40 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer shows a list of 6.5° with the weight suspended. Displacement including weight is 16,000 tons. The GM while in this condition is __________.

    a. 0.21 foot
    b. 0.43 foot
    c. 0.88 foot
    d. 1.02 feet
2232: Your vessel is sailing on a port tack when a sudden gust of wind heels the vessel sharply to starboard. Which action will reduce the heeling of the vessel?

    a. Attempt to sail the vessel closer to the wind
    b. Ease the sheets to allow air flow to spill off the sail
    c. Shift weight to the port side of the vessel
    d. Any of the above
2233: You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________.

    a. call for assistance
    b. abandon ship to windward
    c. keep going at half speed
    d. put the vessel's stern into the wind
2234: As a vessel falls off the wind from close-hauled to a beam reach, the tendency for the vessel to move sideways through the water will __________.

    a. increase
    b. decrease
    c. change only if the vessel comes about on the opposite tack
    d. not change
2235: You are aboard a vessel which is near a platform engaged in oil exploration. Under U.S. pollution regulations, you may NOT discharge garbage if you are within __________.

    a. 1650 feet (500 meters)
    b. 1750 feet (533 meters)
    c. 1970 feet (600 meters)
    d. 2500 feet (762 meters)
2236: A vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 25'-11". The present drafts are: FWD 24'-10", AFT 23'-02". How much more cargo can be loaded and where should it be located if a drag of 18 inches is desired? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 345 tons 124 feet aft of the tipping center
    b. 525 tons 18 feet forward of the tipping center
    c. 640 tons 74 feet aft of the tipping center
    d. 690 tons 62 feet aft of the tipping center
2237: Topside icing decreases vessel stability because it increases __________.

    a. displacement
    b. free surface
    c. draft
    d. KG
2238: Which system has the least effective radius of operation?

    a. HF SITOR
    b. MF NBDP
    c. VHF DSC
    d. NAVTEX
2239: You can slow or stop a sailing vessel by __________.

    a. put the wind off the beam and sheet in
    b. put the wind off the stern and ease all sheets
    c. bring the vessel's head into the wind and let the sails luff
    d. raise the centerboard when running before the wind
2240: What is classified as a combustible liquid?

    a. Acetaldehyde
    b. Ethyl alcohol
    c. Carbon tetrachloride
    d. Tetraethylene glycol
2241: If the survival craft is not loaded to full capacity, the personnel should be __________.

    a. loaded more on the port side forward
    b. loaded equally on both sides with more forward
    c. loaded equally on both sides with more aft
    d. allowed to sit anywhere
2242: An example of a grade B product is __________.

    a. piperyline
    b. motor gasoline
    c. kerosene
    d. mineral spirits
2243: Aboard a survival craft, ether can be used to __________.

    a. start the engine in cold weather
    b. aid in helping personnel breathe
    c. prime the sprinkler system
    d. prime the air supply
2244: According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flash point for the grade B flammable liquid piperylene is __________.

    a. -20°F
    b. 43°C
    c. 108°F
    d. not available
2245: The backup system on an electric start survival craft is a __________.

    a. hydraulic system
    b. pneumatic system
    c. spare battery
    d. hand crank
2246: What would be classified as grade "C" petroleum product?

    a. Reid vapor pressure of 14 psia, flash point of 60°F.
    b. Reid vapor pressure of 7 psia, flash point of 85°F.
    c. Reid vapor pressure of 5 psia, flash point of 70°F.
    d. Reid vapor pressure above 8 1/2 psia but less than 14 psia.
2247: When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival craft should __________.

    a. tie up to the rescue vessel
    b. transfer only those personnel who are not seasick
    c. wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel
    d. transfer all personnel immediately
2248: A product is classified at grade B when it has a Reid vapor pressure of __________.

    a. 7 psia and a flash point of 80°F
    b. more than 8 1/2 psia but less than 14 psia and a flash point of 72°F
    c. 9 1/2 psia and a flash point of 95°F
    d. above 14 psia
2249: A cargo of 40 tons is to be lifted with a boom located 40 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the suspended cargo is 8,000 tons and the GM is 2 feet with cargo suspended. What will the list of the vessel be with the cargo suspended?

    a. 4.9°
    b. 5.2°
    c. 5.7°
    d. 6.0°
2250: Which cargo is considered volatile?

    a. Bunker C
    b. Turkey-red oil
    c. Sweet oil
    d. iso-Propylamine
2251: What will NOT decrease the stability of a vessel?

    a. Topside icing
    b. Running with a following sea
    c. Using 35% of the fuel in a full tank
    d. Lowering a weight suspended by a boom onto the deck
2252: According to the Chemical Data Guide, piperylene possesses which characteristic?

    a. Specific Gravity of 0.86
    b. A boiling point of 43°F
    c. A Reid vapor pressure of 14 psia
    d. Insoluble in water
2253: Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will __________.

    a. reduce your drift rate
    b. keep the survival craft from turning over
    c. aid in recovering the survival craft
    d. increase your visibility
2254: According to the Chemical Data Guide, 1,3 - pentadiene possesses which characteristic?

    a. Colorless liquid, mild aromatic odor
    b. Pale yellow liquid, strong odor
    c. Colorless liquid, faint odor
    d. Straw-colored liquid, sweet-odor
2255: The survival capsule is manufactured with fire retardant __________.

    a. foam
    b. marine plywood
    c. steel
    d. fiberglass
2256: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0054

    a. Available GM 6.8 ft
    b. Available GM 5.4 ft
    c. Available GM 4.1 ft
    d. Available GM 3.6 ft
2257: The survival craft's engine is fueled with __________.

    a. kerosene
    b. unleaded gasoline
    c. diesel oil
    d. liquefied gas
2258: According to the Chemical Data Guide, to what chemical family does 1,3 - pentadiene belong?

    a. Unsaturated hydrocarbons
    b. Esters
    c. Phosphorus
    d. Olefins
2259: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 24.2 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 23'-00"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

    a. 72°
    b. 78°
    c. 86°
    d. 92°
2260: You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 18,000 T. The 50-ton weight is on the pier, and its center is 75 feet to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 112 feet above the base line, and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 56 feet above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain, the ship lists 3.5°. What is the GM when the cargo is stowed?

    a. 3.19 feet
    b. 3.24 feet
    c. 3.40 feet
    d. 3.56 feet
2261: If the engine of a survival craft does not start, check to see __________.

    a. that the fuel valve is open
    b. if the air supply system is open
    c. if the water sprinkler system is open
    d. if the limit switch is on
2262: What is the Vapor pressure of ethylene oxide at 46 °C?

    a. 10.9 (psia)
    b. 38.5 (psia)
    c. 48.0 (psia)
    d. 15.2 (psia)
2264: Where a propeller shaft passes through the hull, water is prevented from entering by means of a __________.

    a. stuffing box
    b. propeller boss
    c. seacock
    d. stop-water
2265: A right-handed propeller will cause the survival craft to __________.

    a. walk the stern to starboard in reverse
    b. walk the stern to port in reverse
    c. run faster than a left-handed propeller
    d. right itself if capsized
2266: Which fire extinguishing agent can NOT be used on an ethylenediamine?

    a. Water foam
    b. Dry chemical powder
    c. Water fog
    d. Alcohol foam
2267: During the towing of a survival craft, a lookout should be on station to __________.

    a. release the towline in an emergency
    b. help the helmsman steer
    c. look for food and water
    d. check the water level in the bilge
2268: To what chemical family does chlorallylene belong?

    a. Alcohols
    b. Esters
    c. Glycol ethers
    d. Substituted allyl
2269: To what chemical family does ethylene oxide belong?

    a. Glycol ethers
    b. Alkylene oxides
    c. Esters
    d. Alcohols
2270: When a vessel is inclined at a small angle the center of buoyancy will __________.

    a. remain stationary
    b. move toward the low side
    c. move toward the high side
    d. move to the height of the metacenter
2271: When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you should __________.

    a. plot a course for the nearest land
    b. take a vote on which direction you should go
    c. stay in the immediate area
    d. go in one direction until fuel runs out
2272: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is NOT a characteristic of allyl chloride?

    a. It has a Reid vapor pressure of 10.3 (psig).
    b. It is a clear to strawberry colored liquid.
    c. It has sour odor.
    d. It is classified as a grade B poison.
2273: During an abandonment or drill, the first person to arrive at the survival craft should __________.

    a. pass out food and water to personnel
    b. open the doors and start the sprinkler system
    c. activate the emergency release handle
    d. open the doors and prepare the craft for boarding
2274: A virtual rise in the center of gravity may be caused by __________.

    a. filling a partially filled tank
    b. using an on board crane to lift a freely swinging heavy object
    c. emptying a partially filled tank
    d. transferring ballast from the forepeak to the after peak
2275: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND Your 18-meter vessel is propelled by sail and power. What action is required when the engine is stopped?

    a. Display a black diamond shape forward.
    b. Remove the black cone shape from forward.
    c. Remove the black balls (one at the masthead and one on each spreader).
    d. Display a black cylindrical shape at the masthead.
2276: What is the Reid vapor pressure of allyl chloride?

    a. 16.5 (psia)
    b. 14.0 (psia)
    c. 12.9 (psia)
    d. 10.3 (psia)
2277: What periodic inspection is required in order to remain in compliance with the regulations regarding GMDSS ship radio station inspections?

    a. U.S. Coast Guard annual inspection
    b. An inspection at least once every 12 months by the FCC or a holder of a GMDSS Maintainers license
    c. FCC inspection every five years
    d. Periodic inspections not required if on board maintainers perform routine preventive maintenance
2278: A cargo of 75 tons is to be lifted with a boom located 50 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the suspended cargo is 6,000 tons and GM is 6 feet. The list of the ship with the cargo suspended from the boom will be __________.

    a. 5.00°
    b. 5.40°
    c. 5.94°
    d. 6.50°
2279: According to the Chemical Data Guide, when burning, the grade B flammable liquid, carbon disulfide produces __________.

    a. phosgene gas
    b. sulfuric acid gas
    c. sulfur dioxide gas
    d. carbon tetrachloride
2280: A vessel displaces 140,000 cubic feet of saltwater in a light condition. After loading 7500 tons of cargo and 200 tons of fuel, water and stores, she is "full and down". The vessel's light displacement is __________.

    a. 3000 tons
    b. 3500 tons
    c. 4000 tons
    d. 4500 tons
2281: When retrieving the survival craft, the winch operator should stop the winch and check __________.

    a. that all personnel are seated in the craft
    b. that the cable has not jumped any grooves on the drum
    c. which way the wind is blowing
    d. the hydraulic fluid level before lifting
2283: Sails may be wing and wing when_____________.

    a. tacking
    b. on a close reach
    c. sailing with the wind aft
    d. anchored or drifting
2284: The flammable limits for crude oil are __________.

    a. 1% to 6% mixture in air
    b. 20% to 40% mixture in air
    c. 0% to 1% mixture in air
    d. unavailable
2285: When retrieving the survival craft, the helmsman should instruct the crewman to __________.

    a. check the fuel level
    b. open the doors
    c. take the life preservers off
    d. check that hooks are fully locked in place
2286: What is the boiling point of carbon disulfide?

    a. 167°F
    b. 115°F
    c. 111°F
    d. 46°F
2287: The limit switches on a MODUs survival-craft winch system __________.

    a. stop the winch just before the craft reaches the final stowage position
    b. limit the amount of cable on the drum
    c. limit the ascent rate
    d. stop the winch in case the craft weighs too much
2288: A major health hazard of the product tert-butylamine is that it______.

    a. can be absorbed through the skin
    b. causes irreversible damage to eye tissue
    c. is a very unstable product
    d. All of the above
2289: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is the Reid Vapor Pressure of tert-butylamine?

    a. 11 (psig)
    b. 12 (psig)
    c. 13 (psig)
    d. 14 (psig)
2290: In order to calculate the TPI of a vessel, for any given draft, it is necessary to divide the area of the waterplane by __________.

    a. 35
    b. 120
    c. 240
    d. 420
2291: The purpose for the bag or box on top of some survival craft is to __________.

    a. right the craft in case of capsizing
    b. increase area for radar detection
    c. act as a sail in case of a power loss
    d. steady the craft in heavy seas
2292: Grade D liquids are those having flash points of __________.

    a. 80°F or less
    b. greater than 80°F and less than 150°F
    c. 150°F or greater but less than 212°F
    d. 212°F or greater
2294: Which extinguishing agent is NOT recommended in the Chemical Data Guide for use on a cyclohexane fire?

    a. Foam
    b. Carbon dioxide
    c. Dry chemical
    d. Water fog
2295: All MODU personnel should be familiar with the survival craft's __________.

    a. boarding and operating procedures
    b. maintenance schedule
    c. navigational systems
    d. fuel consumption rates
2296: Regulations require that cargo pumps in tank vessels carrying grade D liquid cargo shall be isolated from sources of vapor ignition by __________.

    a. cofferdams
    b. gastight bulkheads
    c. passageways or living quarters
    d. general cargo spaces
2297: Each fire pump on a tankship must have a pressure gauge located at __________.

    a. the pump discharge
    b. the manifold connection
    c. each fire station discharge
    d. the pump station
2298: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3684 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 28.4 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0055

    a. KG 27.0 feet
    b. KG 27.6 feet
    c. KG 28.2 feet
    d. KG 28.8 feet
2299: The first treatment given to a person overcome by benzene vapor should be to __________.

    a. remove them to fresh air
    b. flush their face with water for about 5 minutes
    c. stand them up and walk them around
    d. remove their clothing and wrap them in blankets
2301: If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should first __________.

    a. abandon the survival craft
    b. check for cracks in the hull
    c. shift all personnel to the stern
    d. check the bilge drain plug
2302: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0056

    a. Available GM 6.8 ft
    b. Available GM 5.4 ft
    c. Available GM 4.1 ft
    d. Available GM 3.6 ft
2303: The air cylinder bottles in the survival craft should be refilled with __________.

    a. oxygen
    b. nitrogen
    c. compressed air
    d. nitrogen and oxygen
2304: Regulations require that cargo pumprooms handling grades D and/or E liquid cargo only shall be fitted with at LEAST how many ducts extended to the weather deck?

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
2305: With the sprinkler system and air system on and all hatches shut, the survival craft will provide protection from a __________.

    a. nuclear environment
    b. fire and toxic environment
    c. hurricane
    d. drop greater than 10 feet
2306: Which flash point would indicate a grade D combustible liquid?

    a. 40°F
    b. 95°F
    c. 79°F
    d. 155°F
2307: Why does a centrifugal bilge pump require priming?

    a. To lubricate shaft seals
    b. Lack of ability to lift water level to impellers
    c. Head pressure must equal discharge pressure
    d. To overcome resistance of water in the discharge line
2309: Your vessel is preparing to lift a weight of 30 tons with a boom whose head is 30 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement not including the weight lifted is 8,790 tons. KM is 21.5 ft; KG is 20.5 ft. The angle of list when the weight is lifted will be __________.

    a. 1.4°
    b. 2.8°
    c. 3.4°
    d. 5.8°
2310: A fire pump may be used for other purposes if __________.

    a. the other services are run off a reducing station with a pressure gage
    b. one of the required pumps is kept available for use on the fire main system at all times
    c. no relief valves are installed
    d. all of the above conditions are met
2311: What causes cavitation in a centrifugal pump?

    a. Vapor pockets in the flow stream
    b. Rough impeller surfaces
    c. Worn wearing rings
    d. Heavy fluid in the flow stream
2312: Which statement is TRUE concerning the short exposure tolerance for Benzene?

    a. 3000 ppm is endurable for 30 - 60 minutes (single exposure)
    b. 500 - 1000 ppm for 30 - 60 minutes will produce definite irritation to the trachea
    c. 5.5 ppm for 1 minute is practically intolerable
    d. No chronic effects noticed after 20,000 ppm exposure for 5 - 10 minutes
2313: A hydraulic accumulator aboard a MODU is designed to __________.

    a. store fluid under pressure
    b. act as a fluid reservoir
    c. provide overpressure relief
    d. replenish fluid to a system
2314: Cargo tanks on barges fitted with goose neck vents and flame screens are limited to carrying which grade of cargo?

    a. A and below
    b. B and below
    c. C and below
    d. D and E only
2315: What is the function of an air receiver in the compressed air system on a MODU?

    a. Condenses moisture
    b. Provides overpressure protection
    c. Purifies the air
    d. Acts as an accumulator
2316: The flammable limits for motor gasoline are __________.

    a. 5.3% to 7% mixture in air
    b. 0.9% to 5.9% mixture in air
    c. 1.4% to 7.6% mixture in air
    d. 2.5% to 12.8% mixture in air
2317: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0057

    a. 7.7 feet
    b. 9.1 feet
    c. 9.9 feet
    d. 10.6 feet
2318: A vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-02", AFT 23'-10". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 98 tons of fuel is pumped 116 feet forward.

    a. FWD 19'-04", AFT 23'-06"
    b. FWD 19'-07", AFT 23'-04"
    c. FWD 19'-09", AFT 23'-01"
    d. FWD 19'-09", AFT 23'-06"
2319: What is NOT generally a characteristic of inhaling light naphtha?

    a. Dizziness
    b. Headache
    c. Vomiting
    d. Coughing
2320: You are attempting to recover a mooring buoy. If you approach the object on the port tack, how would you slow the vessel as you draw near?

    a. Quickly change to a starboard tack as you reach the object.
    b. Shift the rudder from port to starboard several times as you reach the object.
    c. Bring the wind so that it comes over the stern and ease all the sheets.
    d. Bring the wind directly over the bow and allow the sails to luff.
2322: What is NOT a requirement of cargo piping installed in tank vessels carrying grade D or E cargo ONLY?

    a. The cargo piping system shall be fixed.
    b. Flanged joints shall be used for pipe sizes exceeding 2 inches in diameter.
    c. Piping through bunker spaces may be run through a pipe tunnel.
    d. Connections at bulkheads must be made so that the plating does not form part of a flanged joint.
2323: Why is electrical power preferred over mechanical power for driving heavy machinery on drilling rigs?

    a. More fuel efficient
    b. More flexible
    c. Lighter
    d. Less maintenance
2324: How many fire extinguishers, and what type, are required on an unmanned oil barge during transfer operations, if the barge has no cargo pumps aboard?

    a. One B-II
    b. Two B-II
    c. One B-V
    d. Two A-II
2325: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0058

    a. 395 tons
    b. 530 tons
    c. 750 tons
    d. 990 tons
2326: In order to carry a cargo of triethanolamine, what hull type is required?

    a. I
    b. II
    c. III
    d. IV
2327: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 600 brake horsepower?

    a. 5
    b. 4
    c. 3
    d. 2
2328: Which of the flash points would indicate a grade D combustible liquid?

    a. 65°F
    b. 87°F
    c. 155°F
    d. 160°F
2329: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0059

    a. Available GM 3.2 ft
    b. Available GM 3.9 ft
    c. Available GM 4.8 ft
    d. Available GM 5.3 ft
2330: What is the purpose of a centerboard when sailing on a tack?

    a. To reduce heeling of the vessel
    b. To add weight stability
    c. To reduce side slip of the vessel
    d. To prevent the vessel from jibing
2331: What prevents water running along the shaft of a leaking centrifugal pump from entering the shaft bearing?

    a. Shaft seal
    b. Water flinger
    c. Drain hole
    d. Lantern ring
2332: The amount of LFG that may be loaded into a given tank is determined by __________.

    a. checking the loading sheet
    b. loading to within 1 percent of outage
    c. loading to within 10 percent of the safety relief valve setting
    d. filling to the maximum level indicated on the liquid level gauging device
2333: You are sailing into a harbor with the intention of picking up your mooring. There is no current. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE?

    a. On a ketch, you will most likely strike the jib before making your final approach.
    b. On a yawl, the last sail you will strike after you have picked up the mooring will normally be the mainsail.
    c. On a sloop, if your initial approach is to be downwind you could slow your approach by striking the jib and letting your main sheet out as far as it will go.
    d. All of the above are correct.
2334: Which flash point would indicate a grade E combustible liquid?

    a. 80°F
    b. 75°F
    c. 140°F
    d. 155°F
2335: What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?

    a. Chain reaction
    b. Electricity
    c. Pressure
    d. Smoke
2336: While loading bulk oil in a barge, you notice oil on the water alongside. What should you do FIRST?

    a. Search the vessel for leaks.
    b. Notify the terminal superintendent.
    c. Stop loading.
    d. Notify the Coast Guard.
2337: Sideways movement of the mast is resisted by the __________.

    a. shrouds
    b. halyards
    c. sheets
    d. forestay
2338: In order to check your vessel's stability, a weight of 40 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, the boom head being 50 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer is then carefully read and shows a list of 5°. The vessel's displacement is 8,000 tons including the suspended weight. What will be the metacentric height of the vessel at this time?

    a. 2.74 feet
    b. 2.80 feet
    c. 2.86 feet
    d. 2.93 feet
2339: Sixty tons of cargo are raised with a boom 45 feet from the centerline. The vessel's displacement including the weight lifted is 16,400 tons. The angle of list caused by the suspended weight is 1.5°. KM is 28.75 ft., and BM is 17.25 ft. What is the KG?

    a. 11.65 feet
    b. 22.46 feet
    c. 23.15 feet
    d. 23.82 feet
2341: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0060

    a. Available GM 5.26 ft
    b. Available GM 4.24 ft
    c. Available GM 4.11 ft
    d. Available GM 4.01 ft
2342: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 13'-11", AFT 11'-09". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 9069 tons
    b. 9172 tons
    c. 9207 tons
    d. 9244 tons
2343: A marker pole, with a horseshoe buoy and a sea anchor attached, should be used to __________.

    a. mark the position of a lost mooring
    b. determine your vessel's sideslip underway
    c. determine your speed through the water
    d. indicate location of a man overboard
2344: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 25.2 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 23'-01"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

    a. 92°
    b. 77°
    c. 68°
    d. 61°
2345: During an annual FCC inspection __________.

    a. all required documents and publications may have to be produced
    b. licensed GMDSS radio operators may be required to demonstrate equipment competencies
    c. all required equipment must be fully operational
    d. All of the above
2346: Grade E liquids are those having a flash point of __________.

    a. 150°F and below
    b. below 150° and above 80°F
    c. below 80°F
    d. 150°F and above
2347: Which references should the GMDSS radio operator consult for information on the proper operation of the equipment?

    a. ITU list of Equipment Operations
    b. The manufacturer's operating manuals
    c. 47 CFR Part 80
    d. Information available through SafetyNET channels
2348: Regulations require that venting for cargo tanks in which only grades D or E liquids are to be transported shall, as a MINIMUM, be of which type? (tank barge constructed on or after July 1, 1951)

    a. Straight vents open to atmosphere
    b. Individual pressure vacuum relief valves
    c. Branch vent lines connected to a vent header system
    d. Gooseneck vents and flame screens
2349: What should the GMDSS radio operator consult to review the proper procedures to be followed in distress situations under GMDSS?

    a. IMO recommendations
    b. The manufacturers instruction manuals
    c. Part 90 of the FCC Rules and Regulations
    d. Part 80, Subpart W of the FCC Rules and Regulations
2350: What is NOT required of the cargo tank venting on a tank barge carrying grade A liquids?

    a. Each cargo tank must have a vent.
    b. A vent header must be fitted with a pressure-vacuum valve.
    c. The diameter of the vent must be greater than 4 inches in diameter.
    d. The vent must extend to a reasonable height above the weather deck.
2351: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2200 brake horsepower?

    a. 5
    b. 4
    c. 3
    d. 2
2352: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 19'-01". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 5333 tons
    b. 5420 tons
    c. 5649 tons
    d. 5775 tons
2353: Which documents are required by GMDSS for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)?

    a. A copy of the IMO master plan of shore-based facilities
    b. Station logs
    c. 47 CFR Part 80 FCC Rules and Regulations
    d. All of the above
2354: Which documents are required by Part 80 of the FCC Rules for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)?

    a. Appropriate Safety Convention Certificate
    b. International list of ship call signs (ITU List VI)
    c. List of Radiodetermination and Special Service Stations (ITU List VI)
    d. All of the above
2355: What publication/s should a GMDSS Operator consult regarding the proper set-up and operation of vessel equipment?

    a. ITU Publications
    b. The manufacturers instruction manuals
    c. Part 90 of the FCC Rules and Regulations
    d. Code of Federal Regulations, Title 47, Part 80, Subpart W`
2356: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 21'-06". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if: (1) 300 tons are loaded 122 feet forward of amidships; (2) 225 tons are loaded 150 feet aft of amidships; and 122 tons of fuel are pumped 72 feet aft.

    a. FWD 22'-11", AFT 22'-09"
    b. FWD 23'-00", AFT 23'-00"
    c. FWD 23'-02", AFT 23'-01"
    d. FWD 23'-03", AFT 23'-05"
2357: When may a compulsory vessel not be allowed to leave port?

    a. When the vessel is in an overloaded condition
    b. When the vessel has arranged for both duplication of equipment AND shore-based maintenance
    c. When the vessel has replaced a required piece of GMDSS-related equipment but its performance has not been verified or logged
    d. When the vessel is carrying only two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators and is capable of performing all required functions.
2358: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-08", AFT 23'-00". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 195 tons of cargo are discharged 76 feet aft of amidships.

    a. FWD 20'-05", AFT 21'-11"
    b. FWD 20'-07", AFT 22'-01"
    c. FWD 20'-11", AFT 22'-00"
    d. FWD 21'-03", AFT 22'-04"
2359: An example of a grade D product is __________.

    a. heavy fuel oil
    b. aviation gas grade 115/145
    c. kerosene
    d. commercial gasoline
2360: According to regulations, ethylene oxide shall be loaded at a temperature below __________.

    a. 90°F
    b. 70°F
    c. 51°F
    d. its flash point
2361: What are the conditions, under GMDSS, whereby a ship is NOT allowed to depart from any port?

    a. The vessel is not capable of performing all required distress and safety functions.
    b. The vessel is carrying more than the required number of qualified GMDSS radio operators.
    c. The vessel has a temporary waiver of its radio license and Safety Certificate.
    d. The vessel is not carrying a GMDSS radio maintainer, but has provided for shoreside maintenance plus duplication of equipment if required.
2362: A tankerman who permits or causes oil to go into a navigable waterway may be punished federally by __________.

    a. fine
    b. imprisonment
    c. suspension or revocation of tankerman's document
    d. All of the above
2363: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 22.0 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 23'-06", AFT 24'-03"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

    a. 76°
    b. 84°
    c. 89°
    d. 98°
2364: Your vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 27'-06". The present drafts are: FWD 24'-10", AFT 26'-00". How much more cargo can be loaded and where should it be located if a drag of 1 foot is desired? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 950 tons 2.5 feet forward of the tipping center
    b. 950 tons 5.6 feet aft of amidships
    c. 1250 tons 4.3 feet forward of amidships
    d. 1250 tons 1.4 feet aft of the tipping center
2365: The space around a pipe in a wellbore, the outer wall of which may be the wall of either the borehole or the casing, is the __________.

    a. open hole
    b. down hole
    c. bore
    d. annulus
2366: What type of vent is required on a barge transporting No. 6 fuel oil?

    a. Gooseneck vents fitted with flame screens
    b. Pressure-vacuum
    c. Branch vent line
    d. Vent header
2367: The person or company, either proprietor or lessee, actually operating an oil well or lease is the __________.

    a. production company
    b. company representative
    c. drilling contractor
    d. operator
2368: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0061

    a. FWD 22'-02", AFT 25'-08"
    b. FWD 21'-07", AFT 26'-03"
    c. FWD 20'-11", AFT 26'-09"
    d. FWD 20'-09", AFT 26'-11"
2370: According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flammable limits of ethylene oxide are __________.

    a. 1.85 - 48.0%
    b. 2 - 100%
    c. 2.7 - 34%
    d. 1.9 - 88.0%
2371: What does the term "head" mean when applied to a fire pump?

    a. Length of the discharge pipe
    b. Height of the discharge pipe
    c. Difference between the discharge and suction pressures
    d. Sum of discharge and suction pressures
2372: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 23.0 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 15'-03", AFT 15'-09"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

    a. 57°
    b. 72°
    c. 81°
    d. 90°
2373: An uncontrolled flow of gas, oil, or other well fluids into the atmosphere is called a __________.

    a. flow
    b. breakout
    c. kick
    d. blowout
2374: You are offloading garbage to another ship. Your records must identify that ship by name and show her __________.

    a. home port
    b. next port-of-call
    c. Master
    d. official number
2375: An entry of water, gas, oil, or other formation fluid into the wellbore is called a __________.

    a. blowout
    b. kick
    c. gusher
    d. flow
2376: A vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 26'-03". The present drafts are: FWD 21'-04", AFT 24'-06". How much more cargo can be loaded and where should it be located if a drag of 1 foot is desired? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 1676 tons 18 feet forward of amidships
    b. 1676 tons 18 feet forward of the tipping center
    c. 1972 tons 16 feet forward of amidships
    d. 1972 tons 16 feet forward of the tipping center
2377: The operation of hoisting the drill stem out of and returning it to the wellbore is called a __________.

    a. fish
    b. thribble
    c. trip
    d. tour
2378: A vessel's drafts are FWD 23'-01", AFT 24'-11". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if: (1) 142 tons are discharged 122 feet forward of amidships; (2) 321 tons are loaded 82 feet forward of amidships; and (3) 74 tons are discharged 62 feet aft of amidships.

    a. FWD 23'-05", AFT 24'-00"
    b. FWD 23'-06", AFT 24'-02"
    c. FWD 23'-07", AFT 24'-03"
    d. FWD 23'-09", AFT 24'-05"
2379: Regulations require that access to a cargo pumproom in a tank vessel carrying grade D liquid cargo, shall be __________.

    a. away from galleys, living quarters, or navigation spaces
    b. only from areas equipped with power ventilation systems
    c. from the open deck
    d. isolated from sources of vapor ignition
2380: Access to a cargo pumproom on a tank vessel carrying grades A, B, C or D liquid cargoes shall be __________.

    a. at least 13.1 feet away from the galleys, living quarters or navigation spaces
    b. from the open deck
    c. only from areas equipped with power ventilation systems
    d. isolated from any part of the vessel which normally contains sources of vapor ignition
2381: Beyond the area of state ownership in the U.S. outer continental shelf, the right to drill is controlled by the __________.

    a. U.S. Coast Guard
    b. Minerals Management Service
    c. American Bureau of Shipping
    d. U.S. Corps of Engineers
2382: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-03". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 4521 tons
    b. 5349 tons
    c. 7242 tons
    d. 9750 tons
2383: What is the minimum license requirement of a GMDSS Radio Operator?

    a. Holding the Marine Radio Operator Permit is a pre-requisite before the GMDSS Radio Operator Endorsement can be obtained.
    b. Holding the General Radiotelephone Operator License with RADAR endorsement is sufficient.
    c. Holding a valid GMDSS Radio Operator License is sufficient.
    d. Holding either the General Radiotelephone Operator License or the First or Second Class Radiotelegraph License with GMDSS Radio Maintainer's Endorsement is sufficient.
2384: Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the KG is 24.2 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 23'-04", AFT 24'-05"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability?

    a. 67°
    b. 71°
    c. 75°
    d. 79°
2385: When drilling from a MODU, the conductor casing is landed with its top extending to just __________.

    a. above the sea floor
    b. below the drill floor
    c. below sea level
    d. below the sea floor
2386: What are the vessel equipment and personnel requirements for GMDSS?

    a. Two licensed GMDSS radio operators
    b. Equipment carriage requirements
    c. Distress alerting and response
    d. All of the above
2387: A magnetic compass card is marked in how many degrees?

    a. 90
    b. 180
    c. 360
    d. 400
2388: At sea, all required GMDSS equipment (other than survival craft equipment) must be proven operational by __________.

    a. daily testing
    b. either A or C
    c. operational use of the equipment
    d. testing at least every 48 hours
2389: The best way to test the INMARSAT-C terminal is to __________.

    a. send a message to a shore terminal and wait for confirmation
    b. compose and send a brief message to your own INMARSAT-C terminal
    c. send a message to another ship terminal
    d. see if the send light flashes, then proper operation has been confirmed
2390: According to the Chemical Data Guide, ethylene oxide exhibits which fire and explosion hazard?

    a. It breaks down into highly toxic fumes of bromides.
    b. It reacts with water to provide flammable vapors.
    c. It does not need oxygen for combustion.
    d. Its flash point is 80.4°F.
2391: When fire pumps are used for other than firefighting services, each pipe connecting the other service (except for branch lines used for deck washing) must have a __________.

    a. check valve installed in the line
    b. shut off valve at a manifold near the pump
    c. quick disconnect union within ten feet of the pump
    d. regulator in the line set at 125 psi
2392: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 13'-11", AFT 16'-05". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 7109 tons
    b. 7316 tons
    c. 7432 tons
    d. 7779 tons
2393: An integral part of a blowout preventer that serves as the closing element on an open hole, and whose ends do not fit around the drill pipe but seal against each other and shut off the space below completely is the __________.

    a. shear ram
    b. blind ram
    c. pipe ram
    d. annular ram
2394: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 24'-09", AFT 27'-01". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 122 tons are discharged 76 feet aft of amidships, 128 tons are discharged 54 feet forward of amidships, and 68 tons of fuel is pumped 48 feet aft.

    a. FWD 24'-01", AFT 26'-08"
    b. FWD 24'-02", AFT 26'-11"
    c. FWD 24'-04", AFT 26'-08"
    d. FWD 24'-05", AFT 26'-02"
2395: A negative metacentric height __________.

    a. should always be immediately corrected
    b. will always cause a vessel to capsize
    c. always results from off-center weights
    d. All of the above are correct
2396: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-05", AFT 20'-01"; and the KG is 25.6 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 45°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 17,222 foot-tons
    b. 19,709 foot-tons
    c. 21,137 foot-tons
    d. 22,002 foot-tons
2397: Proper GMDSS watchkeeping includes __________.

    a. monitoring all required frequencies in the proper mode
    b. reading all displays and/or printouts after silencing an alarm
    c. notifying the Master of any distress alerts
    d. All of the above
2397: Proper GMDSS watchkeeping includes __________.

    a. monitoring all required frequencies in the proper mode
    b. reading all displays and/or printouts after silencing an alarm
    c. notifying the Master of any distress alerts
    d. All of the above
2398: Proper GMDSS watchkeeping includes __________.

    a. understanding the GMDSS console's normal operational indicators
    b. maintaining a proper GMDSS radio station log
    c. responding to and comprehending alarms
    d. All of the above
2399: Sixty (60) tons of cargo are raised with a heavy lift boom 45 feet from the centerline. The vessel's displacement including the weight lifted is 18,400 tons. The angle of list caused by the suspended weight is 1.5°, KM is 28.75 ft., and BM is 17.25 ft. What is the KG?

    a. 11.65 feet
    b. 22.85 feet
    c. 23.15 feet
    d. 23.82 feet
2400: You are transferring a cargo of ethyl chloride and a small amount spills into the water around your vessel. The Chemical Data Guide indicates that the solubility of ethyl chloride in water will be __________.

    a. negligible
    b. slight
    c. moderate
    d. complete
2401: A high-velocity fog stream can be used in fire fighting situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters in a passageway. This technique should only be used when __________.

    a. using a 2-1/2 inch hose
    b. there is an outlet for the smoke and heat
    c. the fire is totally contained by the ship's structure
    d. at least two fog streams can be used
2402: How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?

    a. Spliced into the ring on the stem post
    b. Secured by a toggle around the outboard side of a forward thwart
    c. Secured by a toggle to the stem post and led outboard of the falls
    d. Secured to the inboard side of the forward thwart and led inboard of the falls
2403: A frame with two, or sometimes four, arms through which are threaded the guidelines and which is used to keep the drill stem and bit in line with the center opening in the temporary guide base is the __________.

    a. drill stem guide
    b. guide frame
    c. drill string frame
    d. casing guide
2404: Regulations require that cargo tanks carrying grades D or E liquids on tank barges be vented with __________.

    a. gooseneck vents and flame screens
    b. pressure-vacuum relief valves
    c. branch vent lines and a vent header
    d. forced draft blowers
2405: The heavy three-, four-, or six-sided length of pipe suspended from the swivel through the rotary table and connected to the topmost joint of drill pipe to turn the drill stem as the rotary table turns is called the __________.

    a. swivel
    b. bail
    c. kelly
    d. cock
2406: Your vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 26'-03". The present drafts are: FWD 22'-10", AFT 23'-08". How much more cargo can be loaded and where should it be located if a drag of 18 inches is desired? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 875 tons 6 feet aft of amidships
    b. 950 tons 8 feet forward of the tipping center
    c. 1323 tons 7 feet aft of the tipping center
    d. 1452 tons 7 feet aft of the tipping center
2408: If your asphalt barge has operated more than 12 months in saltwater in the 24 month period since it was last dry-docked, when is it required to be hauled out again?

    a. 12 months since last dry-docking
    b. 18 months since last dry-docking
    c. 24 months since last dry-docking
    d. 36 months since last dry-docking
2409: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 15'-02"; and the KG is 23.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.0 foot off the centerline.

    a. 9°
    b. 12°
    c. 15°
    d. 17°
2410: Grade A flammable liquids are those with a Reid vapor pressure of __________.

    a. 5 to 8 1/2 psia
    b. more than 8 1/2 psia but less than 14 psia
    c. 14 psia or more
    d. None of the above
2411: The storage device for nitrogen-pressurized hydraulic fluid, which is used in closing the blowout preventers is called the __________.

    a. actuator
    b. annulus
    c. accumulator
    d. annular preventer
2412: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 5 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

    a. 66%
    b. 70%
    c. 74%
    d. 79%
2413: Signaling by flag hoist is completed by the vessel hoisting the __________.

    a. signal AR
    b. code flag N
    c. code flag R
    d. answering pennant
2414: The flash point of a product is 100°F. What can happen if it is heated above 110°F?

    a. It will boil off to the atmosphere.
    b. It may burn and explode if an ignition source is present.
    c. It will become less volatile and easier to handle.
    d. None of the above
2415: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0062

    a. 1171.5 tons
    b. 1311.0 tons
    c. 1503.0 tons
    d. 1710.5 tons
2416: Which statement is TRUE?

    a. GMDSS radio logs are required to contain entries pertaining to all incidents connected to radio communication service which appear to be of importance to the safety of life at sea.
    b. All distress communications must be entered in the GMDSS radio log.
    c. Both of the above
    d. None of the above
2417: Which statement is TRUE?

    a. Key letters or abbreviations may not be used in GMDSS radio logbooks under any circumstance.
    b. Urgency communications do not need to be entered in the GMDSS radio log.
    c. Both of the above
    d. None of the above
2418: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-07", AFT 25'-09"; and the KG is 23.2 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 45°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 27,008 foot-tons
    b. 29,778 foot-tons
    c. 32,428 foot-tons
    d. 34,663 foot-tons
2419: Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board ship?

    a. In the Captain's office
    b. In the sea cabin
    c. At the GMDSS operating position
    d. Anywhere on board the vessel
2420: What is an example of a grade A flammable liquid?

    a. iso - Propylamine
    b. Acetone
    c. Morpholine
    d. Ethyl acetate
2421: How many degrees are there on a compass card?

    a. 360°
    b. 380°
    c. 390°
    d. 420°
2422: What is the threshold limit value (TLV) for a product of PHTHALIC ANHYDRIDE?

    a. 1 ppm
    b. 2 ppm
    c. 3 ppm
    d. 4 ppm
2423: A large valve, usually installed above the ram preventers, that forms a seal in the annular space between the pipe and wellbore or, if no pipe is present, on the wellbore itself is called the __________.

    a. annular blowout preventer
    b. annulus
    c. accumulator
    d. automatic choke
2424: Which statement pertaining to log keeping is TRUE?

    a. Entries relating to pre-voyage, pre-departure and daily tests are required
    b. Both A and C
    c. All Distress, Urgent and Safety communications that affect the station's own ship must be logged
    d. Routine daily MF-HF and INMARSAT-C transmissions do not have to be logged
2425: Every seaman injured on a fishing vessel must report the injury to the Master, individual in charge, or other agent of the employer __________.

    a. before the end of the voyage
    b. no later than 24 hours after the vessel docks
    c. no later than 7 days after the injury occurred
    d. only if the injury prevents him from working
2426: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-05", AFT 20'-01"; and the KG is 22.4 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 10,656 foot-tons
    b. 12,340 foot-tons
    c. 13,980 foot-tons
    d. 17,520 foot-tons
2427: What is the female section of a tool joint called?

    a. Stem
    b. Pin
    c. Box
    d. Stand
2428: What is the flash point of iso - Hexane?

    a. -10°Fahrenheit
    b. 20°Centigrade
    c. 68°Fahrenheit
    d. 152°Centigrade
2429: A vessel trimmed by the stern has a __________.

    a. list
    b. drag
    c. set
    d. sheer
2430: What is an example of a grade A flammable liquid?

    a. Ethylene dibromide
    b. Methyl alcohol
    c. Nonyl phenol
    d. Pentane
2431: A device used to enlarge the size of an existing bore hole, having teeth arranged on its outside circumference to cut the formation as it rotates is a(n) __________.

    a. enlarger bit
    b. casing bit
    c. hole opener
    d. casing opener
2432: You are loading propanolamine and spill a small quantity on deck. According to the Chemical Data Guide, you would expect its odor to be __________.

    a. sweet
    b. similar to turpentine
    c. fishy
    d. similar to ammonia
2433: The pipe and special fittings used on floating offshore drilling rigs to establish a connection between the top of the wellbore, which is on the ocean floor, and the drilling equipment, located above the surface of the water, is called a __________.

    a. marine riser pipe
    b. marine casing
    c. guide pipe
    d. guide base casing
2434: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-11", AFT 16'-01"; and the KG is 24.4 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 30°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 24,960 foot-tons
    b. 22,870 foot-tons
    c. 20,360 foot-tons
    d. 18,240 foot-tons
2435: The joint of the riser in a marine riser system that compensates for heave, the up-and-down motion of a floater, is the __________.

    a. flex joint
    b. slip joint
    c. heave joint
    d. riser joint
2436: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-09", AFT 21'-01". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if: (1) 320 tons are loaded 47 feet forward of amidships; (2) 82 tons are discharged 110 feet forward of amidships; and (3) 50 tons of fuel are pumped 60 feet forward.

    a. FWD 21'-05", AFT 21'-00"
    b. FWD 21'-06", AFT 21'-02"
    c. FWD 21'-04", AFT 21'-05"
    d. FWD 21'-04", AFT 21'-06"
2437: A heavy steel device that is set on the sea floor and used as a drilling template in offshore drilling operations is called a __________.

    a. temporary guide base
    b. permanent guide base
    c. guide frame
    d. foundation template
2438: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-08", AFT 23'-00". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 95 tons of cargo are loaded 76 feet forward of amidships.

    a. FWD 21'-01", AFT 22'-11"
    b. FWD 20'-09", AFT 22'-09"
    c. FWD 20'-09", AFT 23'-01"
    d. FWD 20'-08", AFT 23'-00"
2439: If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations which action should you take FIRST?

    a. Close the valves at the manifold.
    b. Notify the person in charge of the shore facility.
    c. Shut down the operation.
    d. Sound the general alarm.
2440: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what does ethyl chloride produce when ignited?

    a. Toxic fumes of oxides of nitrogen
    b. Toxic fumes of lead
    c. Poisonous phosgene gas
    d. Poisonous chlorine gas
2441: A set of clamps that are latched onto the drill pipe to allow the driller to raise or lower the drill string out of or into the hole are the __________.

    a. lifts
    b. collars
    c. elevators
    d. clamps
2442: The international shore connection __________.

    a. allows hook up of fire fighting water from shore facilities
    b. satisfies pollution prevention requirements
    c. allows emergency use of the fire main for deballasting
    d. permits discharge of waste oil to shore facilities
2443: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0063

    a. 4.0 feet
    b. 5.6 feet
    c. 6.0 feet
    d. 6.8 feet
2444: When sending a DSC call, the vessel's __________.

    a. position will automatically be sent
    b. position will automatically be sent if the vessel is sending a "Distress Hot Key" alert
    c. MMSI will indicate its ocean region
    d. None of the above
2445: What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio Operator fails to insert updated information when initiating a DSC distress alert?

    a. It will abort the transmission and set off an audible alarm that must be manually reset.
    b. It will initiate the DSC distress alert but, as no information will be transmitted, rescue personnel will not be able to identify the vessel, its position or its situation.
    c. It will initiate the DSC distress alert and default information will automatically be transmitted.
    d. It will initiate the DSC distress alert, but any station receiving it will have to establish contact with the distressed vessel to determine its identity, position and situation.
2446: If a GMDSS radio operator initiates a DSC distress transmission but does not insert a message, what happens?

    a. The transmission is aborted and an alarm sounds to indicate this data must be provided by the operator.
    b. The transmission is not initiated and "ERROR" is indicated on the display readout.
    c. The transmission will be made with "default" information provided automatically.
    d. The receiving station will poll the DSC unit of the vessel in distress to download the necessary information
2447: The connected joints of pipe, usually made of three joints of pipe approximately 90 feet long, racked in the derrick when making a trip are called a __________.

    a. string
    b. stand
    c. joint
    d. standpipe
2448: A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in oil exploration MAY discharge food waste into the sea when the distance from the nearest land is at least __________.

    a. 3 nautical miles
    b. 5 nautical miles
    c. 12 nautical miles
    d. 25 nautical miles
2449: You are loading epichlorohydrin onto your barge. According to the Chemical Data Guide, you could expect to detect a leak by smell if the concentration in air was at least __________.

    a. 2 ppm
    b. 10 - 25 ppm
    c. 40 ppm
    d. 105 ppm
2450: During transfer operations, ethyl chloride spills into the water. According to the Chemical Data Guide, the ethyl chloride will boil off if the water temperature is above __________.

    a. 46°F
    b. 54°F
    c. 60°F
    d. 68°F
2451: The end of the joint with the exterior threads is called the __________.

    a. pin
    b. stem
    c. box
    d. stand
2452: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 22'-09"; and the KG is 23.2 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 30°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 20,790 foot-tons
    b. 22,200 foot-tons
    c. 25,520 foot-tons
    d. 28,080 foot-tons
2453: A tool consisting of a handle and releasable chain used for turning pipe or fittings of a diameter larger than that which a pipe wrench would fit is called __________.

    a. breakout wrench
    b. makeup tongs
    c. chain tongs
    d. pipe spinner
2454: In order to determine the fire and explosion hazard data for naphtha, you would use that information contained in the Chemical Data Guide for which chemical?

    a. Treacle
    b. Napthalene
    c. Tar camphor
    d. Mineral spirits
2455: The element used to keep weight on the bit at a constant value in spite of up-and-down movement of a MODU during floating drilling operations is the heave or drill string __________.

    a. compensator
    b. tensioner
    c. stabilizer
    d. equalizer
2456: According to the Chemical Data Guide, epichlorohydrin is a(n) __________.

    a. corrosive
    b. class B poison
    c. oxidizer
    d. explosive
2457: What is a grooved pulley?

    a. Sheave
    b. Slip
    c. Block
    d. Reeve
2458: To find the product Valeral in the Chemical Data Guide, you would have to look up the product __________.

    a. Acrylic acid
    b. iso-Valeraldehyde
    c. n-Valeraldehyde
    d. Vinyl acetate
2459: A virtual rise in the center of gravity may be caused by __________.

    a. filling a partially filled tank
    b. using fuel from a pressed fuel tank
    c. emptying a partially filled tank
    d. transferring ballast from the forepeak to the after peak
2460: During transfer operations, a quantity of propylamine spills on deck. According to the Chemical Data Guide, the correct procedure would be to __________.

    a. immediately flush the spill with large quantities of fresh water
    b. cover the contaminated surface with soda-ash-soaked lime solution
    c. add sodium bisulfate on the contaminated surface and spray it down with water
    d. move to a position upwind of the spill and allow the product to boil off
2461: A special device that, when fitted into the rotary table, transmits torque to the kelly and simultaneously permits vertical movement of the kelly to make the hole is called a __________.

    a. master bushing
    b. kelly slips
    c. kelly bushing
    d. rotary bushing
2462: If a leak occurred while loading diethylenetriamine, the chemical data guide indicates you would smell an odor similar to __________.

    a. ammonia
    b. rotten eggs
    c. gasoline
    d. None of the above
2463: A heavy, thick-walled tube, usually steel, used between the drill pipe and the bit in the drill stem to weight the bit in order to improve its performance is called a __________.

    a. heavy-walled drill pipe
    b. tool joint
    c. down hole tool
    d. drill collar
2464: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0064

    a. 3.9 feet
    b. 4.3 feet
    c. 4.7 feet
    d. 5.1 feet
2465: The element that supports the weight of the drill stem, allows the drill stem to rotate, and provides a pressure-tight seal and passageway for the drilling mud to be pumped down the inside of the drill stem is called the __________.

    a. swivel
    b. bail
    c. kelly
    d. cock
2466: According to regulations, access to a cargo pumproom in a tank vessel carrying grades C or D liquid cargo shall be __________.

    a. from areas equipped with power ventilation
    b. only from enclosed areas free from sources of vapor ignition
    c. from the open deck
    d. from within the vessel
2467: To prevent the riser system from buckling under its own weight, upward tension is provided by the __________.

    a. riser stabilizers
    b. guideline tensioning system
    c. riser tensioning system
    d. guideline stabilizers
2468: What is NOT classified as a flammable liquid?

    a. Methyl alcohol
    b. Heptane
    c. Mineral spirits
    d. iso-Hexane
2469: According to the regulations, cargo pumprooms on tank vessels (constructed in 1965) handling grade C liquid cargo shall have power ventilation systems which can completely change the air in __________.

    a. 1 minute
    b. 3 minutes
    c. 5 minutes
    d. 10 minutes
2470: According to the Chemical Data Guide, propylene oxide is assigned a health hazard rating of 3,2,2. The last digit "2" of the rating means __________.

    a. chemical vapors will cause a slight smarting of the eyes or respiratory system if present in high concentrations
    b. the chemical contains fairly severe skin irritants, causing second- and third-degree burns after a few minutes contact
    c. the chemical poison presents some hazard if it enters the body and typically has threshold limits of 100 to 500 ppm
    d. the chemical is severely hazardous, usually having threshold limits below 10 ppm
2471: The device that allows a floating MODU to sway without bending the marine riser system is the __________.

    a. yaw joint
    b. sway joint
    c. slip joint
    d. flex or ball joint
2472: Which cargo grade(s) are permitted by regulations to be carried on a barge in tanks fitted only with gooseneck vents and flame screens?

    a. B only
    b. B or C
    c. C or D
    d. D or E
2473: In very deep water drilling, it becomes necessary to reduce tension caused by the weight of the riser joints. This is accomplished by using a(n) __________.

    a. aluminum riser
    b. tapered riser
    c. buoyant riser
    d. intermediate tensioner
2474: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-07". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 142 tons of cargo are loaded 86 feet forward of amidships.

    a. FWD 18'-09", AFT 21'-04"
    b. FWD 18'-10", AFT 21'-01"
    c. FWD 19'-10", AFT 21'-08"
    d. FWD 19'-11", AFT 21'-04"
2475: Your fishing vessel is required to have a compass. It must also have a(n) __________.

    a. deviation table
    b. radar reflector
    c. electronic position-fixing device
    d. copy of the Sailing Directions
2476: Which tank barges require draft marks?

    a. Notch barges over 1000 GT
    b. Tank barges over 100 GT
    c. Tank barges over 50 GT
    d. All tank barges
2478: Depending on its concentration, which product(s) can be classified as either grade D or E?

    a. Sulfuric acid
    b. Formaldehyde solutions 37% to 50%
    c. 1,1,1-trichloroethane
    d. All of the above
2479: Coast Guard regulations require a shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan to be reviewed __________.

    a. annually
    b. once every two years
    c. once every four years
    d. once every five years
2480: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is NOT a recommended extinguishing agent for an ethyl chloride fire?

    a. CO2
    b. Alcohol foam
    c. Dry chemical
    d. Water fog
2481: Which action should be taken on receipt of a GMDSS Distress alert?

    a. Read the display screen and/or printout.
    b. Silence the alarm.
    c. Listen for any follow up voice/TELEX transmission on the appropriate frequency.
    d. All of the above
2482: If a cargo of kerosene were considered "too lean" to explode, then it must be __________.

    a. above the "explosive range"
    b. within the "explosive range"
    c. below the "explosive range"
    d. None of the above
2483: You are keeping the required garbage disposal records. The amount of garbage disposed must be stated in __________.

    a. cubic meters
    b. both cubic meters and cubic feet
    c. both kilos and pounds
    d. barrels of 55 gallon capacity
2484: Who may approve cargo piping to pass through a machinery space for a barge designed to carry only grade E products?

    a. American Bureau of Shipping
    b. National Cargo Bureau
    c. Commandant, U.S. Coast Guard
    d. Vessel owner
2485: A drilling bit which is doughnut shaped to permit recovery of the center portion of the hole drilled is called a __________.

    a. diverter bit
    b. hole reamer
    c. core bit
    d. conventional bit
2486: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0065

    a. Available GM 5.0 ft
    b. Available GM 5.4 ft
    c. Available GM 6.1 ft
    d. Available GM 6.8 ft
2487: The wire ropes of the riser tensioning system are attached to the __________.

    a. outer barrel of the telescoping joint
    b. inner barrel of the telescoping joint
    c. marine riser connector
    d. ball joint
2488: If a crew member is exposed to phenol by way of skin or eye contact, you should IMMEDIATELY __________.

    a. administer oxygen
    b. treat victim for shock
    c. flush skin and eyes with water
    d. give victim stimulant
2489: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent should be used on a petrolatum fire in an open area?

    a. CO2
    b. Dry chemical
    c. Monoxide powders
    d. Foam
2490: Which extinguishing agent is effective in combating an isoprene fire?

    a. Dry chemicals
    b. CO2
    c. Foam
    d. All the above
2491: The platform that supports the derrickman when tripping pipe is called the __________.

    a. Texas deck
    b. water table
    c. stabbing board
    d. monkey board
2492: At sea, you are approaching a small vessel and see that it has the signal flag "P" hoisted. What should you do?

    a. Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is stopped and making no way through the water.
    b. Keep clear of the vessel because it has a diver down.
    c. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because someone on board requires medical assistance.
    d. Approach with caution because the vessel is a fishing vessel and its nets are fouled on an obstruction.
2493: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0066

    a. 1171.5 tons
    b. 1311.0 tons
    c. 1503.0 tons
    d. 1710.5 tons
2494: An example of a grade C product is __________.

    a. naphtha, vm and p
    b. tridecanol
    c. cottonseed oil
    d. camphor oil
2495: A series of trays with sieves that vibrate to remove cuttings from the circulating fluid in rotary drilling operations is called the __________.

    a. shale shaker
    b. settling pit
    c. desilter
    d. desander
2496: What type of vent system would a barge of acrylonitrile have?

    a. Open
    b. Pressure-vacuum
    c. Safety relief
    d. Rupture disk
2497: In MODU drilling operations, the term tripping means __________.

    a. releasing the tongs from the drill pipe
    b. welding hard metal to tool joints
    c. hoisting drill pipe out of and returning it to the wellbore
    d. sliding a joint of drill pipe down to the pipe rack ramp
2498: Which product is volatile?

    a. Benzene
    b. Diesel fuel
    c. Coal tar
    d. Heavy industrial fuel oil
2499: What is an example of a grade B flammable liquid?

    a. Allyl alcohol
    b. Phenol
    c. Acetaldehyde
    d. Carbon disulfide
2500: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent is NOT recommended for use in fighting an ethylamine fire?

    a. Alcohol foam
    b. Carbon dioxide
    c. Dry chemical
    d. Water fog
2501: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 20'-06", AFT 24'-00". The KG is 29.6 feet. Use the salmon pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).

    a. 3.4°
    b. 4.2°
    c. 4.9°
    d. 6.0°
2502: The international shore connection __________.

    a. permits discharge of waste oil
    b. allows hook up of fire hoses from a dock or another vessel
    c. satisfies pollution prevention requirements
    d. allows emergency use of the fire main for deballasting
2504: A reinspection of the vessel shall be made between which of the following months while the Certificate of Inspection is valid?

    a. 8 - 12 months
    b. 10 - 12 months
    c. 10 - 14 months
    d. 12 - 14 months
2505: The helicopter deck of a MODU must be marked with the units identification, appropriate aiming circles, and a continuous line on the perimeter which is __________.

    a. 8 inches wide
    b. 16 inches wide
    c. 24 inches wide
    d. 32 inches wide
2506: Grade E combustible liquids are those having flash points of __________.

    a. 80°F or less
    b. greater than 80°F and less than 115°F
    c. greater than 115°F and less than 150°F
    d. 150°F or greater
2507: When using a crane for transferring personnel in a basket, the load hook must be equipped with a __________.

    a. moused shackle
    b. safety latch
    c. safety belt for each rider
    d. quick-release device
2508: What is the TLV of cyclohexanol?

    a. 20 ppm
    b. 30 ppm
    c. 40 ppm
    d. 50 ppm
2509: How many portable fire extinguishers are required in the cargo tank area of an unmanned tank barge during cargo transfer, if the barge has no cargo pumps of her own?

    a. One
    b. Two
    c. Three
    d. None
2510: Camphor oil is classified as a __________.

    a. Grade A flammable liquid
    b. Grade C flammable liquid
    c. Grade D combustible liquid
    d. Grade E combustible liquid
2511: When lowering a personnel net to pick up personnel from a boat, the personnel basket should be __________.

    a. lowered over open water
    b. tied to the vessel with a tag line
    c. dropped in the water
    d. tied to the rig with a tag line
2512: Which of the following product(s) would be classified as grade E?

    a. Gasoline
    b. Bunker C
    c. Kerosene
    d. All of the above
2513: The maximum number of personnel allowed on a personnel transfer basket is __________.

    a. 2
    b. 3
    c. 4
    d. 5
2514: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-11", AFT 16'-01"; and the KG is 23.2 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 5,800 foot-tons
    b. 7,600 foot-tons
    c. 9,272 foot-tons
    d. 11,200 foot-tons
2515: Before personnel are lifted from a vessel in a personnel basket, the vessel should be ________________________

    a. directly under the boom
    b. moving away from the boom
    c. stopped dead in the water
    d. tied to the boom
2516: When heated to breakdown, tetraethyl or tetramethyl lead compounds emit highly toxic fumes of __________.

    a. hydrogen gas
    b. lead
    c. bromide
    d. phosgene
2517: When may a personnel net be used to bring heavy equipment aboard an offshore drilling unit?

    a. Only when the seas are calm
    b. Only during rough weather
    c. Only when there are no personnel in the net
    d. Never
2518: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0067

    a. 4.0 feet
    b. 5.6 feet
    c. 6.0 feet
    d. 6.8 feet
2519: What are the venting requirements for a barge with a cargo of adiponitrile?

    a. Pressure-vacuum relief valves
    b. Open venting
    c. Gooseneck vents fitted with flame screens
    d. Closed venting with a vapor recovery system
2520: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which material is not compatible with vinylidene chloride (inhibited)?

    a. Aluminum
    b. Nickel
    c. Copper or copper alloys
    d. Stainless steel
2521: To enable tying down a helicopter on the landing area of a MODU, the landing deck must be fitted with __________.

    a. recessed tie down points
    b. hydraulically lifted bitts
    c. air tuggers
    d. fixed cleats
2522: What best describes benzene?

    a. Clear colorless liquid with an acrid odor
    b. Clear colorless liquid with an aromatic odor
    c. Brownish liquid, odorless
    d. Brownish liquid, with an acrid odor
2523: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2000 brake horsepower?

    a. 2
    b. 3
    c. 4
    d. 5
2524: What characteristic determines when a grade "C" product will start to vaporize?

    a. Its filling density
    b. Its ignition point
    c. The flammable range
    d. Its flash point
2525: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0068

    a. Available GM 5.26 ft
    b. Available GM 4.24 ft
    c. Available GM 4.11 ft
    d. Available GM 4.01 ft
2526: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0069

    a. Available GM 4.2 ft
    b. Available GM 3.9 ft
    c. Available GM 3.7 ft
    d. Available GM 3.5 ft
2527: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0070

    a. 1171.5 tons
    b. 1311.0 tons
    c. 1503.0 tons
    d. 1710.5 tons
2528: Which action should you take after sending a false Distress alert on VHF?

    a. Send a DSC cancellation message on Ch-70.
    b. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-16.
    c. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-13.
    d. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-22A.
2529: What is a grade B flammable liquid?

    a. Ethylene oxide
    b. Paraldehyde
    c. Chlorallylene
    d. Allyl alcohol
2530: Regulations require that cargo pumprooms on tank barges (constructed in 1965) carrying grades B or C liquid cargoes have power ventilation systems which can completely change the air in __________.

    a. 1 minute
    b. 3 minutes
    c. 5 minutes
    d. 10 minutes
2530: Regulations require that cargo pumprooms on tank barges (constructed in 1965) carrying grades B or C liquid cargoes have power ventilation systems which can completely change the air in __________.

    a. 1 minute
    b. 3 minutes
    c. 5 minutes
    d. 10 minutes
2531: What is the fundamental purpose for imposing radio silence?

    a. To ensure that interference to proprietary communications is minimized
    b. To ensure that only voice communications can be effected on the distress frequency or channel
    c. To ensure that a distressed vessel will have a "window" twice each hour for transmitting routine messages
    d. To ensure that interference on a particular frequency or channel to communications concerning emergency traffic is minimized
2532: The appearance of Bunker C and fuel oils are dark colored liquids, and __________ .

    a. soluble oils
    b. slop oils
    c. cutting oils
    d. viscous oils
2533: An obstruction on a helodeck is any object that might present a hazard to the __________.

    a. rotor blades and landing gear
    b. unloading of passengers
    c. loading of cargo
    d. pilot's visibility
2534: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which reactive group(s) is/are not compatible with the products polybutene and o-xylene?

    a. Nitric acid
    b. Amides
    c. Alcohols, glycols
    d. Phenols, cresols
2535: The connection facilities for the international shore connection must be located to provide access __________.

    a. to each side of the vessel
    b. as close as possible to the house
    c. on the main deck
    d. on each level of the accommodation space
2535: The connection facilities for the international shore connection must be located to provide access __________.

    a. to each side of the vessel
    b. as close as possible to the house
    c. on the main deck
    d. on each level of the accommodation space
2536: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should __________.

    a. shut off all electrical power
    b. close all openings to the area
    c. cool the bulkheads around the fire
    d. remove combustibles from direct exposure
2537: Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE regarding heaving-to?

    a. A sloop will heave to with her jib and mainsail aback.
    b. A ketch will heave to with her jib and mizzen aback.
    c. A yawl will heave to with her jib aback, main sheet eased, and her mizzen sheeted in.
    d. All of the above are correct.
2538: According to the Chemical Data Guide, fuel oil number 6 has a flash point (degrees F) of __________.

    a. 65
    b. 80 - 100
    c. 110 - 140
    d. 150 - 430(cc)
2539: If you came into contact with nitrobenzene while disconnecting the cargo hose, you should be aware that it is __________.

    a. highly toxic when absorbed through the skin
    b. a blood poison
    c. a nerve poison
    d. All of the above
2540: The MINIMUM ventilation requirements for pumprooms on tank vessels (constructed in 1960) carrying grades B or C liquid cargo with machinery spaces located below the freeboard deck specify __________.

    a. gooseneck vents and flame screens
    b. that it be connected to a vent header system
    c. that it be power ventilation
    d. that it be fitted with at least two ducts extended to the weather deck
2541: When lifting loads from a boat in heavy weather, the load should be taken when the boat __________.

    a. reaches the crest
    b. begins to fall
    c. begins to rise
    d. reaches the trough
2542: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-08", AFT 24'-02". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 15 inches? (Use the selected stability curves in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 72 tons
    b. 77 tons
    c. 82 tons
    d. 87 tons
2543: The boom stops are installed on an offshore crane to __________.

    a. prevent the boom from being raised too high
    b. prevent the boom from swinging
    c. support the boom when not in use
    d. prevent the boom from being lowered
2544: Triethylene glycol fires may be extinguished by __________.

    a. dry chemical
    b. alcohol foam
    c. carbon dioxide
    d. All of the above
2545: On a MODU crane, the boom indicator tells the operator what the boom angle is compared to the __________.

    a. vertical position
    b. horizontal position
    c. boom stop angle
    d. minimum radius angle
2546: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-07", AFT 25'-09"; and the KG is 24.0 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15°? (Use the selected stability curves in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 5,202 foot-tons
    b. 8,666 foot-tons
    c. 10,876 foot-tons
    d. 11,424 foot-tons
2547: On a MODU crane, the load chart relates the allowable load to the combination of boom length and __________.

    a. boom angle
    b. boom strength
    c. load radius
    d. cable strength
2548: According to regulations, which grade(s) of cargo may be carried in tanks that are vented only with gooseneck vents and flame screens?

    a. B only
    b. B or C
    c. C or D
    d. D or E
2549: Vessels "A" and "B" are identical; however, "A" is more tender than "B". This means that "A" relative to "B" has a __________.

    a. lower KG
    b. smaller GM
    c. smaller roll angle
    d. larger GZ
2550: According to regulations, how many B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the cargo tank area of an unmanned, cargo pump-equipped tank barge engaged in transferring grade B flammable liquids?

    a. One
    b. Two
    c. Three
    d. None
2551: The load chart of a MODU crane enables the operator to combine the load radius with boom length to determine the __________.

    a. maximum counter weight required
    b. minimum horsepower required
    c. hoist rope strength
    d. allowable load
2552: When can routine communications be resumed when radio silence has been imposed?

    a. After determining that the frequency or channel appears to be no longer in use
    b. After determining that geographic distance from the distress situation will prohibit any other signal from interfering with emergency communications
    c. Routine communications can resume after the Rescue Coordination Center transmits a message on the frequency or channel being used for emergency communications stating that such traffic has concluded.
    d. If, in the Master's opinion, communications on that frequency will interfere with emergency communications
2553: What is meant by the term "radio silence"?

    a. Stations not directly involved with the on-going Distress communications may not transmit on the distress frequency or channel
    b. Stations remaining off the air to safeguard proprietary information
    c. Two three-minute silent periods, at 15 and 45 minutes after the hour, that provide a transmitting "window" for distressed vessels to transmit distress alerts using J3E
    d. Communications on a distress frequency or channel is banned for 24 hours following the cessation of the distress traffic
2554: How is "radio silence" imposed?

    a. By the On Scene Coordinator (OSC)
    b. By the Coast Earth Station (CES) controlling the Distress communications on that frequency
    c. It is imposed by the Public Correspondence Station (PCS) controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel
    d. It is imposed by the High Seas Service (HSS) controlling the distress communications on that frequency or channel
2555: When hoisting personnel from a vessel, with the MODU cranes, the crane operator must assure that __________.

    a. the personnel carrier remains directly over the vessel
    b. all personnel are inside the net type carrier
    c. the personnel carrier remains directly over water
    d. he does not swing the load until it is above the landing area
2556: Regulations require that pumprooms on tank vessels carrying grade C liquid cargo with machinery spaces below the freeboard deck be ventilated with __________.

    a. power ventilation
    b. gooseneck vents and flame screens
    c. at least two ducts extending to the weather deck
    d. a vent header system
2557: When transferring personnel with a MODU crane, the weight of the loaded personnel carrier must not exceed __________.

    a. 1/2 of the static rated load at the lift radius
    b. 1/3 of the static rated load at the lift radius
    c. 1/2 of the breaking strength of the hoist rope times the parts of line used
    d. 1/3 of the breaking strength of the hoist rope times the parts of line used
2558: Grade C liquids are those having a Reid vapor pressure of __________.

    a. 8-1/2 psi or less
    b. 8-1/2 psi or more
    c. 14 psi or less
    d. 14 psi or more
2559: What is NOT a grade B flammable liquid?

    a. tert-Butylamine
    b. Allyl chloride
    c. Ethyl chloride
    d. Carbon disulfide
2560: Regulations require that cargo tanks in which grades B or C liquids are carried must be vented with which of the following?

    a. Gooseneck vents
    b. Flame screens
    c. Pressure vacuum relief valves
    d. Forced draft blowers
2561: The weight of the loaded personnel carrier, when transferring personnel from a MODU with a crane, must not exceed __________.

    a. 2/3 of the static rated load at the lift radius
    b. 1/2 of the static rated load at the lift radius
    c. 1/5 of the breaking strength of the hoist rope times the parts of the line used
    d. 1/10 of the breaking strength of the hoist rope times the parts of line used
2562: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 4000 brake horsepower?

    a. 2
    b. 3
    c. 4
    d. 5
2563: The hoist line primarily used for lifting personnel on MODU cranes is called the __________.

    a. personnel line
    b. whip line
    c. main hoist line
    d. pendant
2564: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability, and holds 1 and 2 flood, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

    a. 19
    b. 24
    c. 32
    d. 39
2565: Annual inspection of MODU cranes shall be conducted by __________.

    a. U.S. Coast Guard
    b. the person in charge
    c. a qualified inspector
    d. the crane operator
2566: LFG tank and pipeline maintenance should include __________.

    a. exclusion of all sand and solid matter
    b. cleaning with clean fresh or sea water
    c. examination for fractures and pitting
    d. All of the above
2566: LFG tank and pipeline maintenance should include __________.

    a. exclusion of all sand and solid matter
    b. cleaning with clean fresh or sea water
    c. examination for fractures and pitting
    d. All of the above
2567: A MODU crane which has been idle for a period of over six months shall be inspected to the same standards as a __________.

    a. yearly inspection
    b. quarterly inspection
    c. monthly inspection
    d. weekly inspection
2568: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 21.3 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 15° inclination.

    a. 0.3 foot
    b. 1.3 feet
    c. 1.5 feet
    d. 1.8 feet
2569: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 22'-09"; and the KG is 24.4 feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15°? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 4,176 foot-tons
    b. 5,196 foot-tons
    c. 7,076 foot-tons
    d. 9,003 foot-tons
2570: What is NOT a requirement of the reinspection for a tank barge with a certificate of inspection valid for two years?

    a. The reinspection will be made between the fourteenth and sixteenth months.
    b. The inspector shall examine all accessible parts of the vessels's hull.
    c. The inspector shall examine the vessel's machinery as well as equipment.
    d. The scope of the reinspection shall be the same as for the inspection for certification, but in less detail.
2571: You have abandoned ship in rough weather. After picking up other survivors in your liferaft, what should you do next?

    a. Close up the entrances.
    b. Top up the buoyancy tubes.
    c. Prepare for the arrival of rescue units.
    d. Decide on food and water rations.
2572: The radiotelephone urgency signal is __________.

    a. mayday
    b. pan pan
    c. securite
    d. seelonce feenee
2573: Medical treatment aboard a MODU should not go beyond examination and emergency care without first consulting __________.

    a. the designated medic aboard
    b. the shore based superintendent
    c. a medical doctor
    d. the approved company medical manual
2574: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 23.1 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 60° inclination.

    a. 0.9 foot
    b. 1.8 feet
    c. 2.7 feet
    d. 4.5 feet
2575: The "urgent" priority should be used for messages __________.

    a. concerning the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS)
    b. detailing important navigational warnings
    c. containing information concerning the safety of a mobile unit or person
    d. concerning on-scene communications
2576: When the GMDSS Radio Operator on watch hears "SECURITE" spoken three times he can expect to receive a message concerning __________.

    a. the safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings
    b. the safety of a vessel or a person is in jeopardy
    c. a vessel in need of immediate assistance
    d. a coast station traffic list
2577: The radiotelephone safety signal is __________.

    a. "Securite" repeated 3 times
    b. "Safety" repeated 3 times
    c. "Pan Pan" repeated 3 times
    d. "Securite Securite" repeated 3 times
2578: Your vessel displaces 9,000 tons and has a KG of 21.2 feet. What will be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of 30° if the center of gravity shifts 2.6 feet transversely? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 3.8 feet
    b. 2.2 feet
    c. 1.4 feet
    d. 0.9 foot
2579: What is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take in a distress situation where immediate help is needed, but the vessel is not sinking nor needs to be abandoned?

    a. Switch off EPIRB and SART manually.
    b. Transmit Distress call by MF/HF, VHF or INMARSAT.
    c. Notify the RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF FM on Channel 13.
    d. Transmit Distress call by activating the radiotelegraph automatic alarm signal.
2580: If your JP-5 barge has operated in saltwater for less than 1 month in the 12 month period since it was last dry-docked, when is it required to be hauled out again?

    a. 60 months since last dry-docking
    b. 36 months since last dry-docking
    c. 24 months since last dry-docking
    d. 12 months since last dry-docking
2581: A continuous watertight bulkhead on a MODU is normally also a(n) __________.

    a. structural bulkhead
    b. exterior bulkhead
    c. centerline bulkhead
    d. joiner bulkhead
2582: When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity, the metacentric height is equal to __________.

    a. the height of the metacenter
    b. the height of the center of gravity
    c. half the height of the metacenter
    d. zero
2583: How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the immediate vicinity?

    a. The SART's blips on the PPI will become arcs and eventually become concentric circles.
    b. The DSC unit will react to the SART's signal and respond with the two-tone autoalarm.
    c. The SART can provide an approximate location to within a two nautical mile radius per IMO standards.
    d. The SART signal appears as a target which comes and goes; the effect of heavy swells on a SART.
2584: The grade C flammable liquid phenylethane is found in the Chemical Data Guide under the chemical name __________.

    a. ethyl cyanide
    b. ethylbenzene
    c. ethyl acetate
    d. muriatic ether
2585: Vertical partitions which provide strength and compartmentalization on a MODU are called __________.

    a. decks
    b. bulkheads
    c. joiner work
    d. walls
2586: To which group of hydrocarbons do Benzene and Toluene belong?

    a. Ketone
    b. Caustic
    c. Aromatic
    d. Alcohol
2587: Joiner bulkheads on a MODU provide __________.

    a. compartmentalization
    b. watertight integrity
    c. structural support
    d. tank boundaries
2588: Which extinguishing agent is recommended in the Chemical Data Guide for use on a carbon disulfide fire?

    a. Alcohol foam
    b. Dry chemical
    c. Chemical foam
    d. Water fog
2590: Regulations require that tank vessels handling grade B liquids shall have their cargo pumps separated from all sources of vapor ignition by __________.

    a. cofferdams
    b. empty cargo spaces
    c. gas tight bulkheads
    d. areas equipped with power ventilation
2591: Structural bulkheads on a MODU are usually __________.

    a. continuous
    b. watertight
    c. transverse
    d. non-watertight
2592: Which signal is detected as originating from a SART?

    a. The Morse code distress series S-O-S repeated 3 times followed by DE and the vessel's call sign
    b. A line of blip code on a radar screen outward from the SART's position along its line of bearing
    c. A line of blip code on a radar screen inward from the SART's position to its own ship along its line of bearing
    d. None of these
2593: Bulkheads which form part of the tanks on a MODU are stiffened to withstand __________.

    a. deck loads from above
    b. dynamic forces while afloat
    c. hydrostatic pressure
    d. over-pressurization
2594: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 3 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

    a. 64
    b. 68
    c. 72
    d. 78
2595: How can vessel personnel detect the operation of a SART in its vicinity?

    a. A unique radar signal consisting of a blip code radiating outward from a SART's position along its line of bearing
    b. A unique two tone "warbling" signal heard on VHF-FM Ch-70
    c. A unique two tone alarm signal heard upon the automatic unmuting of the 2182 kHz radiotelephone automatic watch receiver
    d. The SART signal appears as a target which comes and goes; the effect of heavy swells on the SART
2596: Drinking salt water will __________.

    a. dehydrate you
    b. prevent seasickness
    c. be safe if mixed with fresh water
    d. protect against heat cramps
2597: Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead on a MODU are called __________.

    a. side longitudinals
    b. intercostals
    c. stiffeners
    d. brackets
2598: A vessel displaces 12,000 tons and has a KG of 22.8 feet. What will be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of 60° if the center of gravity shifts 1.8 feet transversely? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. -1.6 feet
    b. -0.1 foot
    c. 1.2 feet
    d. 1.9 feet
2599: Oil fires are best extinguished by __________.

    a. cutting off the supply of oxygen
    b. removing the fuel
    c. cooling below the ignition temperature
    d. spraying with water
2600: If your Bunker-C barge has operated in salt water for more than 12 months in the 24 month period since it was last dry-docked, when is it required to be hauled out again?

    a. 36 months since last dry-docking
    b. 24 months since last dry-docking
    c. 18 months since last dry-docking
    d. 12 months since last dry-docking
2601: In MODU construction, a greater number of watertight bulkheads results in __________.

    a. increased capacity to set flooding boundaries
    b. decreased capacity to set flooding boundaries
    c. reduced compartmentation
    d. greater deck load capacity
2602: In order to determine the health hazard data for carbolic acid, you would use that information contained in the Chemical Data Guide for which chemical?

    a. Acetic oxide
    b. Carbinol
    c. Carbon bisulfide
    d. Phenol
2603: Where is the keel generally located on a MODU?

    a. Along the midships axis
    b. Along the centerline of the lower hulls
    c. Along the roll axis of the hull
    d. Along the axis of rotation of the hull
2604: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability, and holds 2 and 3 flood, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

    a. 37
    b. 31
    c. 26
    d. 23
2605: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 24'-02", AFT 24'-04". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 295 tons of cargo are loaded 122 feet aft of amidships.

    a. FWD 22'-08", AFT 26'-00"
    b. FWD 22'-10", AFT 25'-09"
    c. FWD 23'-04", AFT 26'-03"
    d. FWD 23'-05", AFT 25'-11"
2606: Which device provides the main means in the GMDSS for locating ships in distress or their survival craft?

    a. Radio direction finder
    b. Satellite EPIRBs
    c. MF/HF DSC
    d. VHF homing device
2607: The tendency of a grade "B" product to vaporize is indicated by its __________.

    a. flash point
    b. convection index
    c. flammable range
    d. ignition temperature
2608: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0071

    a. Available GM 6.3 ft
    b. Available GM 5.7 ft
    c. Available GM 5.3 ft
    d. Available GM 4.8 ft
2609: Which action should the GMDSS radio operator take in a distress situation when embarking in survival craft?

    a. Switch on EPIRB and SART immediately and leave on.
    b. Switch on EPIRB and SART manually prior to launching and remain aboard vessel in distress.
    c. Notify RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF DSC with portable equipment.
    d. Communicate via Inmarsat-C from the survival craft.
2610: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 21'-06.5", AFT 23'-05.4". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0072

    a. FWD 21'-07.1", AFT 23'-08.9"
    b. FWD 21'-05.9", AFT 23'-01.9"
    c. FWD 21'-03.0", AFT 23'-04.8"
    d. FWD 21'-10.0", AFT 23'-06.0"
2611: The central longitudinal structural hull strength member of the lower hulls of semisubmersible MODU's is called the __________.

    a. stress plate
    b. keel
    c. rider plate
    d. main beam
2612: What is NOT listed as a synonym for crude oil in the Chemical Data Guide?

    a. Rock oil
    b. Mineral oil
    c. Seneca oil
    d. Earth crude
2613: What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?

    a. Smoke
    b. Electricity
    c. Chain reaction
    d. Pressure
2614: What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?

    a. Smoke
    b. Electricity
    c. Pressure
    d. Chain reaction
2615: On a MODU, the keel is the primary strength member of the lower hull form in which direction?

    a. transverse
    b. diagonal
    c. longitudinal
    d. vertical
2616: According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flash point for motor gasoline is __________.

    a. -40°F
    b. 100°C
    c. 199°C
    d. 495°F
2617: Which is an exception to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL 73/78?

    a. The garbage to be discharged will sink.
    b. Garbage accumulation on board has exceeded storage space.
    c. A person falls overboard, and a plastic ice chest is thrown for flotation.
    d. The destination port or terminal cannot receive garbage.
2618: What would NOT be a good extinguishing agent for a grade B product of 1,3-Pentadiene?

    a. Dry chemical
    b. CO2
    c. Foam
    d. Water
2619: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0073

    a. 1171.5 tons
    b. 1311.0 tons
    c. 1503.0 tons
    d. 1710.5 tons
2620: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent is NOT recommended for use on a retinol fire?

    a. Dry chemical
    b. Foam
    c. CO2
    d. Water spray
2621: The decks of a MODU are supported by transverse members called __________.

    a. trusses
    b. deck longitudinals
    c. deck beams
    d. web frames
2622: Liquefied flammable gas is defined as any flammable gas having a Reid vapor pressure exceeding how many pounds?

    a. 14
    b. 30
    c. 40
    d. 50
2623: Between the side frames on a MODU, support for the deck beams is provided by __________.

    a. stanchions
    b. brackets
    c. web frames
    d. deck stringers
2624: The primary concern(s) for safely transporting and handling LFG is(are) __________.

    a. a system of cargo tanks and piping free from leaks
    b. cargo tanks and piping strong enough to withstand the pressure
    c. cargo tanks and piping located or protected to minimize physical damage
    d. All of the above
2625: If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________.

    a. go in one direction until the fuel runs out
    b. plot course for the nearest land
    c. take a vote on which direction you should go
    d. shut down the engines and set the sea anchor
2626: Which message categories cannot be disabled by the GMDSS Radio Operator?

    a. Navigational warnings
    b. Meteorological warnings
    c. Search and Rescue information
    d. All of the above
2627: Deck beams on a MODU are generally spaced at equal intervals and run __________.

    a. longitudinally
    b. vertically
    c. transversely
    d. intermittently
2628: What normally helps in detecting escaping gas?

    a. Running hand along pipe
    b. Red flame
    c. Odor
    d. Increase the line pressure
2629: Severe exposure to chlorine gas can be fatal. Chlorine gas is primarily a __________.

    a. respiratory irritant
    b. skin burning agent
    c. blood poisoning agent
    d. nerve paralyzing irritant
2630: According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is NOT a recommended extinguishing agent for an ethylene cyanohydrin fire?

    a. Alcohol foam
    b. CO2
    c. Dry chemical
    d. Water fog
2631: In MODU construction, beam brackets are triangular plates that join the deck beam to a __________.

    a. bulkhead
    b. frame
    c. stanchion
    d. deck longitudinal
2632: What is the proper first aid for LPG in the eye?

    a. Apply an ice pack to the eye.
    b. Keep the eyelid closed.
    c. Flush the eye with plenty of water.
    d. Rub the eye area clean.
2633: A load line for a MODU is assigned by the __________.

    a. Minerals Management Service
    b. Department of Energy
    c. Corps of Engineers
    d. A recognized classification society approved by the Coast Guard
2634: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 4 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

    a. 40
    b. 48
    c. 53
    d. 60
2635: In MODU construction, beams are transverse girders which provide support to __________.

    a. bulkheads
    b. deckhouse structures
    c. decks
    d. vertical frames
2636: When providing first aid to a victim of gas poisoning, the MOST important symptom to check for is __________.

    a. suspension of breathing
    b. unconsciousness
    c. slow and weak pulse
    d. cold and moist skin
2637: The maximum draft to which a MODU can legally be submerged is indicated by the __________.

    a. Load Line mark
    b. Certificate of Inspection
    c. Muster List ("Station Bill")
    d. Tonnage mark
2638: Marine Safety Information is promulgated via satellite through which system?

    a. AMVER
    b. SafetyNET
    c. NAVTEX
    d. INMARSAT-M SES
2639: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 23'-10", AFT 26'-00". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 34 tons
    b. 45 tons
    c. 55 tons
    d. 61 tons
2640: What is NOT a grade E product?

    a. Dioctyl-phthalate
    b. Gasoline
    c. Formic acid
    d. Creosote coal tar
2641: The deck plating on a MODU is supported primarily by deck longitudinals and deck __________.

    a. girders
    b. stanchions
    c. frames
    d. beams
2642: When properly set and drawing, a fore-and-aft sail has a cross-section that __________.

    a. is a uniform curve
    b. is a curve with more curve at the luff
    c. is a curve with more curve at the leach
    d. approximates a straight line
2643: Stanchions prevent the entire deck load on a MODU from being carried by the __________.

    a. bulkheads
    b. stringers
    c. frames and beam brackets
    d. deck longitudinals
2644: When working on a tow, a good safety precaution is to __________.

    a. carry loads on your inside shoulder when walking along the outside of a barge
    b. tighten ratchets outboard
    c. walk on the top of covered barges when possible to avoid narrow gunwales
    d. always remove the toothpick after tightening the ratchet
2645: Keeping the draft of a MODU at or below the load line mark will insure that the unit has adequate __________.

    a. reserve ballast
    b. reserve buoyancy
    c. lightweight displacement
    d. critical motions
2646: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 3200 brake horsepower?

    a. 2
    b. 3
    c. 4
    d. 5
2647: Which statement concerning GMDSS Radio Operator requirements is FALSE?

    a. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators at all times while at sea.
    b. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators at all times while at sea and may elect to carry a GMDSS Radio Maintainer as well.
    c. Communications involving safety of life at sea do not have to be logged as long as the compulsory vessel was not involved in such communications.
    d. While at sea, adjustments to, and the maintaining of, GMDSS equipment may be performed by the GMDSS Radio Operator as long as the work is supervised by an onboard licensed GMDSS Radio Maintainer.
2648: Flames from small leaks of LFG may be extinguished by __________.

    a. utilizing carbon dioxide or dry chemical fire extinguishers
    b. utilizing soda and acid fire extinguishers
    c. blowing the flames out
    d. letting it burn itself out
2649: Vinyl chloride reacts dangerously with __________.

    a. alkalies
    b. concentrated nitric acid
    c. saltwater
    d. organic acids
2650: Which product(s) is(are) compatible with the product ethylene cyanohydrin?

    a. Sulfuric acid
    b. Nitric acid
    c. Isocyanates
    d. Ammonia
2651: Load line regulations are designed to insure that a MODU has adequate structural strength and sufficient __________.

    a. lifesaving equipment
    b. stability
    c. mooring tension
    d. riser tension
2652: Which vessel is required to carry an efficient daylight signaling lamp? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. 99 GT towing vessel on Inland Waters
    b. 199 GT towing vessel on a coastwise voyage
    c. 299 GT towing vessel on a coastwise voyage
    d. 199 GT towing vessel on an international voyage
2653: The deck loads on a MODU are distributed through the deck beams to the __________.

    a. frames
    b. hull
    c. stringers
    d. plates
2654: Name one major advantage of transporting gas under refrigeration.

    a. It increases its volume.
    b. It reduces its volume.
    c. It has less product per volume.
    d. None of the above
2655: Support of MODU side plating is provided primarily by transverse __________.

    a. beams
    b. girders
    c. frames
    d. bulkheads
2656: How long must the GMDSS radio log be retained on board before sending it to the shoreside licensee?

    a. At least two years after the last entry
    b. At least one year after the last entry
    c. At least 90 days after the last entry
    d. At least 30 days after the last entry
2657: Your drafts are: FWD 6'-2", AFT 6'-8". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 23 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? ( D037DG )

    a. 24 tons
    b. 18 tons
    c. 12 tons
    d. 6 tons
2658: As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass __________.

    a. first turns to starboard then counterclockwise to port
    b. also turns to starboard
    c. turns counterclockwise to port
    d. remains aligned with compass north
2659: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0074

    a. Available GM 4.3 ft
    b. Available GM 4.1 ft
    c. Available GM 3.9 ft
    d. Available GM 3.6 ft
2660: A synonym for chloroform is __________.

    a. trichloromethane
    b. sulfuric chlorohydrin
    c. chlorine gas
    d. 4-methyl phenol
2661: When the longitudinal strength members of a MODU are continuous and closely spaced, the vessel is __________.

    a. transversely framed
    b. longitudinally framed
    c. intermittently framed
    d. web framed
2662: A vessel with a large GM will __________.

    a. have a small amplitude of roll in heavy weather
    b. tend to ship water on deck in heavy weather
    c. be subject to severe racking stresses
    d. be less likely to have cargo shift
2663: Lighter longitudinal stiffening frames on the MODU side plating are called __________.

    a. stringers
    b. side frames
    c. side stiffeners
    d. intercostals
2664: Gasoline fumes tend to __________.

    a. settle near the bottom of the bilge
    b. settle near the top of the bilge
    c. settle evenly throughout all levels of the bilge by mixing with air
    d. disperse to atmosphere
2665: You are in the North Sea, which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to throw broken plywood dunnage over the side?

    a. 6 nm
    b. 12 nm
    c. 25 nm
    d. Must be retained aboard
2666: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-05"; and the KG is 23.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 15° inclination.

    a. 0.7 foot
    b. 1.0 feet
    c. 1.7 feet
    d. 3.8 feet
2667: Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plans must be reviewed __________.

    a. annually by the owner, with a letter submitted six months before expiration
    b. only once every five years, with a letter submitted six months before expiration
    c. and the entire plan resubmitted for approval once every five years, six months before expiration
    d. annually by the owner, with a letter submitted to the Coast Guard within one month of the anniversary date of the plan approval
2668: As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass __________.

    a. remains aligned with compass north
    b. also turns to starboard
    c. first turns to starboard then counterclockwise to port
    d. turns counterclockwise to port
2669: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 23'-10", AFT 26'-00". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 1 foot? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 61 tons
    b. 72 tons
    c. 79 tons
    d. 86 tons
2670: According to the Chemical Data Guide, which material would corrode upon contact with aniline?

    a. Aluminum
    b. Copper
    c. Nickel
    d. Mild steel
2671: To meet the regulations governing manning requirements outside U.S. jurisdiction, a person holding a foreign license can serve in any of the following positions EXCEPT __________.

    a. able seaman
    b. ballast control operator
    c. barge supervisor
    d. offshore installation manager
2672: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 16'-08", AFT 17'-06"; and the KG is 23.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 60° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.7 feet off the centerline.

    a. 1.8 feet
    b. 2.1 feet
    c. 3.0 feet
    d. 3.8 feet
2673: A MODU having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is __________.

    a. longitudinally framed
    b. transversely framed
    c. cellular framed
    d. web framed
2674: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 2 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

    a. 76
    b. 67
    c. 60
    d. 52
2675: The heavier outboard strake of deck plating on a MODU is called the deck __________.

    a. stiffener
    b. beam
    c. stringer
    d. doubler
2676: A safe fuel system must __________.

    a. prevent engine overheating
    b. have proper air/gasoline fuel mixture ratio
    c. be liquid- and vapor-tight
    d. supply sufficient air to the intake manifold
2677: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0075

    a. 4.0 feet
    b. 5.6 feet
    c. 6.0 feet
    d. 6.8 feet
2678: What happens to the pulling power of a winch when retrieving wire rope?

    a. It increases
    b. It decreases
    c. It remains the same
    d. It fluctuates, depending on the gearing system
2679: The primary hazard of liquefied petroleum gas and liquefied natural gas is __________.

    a. pressure
    b. toxicity
    c. temperature
    d. flammability
2680: You are loading benzyl chloride and a small quantity spills on deck. According to the Chemical Data Guide, which of the following may be used as a substitute for water for the cleanup procedure?

    a. Alcohol
    b. Sodium bisulfite
    c. Sodium carbonate
    d. Soda ash solution
2681: You are offloading garbage to another ship. Your records must identify that ship by name and show her __________.

    a. official number
    b. home port
    c. Master
    d. next port-of-call
2682: The purpose of fuses in electric wiring is to __________.

    a. allow for cutting out branch circuits
    b. prevent overloading the circuits
    c. reduce voltage to the branch circuits
    d. permit the use of smaller wiring for lighting circuits
2683: On a MODU, the deck stringer is the outboardmost deck __________.

    a. plating
    b. beam
    c. stiffener
    d. stanchion
2684: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and holds 4 and 5 flood, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

    a. 22
    b. 28
    c. 34
    d. 39
2685: The number of certificated able seamen and lifeboatmen required on a MODU is determined by the __________.

    a. Minerals Management Service
    b. Corps of Engineers
    c. Coast Guard
    d. American Bureau of Shipping
2686: Which tank barges require draft marks?

    a. All tank barges
    b. Notch barges over 1000 GT
    c. Tank barges over 100 GT
    d. Tank barges over 50 GT
2687: As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass __________.

    a. first turns to starboard then counterclockwise to port
    b. also turns to starboard
    c. remains aligned with compass north
    d. turns counterclockwise to port
2688: The vapor pressure of a gas is the pressure necessary to keep it in a(n) __________.

    a. soluble state
    b. solid state
    c. liquefied state
    d. inert state
2689: A vessel with a large GM will __________.

    a. have more resistance to listing in case of damage
    b. have less tendency to have synchronous rolling
    c. be less likely to have cargo shift
    d. ride more comfortably
2690: Heavy fuel oils when spilled are __________.

    a. more harmful to sea life than lighter oils
    b. easier to clean up than lighter refined oils
    c. less harmful to sea life than lighter oils
    d. not a real threat to marine life
2691: Two individuals authorized to serve as a lifeboatman must be assigned to any lifeboat that has a capacity of more than __________.

    a. 10 persons
    b. 20 persons
    c. 30 persons
    d. 40 persons
2692: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 22'-10"; and the KG is 22.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 45° inclination.

    a. 1.8 feet
    b. 2.6 feet
    c. 2.9 feet
    d. 3.6 feet
2693: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0076

    a. 1171.5 tons
    b. 1311.0 tons
    c. 1503.0 tons
    d. 1912.5 tons
2694: The heading of a vessel is indicated by what part of the compass?

    a. Card
    b. Needle
    c. Lubber's line
    d. Gimbals
2695: A certificated lifeboatman assigned to command the lifeboat must __________.

    a. be the first individual to board the craft
    b. drain the hydraulic pressure before lowering the craft
    c. have a list of the persons assigned to the lifeboat
    d. All of the above
2696: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-09", AFT 28'-03"; and the KG is 22.4 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.6 feet off the centerline.

    a. 16°
    b. 20°
    c. 24°
    d. 30°
2697: In order to withstand fluid head pressure on a MODU, stiffeners are often attached to the bulkhead __________.

    a. penetrations
    b. plating
    c. framing
    d. brackets
2698: Using a sea anchor will __________.

    a. reduce your drift rate
    b. keep the liferaft from turning over
    c. aid in recovering the liferaft
    d. increase your visibility
2699: Your vessel displaces 10,000 tons and has a KG of 22.6 feet. What will be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of 45° if the center of gravity shifts 2.0 feet transversely? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 3.8 feet
    b. 2.7 feet
    c. 1.9 feet
    d. 0.9 foot
2700: According to the regulations, what fire safety control feature is required in quick-closing shut off valves?

    a. Electrical cut off switch
    b. A fusible link
    c. Manual cut off switch
    d. A water spray actuator
2701: Compared to internal structural plating, the exterior hull plating on a MODU is usually __________.

    a. stronger
    b. thinner
    c. more corrosion resistant
    d. a lower grade steel
2702: Your vessel displaces 12,000 tons and has a KG of 22.6 feet. What will be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of 30° if the center of gravity shifts 1.8 feet transversely? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 0.8 foot
    b. 1.2 feet
    c. 1.8 feet
    d. 2.3 feet
2703: The number of certificated able seamen and lifeboatmen required on a MODU is stated in the __________.

    a. Certificate of Inspection
    b. American Bureau of Shipping code
    c. Minerals Management Service regulations
    d. Safety of Life at Sea Convention
2704: What must be located on the discharge side of the pump in a fire main system?

    a. Pressure gauge
    b. Strainer
    c. Reduction valve
    d. International shore connection
2705: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0077

    a. 4.0 feet
    b. 5.6 feet
    c. 6.0 feet
    d. 6.8 feet
2706: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 15'-09", AFT 16'-08"; and the KG is 23.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 0.9 foot off the centerline.

    a. 15°
    b. 18°
    c. 21°
    d. 24°
2707: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0078

    a. Available GM 3.8 ft
    b. Available GM 3.6 ft
    c. Available GM 3.3 ft
    d. Available GM 3.1 ft
2708: Upon release to the atmosphere, LFG readily __________.

    a. vaporizes
    b. attacks caustically
    c. rises
    d. attacks corrosively
2709: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-06", AFT 25'-08"; and the KG is 22.9 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 50° inclination if the center of gravity is 0.5 foot off center.

    a. 3.3 feet
    b. 2.6 feet
    c. 2.3 feet
    d. 2.0 feet
2710: Remote controls for quick-closing shut off valves are required in how many location(s)?

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
2711: The number of able seamen required on a MODU is stated in the __________.

    a. American Bureau of Shipping code
    b. Department of Energy regulations
    c. Mineral Management Service rules
    d. Certificate of Inspection
2712: A vessel with a small GM will __________.

    a. be more subject to synchronous rolling
    b. have a short rolling period
    c. provide an uncomfortable ride for personnel
    d. have a smaller amplitude of roll in heavy weather
2713: On a semisubmersible MODU, reserve buoyancy is increased by the presence of void spaces above the waterline in the __________.

    a. submerged hulls
    b. quarters
    c. columns and upper structure
    d. submerged connecting structures
2714: Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent permeability and number 1 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the permeability exceeds what percent?

    a. 63
    b. 66
    c. 71
    d. 77
2715: The certificate of inspection of a MODU will specify the __________.

    a. number of licensed personnel required on board
    b. maximum load line draft
    c. maximum water depth for drilling
    d. next date for an inclining experiment
2716: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________.

    a. red parachute flares
    b. drinking water
    c. a jackknife
    d. a light
2717: Horizontal subdivision decks forming watertight compartments in the columns of a semisubmersible MODU increase the unit's __________.

    a. tank capacities
    b. stability in the event of damage
    c. towing speed
    d. anchor holding ratio
2718: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 22'-10"; and the KG is 18.4 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30° inclination.

    a. 1.6 feet
    b. 2.9 feet
    c. 3.8 feet
    d. 4.6 feet
2719: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 17'-08". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 2 feet? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 62 tons
    b. 65 tons
    c. 72 tons
    d. 75 tons
2720: To determine the pressure and temperature limitations under which LFG is required to be transported on a barge, you should look at the __________.

    a. Certificate of Inspection
    b. loading order
    c. rules and regulations for tank vessels
    d. tankerman's document
2721: You are at the helm of a schooner-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the port tack, on a beam reach, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "bear off quickly". To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________.

    a. slack the foresail sheet
    b. slack the fore-staysail sheet
    c. slack the jib sheet
    d. slack the main sheet
2722: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-08", AFT 24'-02". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 53 tons
    b. 57 tons
    c. 61 tons
    d. 65 tons
2723: The prohibition against exceeding the load line draft may be considered temporarily not applicable when __________.

    a. column-stabilized units are operating in water depths over 600 feet
    b. column-stabilized units are operating in waters outside U.S. jurisdiction
    c. bottom supported units are being raised or lowered to the sea bed
    d. bottom supported units are being towed on a move of less than 12 hours
2724: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-03", AFT 18'-09"; and the KG is 22.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.4 feet off the centerline.

    a. 18°
    b. 22°
    c. 26°
    d. 30°
2725: The stability of a semisubmersible MODU would be seriously reduced if flooding occurred in the __________.

    a. submerged hulls
    b. column void spaces
    c. dry mud tanks
    d. ballast tanks
2726: Your vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-02", AFT 23'-10". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts if 98 tons of fuel is loaded 116 feet forward of amidships.

    a. FWD 19'-04", AFT 23'-06"
    b. FWD 19'-07", AFT 23'-04"
    c. FWD 19'-09", AFT 23'-01"
    d. FWD 19'-09", AFT 23'-06"
2727: For optimum stability during jacking operations, mat ballast tanks or spud cans should be __________.

    a. empty
    b. fully ballasted
    c. partially ballasted
    d. sealed
2728: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-00", AFT 14'-08"; and the KG is 25.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 30° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.5 feet off the centerline.

    a. 0.6 foot
    b. 1.3 feet
    c. 1.9 feet
    d. 2.9 feet
2729: You are approaching another vessel and see that it has the signal flag "O" hoisted. What is your next action?

    a. Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is requesting a pilot.
    b. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone and begin a search because the vessel has a man overboard.
    c. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because it is disabled.
    d. Approach with caution because the vessel is stopped and making no way through the water.
2730: According to the regulations, normally, manholes in LFG tanks are located __________.

    a. in the ends of each tank
    b. in the expansion trunk of each tank
    c. above the weather deck
    d. there are no requirements in the regulation
2731: The document that certifies the correctness of the load line marks on a MODU is called the __________.

    a. Certificate of Inspection
    b. Load line certificate
    c. Certificate of Documentation
    d. SOLAS Certificate
2732: According to the regulations, to prevent excessive pressure buildup in cargo tanks containing LFG, they are fitted with __________.

    a. pressure vacuum relief valves
    b. excess flow valves
    c. safety relief valves
    d. flame screens
2733: Buoyancy associated with empty or partly empty ballast tanks in the mat of a mat supported jack-up MODU during jacking operations can cause __________.

    a. capsizing
    b. delays
    c. progressive flooding
    d. negative buoyancy
2734: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 24.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 15° inclination.

    a. 0.7 foot
    b. 1.2 feet
    c. 1.9 feet
    d. 4.8 feet
2735: A load line is assigned to a MODU to insure adequate stability and __________.

    a. mooring tension
    b. riser tension
    c. lifesaving equipment
    d. structural strength
2736: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 23'-06"; and the KG is 22.4 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 19° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.3 feet off center.

    a. 0.2 foot
    b. 0.8 foot
    c. 1.4 feet
    d. 2.2 feet
2737: During jacking operations and transit, empty void spaces in the hull of a jack up MODU provide __________.

    a. buoyancy
    b. extra storage space
    c. additional tank capacity
    d. reduced stability
2738: Generally, the first action in extinguishing an LFG fire caused by escaping gas is to __________.

    a. sweep flames away with water spray
    b. shut off the leak
    c. use a chemical foam fire extinguisher
    d. call the local fire department
2739: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-03". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 27 tons
    b. 31 tons
    c. 34 tons
    d. 37 tons
2740: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 19'-06.6", AFT 20'-05.6". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference book to determine the final drafts. ST-0079

    a. FWD 20'-06", AFT 21'-02"
    b. FWD 18'-06", AFT 19'-09"
    c. FWD 18'-10", AFT 20'-05"
    d. FWD 20'-03", AFT 21'-05"
2741: A record of the types and strengths of steels used on a MODU must be included in the __________.

    a. general plans
    b. builder's documentation
    c. Certificate of Inspection
    d. construction portfolio
2742: A vessel with a small GM will __________.

    a. have a large amplitude of roll
    b. provide a comfortable ride for the crew and passengers
    c. have drier decks in heavy weather
    d. be likely to have cargo shift in heavy weather
2743: Compliance with the terms of the load line certificate on a MODU is the responsibility of the __________.

    a. Ballast Control Operator
    b. Barge Supervisor
    c. Master or Offshore Installation Manager
    d. operators representative
2744: Radar reflectors are required for __________.

    a. all fishing vessels over 39 feet in length
    b. sail-propelled fishing vessels
    c. all fishing vessels of less than 200 GT
    d. wooden hull fishing vessels with a poor radar echo
2745: The construction portfolio may be included as part of the MODU __________.

    a. general plans
    b. operating manual
    c. builders documentation
    d. Coast Guard file
2746: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 21.5 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30° inclination.

    a. 0.8 foot
    b. 1.5 feet
    c. 2.7 feet
    d. 3.6 feet
2747: Periodic surveys to renew the load line assignment for a MODU must be made at intervals not exceeding __________.

    a. 18 months
    b. 2 years
    c. 3 years
    d. 5 years
2748: Most covered lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing if the __________.

    a. passengers are strapped to their seats
    b. fuel tanks are not less than half full
    c. sea anchor is deployed to windward
    d. lower ballast tanks are filled with water
2749: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-03". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 1 foot? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 62 tons
    b. 68 tons
    c. 74 tons
    d. 78 tons
2750: According to regulations, a cargo hose used for transferring liquefied gases must have a bursting pressure of __________.

    a. 5 times the maximum working pressure on the hose during cargo transfer
    b. one half the designed working pressure
    c. 4 times the pressure of the cargo pump used for transferring
    d. 5 times the minimum working pressure on the hose during cargo transfer
2751: The requirements for special welding procedures on a MODU must be contained in the __________.

    a. vessel plans
    b. Coast Guard file
    c. construction portfolio
    d. construction plans
2753: For MODU's operating under the U.S. flag, the construction portfolio must contain __________.

    a. detailed construction plans
    b. chemical and physical properties of ABS approved steels
    c. approved welding procedures and welding test procedures
    d. loading conditions and limitations
2754: Which lifesaving equipment must be tested monthly?

    a. Inflatable PFD's
    b. EPIRB
    c. Hydrostatic releases
    d. Dated batteries
2755: What repair or modification to a MODU would most likely require consulting the construction portfolio?

    a. Replacing watertight doors in quarters
    b. Repair of drill pipe racks on deck
    c. Repair of leg-to-can connection on a jack-up
    d. Replacing a service pump foundation
2756: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-05"; and the KG is 23.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 26° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.0 foot off center.

    a. 0.0 feet
    b. 0.4 foot
    c. 0.8 foot
    d. 1.7 feet
2757: A simplified construction plan may be included in the MODU construction portfolio provided it adequately defines the __________.

    a. areas where special materials are used
    b. hazardous areas
    c. location of emergency repair equipment
    d. type and strength of materials used
2758: A vessel is equipped with cross-connected deep tanks. In which situation should the cross-connection valve be closed?

    a. The tanks lie above the waterline and are filled.
    b. The tanks are partially filled with dry cargo.
    c. The tanks are partially filled with liquid cargo.
    d. The tanks are filled and lie below the waterline.
2759: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 17'-08". The LCG of the forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 110 tons
    b. 103 tons
    c. 100 tons
    d. 98 tons
2760: According to the regulations, what type of gauging is required for a cargo of butadiene?

    a. Open
    b. Restricted
    c. Closed
    d. None
2761: In the MODU construction portfolio, materials which do not conform to ASTM or ABS specifications must also include the __________.

    a. chemical and physical properties of the material
    b. name of the alternative standard or specification
    c. the ASTM or ABS specification the material approximates
    d. manufacturer or origin of the material
2762: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-04", AFT 25'-10"; and the KG is 23.5 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 37° inclination.

    a. 1.9 feet
    b. 2.1 feet
    c. 3.5 feet
    d. 4.2 feet
2763: A welding procedure used for joining dissimilar metals used on a MODU would be recorded in the __________.

    a. welding plan
    b. ASTM specifications
    c. construction portfolio
    d. Coast Guard file
2764: If you wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning ship it will __________.

    a. weigh you down
    b. preserve body heat
    c. reduce your body heat
    d. make it more difficult to breathe
2765: The maximum draft to which a drilling unit may be safely loaded is called __________.

    a. mean draft
    b. calculated draft
    c. deep draft
    d. load line draft
2766: How do you know how many passengers you may carry? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. As many as possible
    b. The amount on the Certificate of Inspection
    c. Use your own judgment
    d. No more than 40 passengers
2767: Forces within a drilling unit have caused a difference between the starboard and port drafts. This difference is __________.

    a. list
    b. heel
    c. trim
    d. flotation
2768: Small passenger vessels of less than 100 gross registered tons must be inspected by the Coast Guard when they carry more than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. 12 passengers
    b. 50 passengers
    c. 6 passengers
    d. 1 passenger
2769: Starting motors, generators, and any other spark producing devices shall be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. of the alternating current type
    b. mounted as high as practicable above the bilges
    c. rated for at least 12 volts
    d. All of the above
2769: Starting motors, generators, and any other spark producing devices shall be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. of the alternating current type
    b. mounted as high as practicable above the bilges
    c. rated for at least 12 volts
    d. All of the above
2770: Branch venting from safety relief valves on barges shall be constructed to discharge the gas at a vertical height above the weather deck to a minimum of __________.

    a. 6 feet
    b. 8 feet
    c. 10 feet
    d. 12 feet
2771: The angle to which a floating MODU, with a negative initial metacentric height, lies while at rest in still water is the angle of __________.

    a. trim
    b. yaw
    c. heel
    d. loll
2772: Tour vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-09", AFT 23'-07"; and the KG is 24.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 18° inclination.

    a. 0.7 foot
    b. 1.3 feet
    c. 2.0 feet
    d. 2.3 feet
2773: The required portable radio apparatus on an international voyage must be stowed in __________.

    a. the Master's quarters
    b. the ship's office
    c. the radio room, bridge, or protected location
    d. an unlocked cabinet next to the Muster List ("Station Bill")
2774: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0080

    a. Available GM 3.8 ft
    b. Available GM 3.5 ft
    c. Available GM 3.2 ft
    d. Available GM 2.9 ft
2775: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-08", AFT 29'-05'. Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0081

    a. FWD 28'-11", AFT 28'-11"
    b. FWD 29'-01", AFT 28'-09"
    c. FWD 29'-03", AFT 28'-07"
    d. FWD 29'-05", AFT 28'-05"
2776: The lubber's line of a magnetic compass __________.

    a. always shows true north direction
    b. indicates the vessel's heading
    c. is always parallel to the vessel's transom
    d. is located on the compass card
2777: The lubber's line on a magnetic compass indicates __________.

    a. compass north
    b. the direction of the vessel's head
    c. magnetic north
    d. a relative bearing taken with azimuth circle
2778: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-06", AFT 25'-04"; and the KG is 17.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 75° inclination if the center of gravity is 2.5 feet off the centerline.

    a. 2.5 feet
    b. 3.3 feet
    c. 5.4 feet
    d. 9.7 feet
2779: Error may be introduced into a magnetic compass by __________.

    a. making a structural change to the vessel
    b. a short circuit near the compass
    c. belt buckles
    d. All of the above
2780: The carriage of a liquefied gas not appearing in table 4 of 46 CFR Part 154 must be approved by the __________.

    a. vessel owner
    b. Commandant (G-MTH)
    c. American Bureau of Shipping
    d. Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection
2781: For a floating MODU, the center of flotation is the point in the waterplane __________.

    a. about which the MODU lists and trims
    b. which coincides with the center of buoyancy
    c. which, in the absence of external forces, is always vertically aligned with the center of gravity
    d. which is shown in the hydrostatic tables as VCB
2782: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-06", AFT 25'-04"; and the KG is 22.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 20° inclination.

    a. 0.5 foot
    b. 0.8 foot
    c. 1.4 feet
    d. 2.2 feet
2783: The angle of loll is a stability term which applies to a floating MODU with __________.

    a. off-center loading
    b. stiff characteristics
    c. excessive pitch or roll
    d. negative initial stability
2784: When abandoning ship and jumping into the water from a substantial height without a life jacket, you should __________.

    a. dive head first, using your hands to break the surface of the water
    b. hold your arms firmly at your sides and jump feet first
    c. jump feet first, covering your nose and mouth with one hand and grasping the opposing upper arm with the other
    d. jump feet first, holding your knees to your chest
2785: The intact volume above the waterline of a floating MODU is __________.

    a. displacement volume
    b. reserve buoyancy
    c. gross tonnage
    d. net tonnage
2786: Certain equipment aboard vessels, inspected under the small passenger vessel regulations, is required to be marked with the vessel's name. This includes __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. bunks, silverware, china, and glassware
    b. anchors, line, paint cans, and fuel drums
    c. life jackets, life floats and paddles
    d. whistles, searchlights, navigation lights, and ship's bell
2787: You are on a commercial fishing vessel 78 feet long. At least one of your ring buoys or throwable flotation devices must have a line of what minimum length attached?

    a. 60 feet
    b. 70 feet
    c. 80 feet
    d. 90 feet
2788: Which is NOT a safety precaution to be observed during the loading of LFG?

    a. Report any leakage of cargo.
    b. Make sure the rake ends of the barge are completely dry and mopped.
    c. Ascertain that the hoses to be used are in good order.
    d. Be on the lookout for work being accomplished ashore in the vicinity of the barges.
2789: As appropriate for the voyage, all vessels must carry adequate and up-to-date __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. charts
    b. Coast Pilots
    c. Light Lists
    d. All of the above
2790: The weight of liquefied petroleum gas vapors as compared to air is __________.

    a. variable
    b. the same
    c. lighter
    d. heavier
2791: Seawater may be used for drinking __________.

    a. under no conditions
    b. at a maximum rate of two ounces per day
    c. if gathered during or immediately after a hard rain
    d. after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water
2792: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-06", AFT 19'-01"; and the KG is 18.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 35° inclination.

    a. 1.8 feet
    b. 3.0 feet
    c. 4.7 feet
    d. 5.8 feet
2793: The mean draft of a MODU is the draft __________.

    a. midway between the forward and aft draft marks
    b. at the center of flotation
    c. at the load line
    d. at the center of buoyancy
2794: Which would influence a magnetic compass?

    a. Electrical wiring
    b. Iron pipe
    c. Radio
    d. All of the above
2795: The true mean draft of a MODU is the draft __________.

    a. midway between drafts forward and aft
    b. at the center of flotation
    c. at the load line
    d. at the center of buoyancy
2796: On small passenger vessels cooking and heating equipment __________.

    a. shall be suitable for marine use
    b. may use liquefied petroleum gas
    c. cannot use gasoline
    d. All of the above
2797: A semisubmersible with a positive GM, and TCG located starboard of the centerline, inclines to an angle of __________.

    a. heel
    b. trim
    c. list
    d. loll
2798: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 21.5 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 30° inclination if the center of gravity is 0.9 foot off the centerline.

    a. 1.5 feet
    b. 2.8 feet
    c. 3.6 feet
    d. 4.3 feet
2799: One of the principal dangers inherent in liquefied petroleum gas is __________.

    a. as it warms up it becomes heavier than air
    b. the way it reacts with sea water
    c. the strong odor it produces
    d. its low temperature causes frostbite or freezing
2800: Your vessel assumes an angle of loll of 8° after loading a deck cargo. The drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 18'-03". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the negative GM.

    a. 0.0 foot
    b. -0.2 foot
    c. -0.8 foot
    d. -1.0 foot
2801: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2000 brake horsepower?

    a. 2
    b. 3
    c. 4
    d. 5
2802: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-11", AFT 15'-09"; and the KG is 18.2 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 2.0 feet off the centerline.

    a. 9°
    b. 12°
    c. 16°
    d. 19°
2803: When a magnetic compass is not in use for a prolonged period of time it should __________.

    a. be shielded from direct sunlight
    b. be locked into a constant heading
    c. have any air bubbles replaced with nitrogen
    d. have the compensating magnets removed
2804: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-09", AFT 20'-09"; and the KG is 24.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 15° inclination if the center of gravity is 0.5 foot off the centerline.

    a. 0.0 feet
    b. 0.5 foot
    c. 1.2 feet
    d. 1.7 feet
2805: A vessel heading NNW is on a course of __________.

    a. 274.5°
    b. 292.0°
    c. 315.5°
    d. 337.5°
2806: A vessel heading NW is on a course of __________.

    a. 274.5°
    b. 292.5°
    c. 315.0°
    d. 337.5°
2807: A vessel heading SSW is on a course of __________.

    a. 202.5°
    b. 225.0°
    c. 247.5°
    d. 270.0°
2810: Your vessel assumes an angle of loll of 6° after loading a deck cargo. The drafts are: FWD 16'-00", AFT 16'-05". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the negative GM.

    a. -1.0 foot
    b. -0.6 foot
    c. -0.1 foot
    d. -0.02 foot
2811: A vessel heading SW is on a course of __________.

    a. 202.5°
    b. 225.0°
    c. 247.5°
    d. 270.0°
2812: What is correct with respect to required watertight bulkheads on small passenger vessels less than 100 GT?

    a. Penetrations are prohibited.
    b. Sluice valves are not permitted.
    c. Each bulkhead must be stepped at its midpoint.
    d. All of the above
2813: A vessel heading WSW is on a course of __________.

    a. 202.5°
    b. 225.0°
    c. 247.5°
    d. 271.0°
2814: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-04", AFT 21'-08"; and the KG is 20.6 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 45° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.2 feet off the centerline.

    a. 3.8 feet
    b. 4.4 feet
    c. 5.2 feet
    d. 5.6 feet
2815: A vessel heading WNW is on a course of __________.

    a. 270.0°
    b. 292.5°
    c. 315.0°
    d. 337.5°
2816: When a lifeline is required to be attached to a ring life buoy it must be at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. 30 feet long
    b. 60 feet long
    c. 90 feet long
    d. 120 feet long
2817: A vessel heading SSE is on a course of __________.

    a. 112.5°
    b. 135.0°
    c. 157.5°
    d. 180.0°
2818: Your vessel assumes an angle of loll of 10° after loading a deck cargo. The drafts are: FWD 15'-11", AFT 16'-06". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the negative GM.

    a. -1.3 feet
    b. -0.9 foot
    c. -0.6 foot
    d. -0.3 foot
2819: Distress flares and smoke signals are not required on vessels operating on short runs. A "short run" is limited to __________. (small passenger vessel regulation)

    a. water of less than 20 feet in depth
    b. where land is always in sight
    c. no more than 5 miles
    d. about 30 minutes away from the dock
2820: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0082

    a. FWD 26'-02", AFT 26'-08"
    b. FWD 25'-09", AFT 27'-02"
    c. FWD 25'-03", AFT 28'-09"
    d. FWD 24'-11", AFT 29'-11"
2821: A vessel heading SE is on a course of __________.

    a. 112.5°
    b. 135.0°
    c. 157.5°
    d. 180.0°
2822: Survival craft required on a steel small passenger vessel operating in cold water must __________.

    a. have sufficient capacity for all persons on board the vessel in ocean service.
    b. have sufficient capacity for at least 50% of all persons on board for vessels in ocean service
    c. be only inflatable liferafts
    d. international orange in color only for vessels in lakes, bays and sounds service
2823: A vessel heading ESE is on a course of __________.

    a. 112.5°
    b. 135.0°
    c. 157.5°
    d. 180.0°
2824: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 23'-01", AFT 24'-05"; and the KG is 22.8 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 30° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.9 feet off the centerline.

    a. 3.7 feet
    b. 2.3 feet
    c. 1.4 feet
    d. 0.7 foot
2826: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.

    a. cool the bulkhead around the fire
    b. remove combustibles from direct exposure
    c. close all openings to the area
    d. shut off all electrical power
2827: For a floating MODU, true mean draft is always the __________.

    a. average of the observed drafts
    b. draft at the center of flotation
    c. draft corresponding to the calculated displacement
    d. mean of the calculated drafts
2828: On board small passenger vessels, how often shall the Master test the steering gear?

    a. Once a week
    b. Once a month
    c. Every 72 operating hours while underway
    d. Before getting underway for the day's operations
2829: Aboard small passenger vessels the steering gear, signaling whistle, controls, and communication system shall be tested by the Master __________.

    a. once a week
    b. before getting underway for the day's operation
    c. at every inspection and reinspection
    d. at least once in every 48 hours
2830: Your vessel assumes an angle of loll of 14° after loading a deck cargo. The drafts are: FWD 13'-01", AFT 13'-11". Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the negative GM.

    a. -0.7 foot
    b. -0.4 foot
    c. -0.3 foot
    d. -0.1 foot
2831: A vessel heading ENE is on a course of __________.

    a. 022.5°
    b. 045.0°
    c. 067.5°
    d. 090.0°
2832: Which fuel cannot be used for cooking on vessels carrying passengers for hire? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. Kerosene
    b. Coal
    c. Wood
    d. Gasoline
2833: A vessel heading NE is on a course of __________.

    a. 022.5°
    b. 045.0°
    c. 067.5°
    d. 090.0°
2834: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 23.1 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at 60° inclination if the center of gravity is 2.4 feet off the centerline.

    a. 2.4 feet
    b. 1.8 feet
    c. 0.5 foot
    d. 0.2 foot
2835: A vessel heading NNE is on a course of __________.

    a. 022.5°
    b. 045.0°
    c. 067.5°
    d. 090.0°
2836: The remote control for a fixed fire extinguishing system should be __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. painted red and labeled
    b. concealed from the crew
    c. protected by plexiglas
    d. padlocked
2837: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0083

    a. 7.7 feet
    b. 9.1 feet
    c. 9.9 feet
    d. 10.6 feet
2838: How many B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the machinery space of a 260 GT tow vessel with 2400 B.H.P.? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. 6
    b. 5
    c. 3
    d. 2
2839: What type of cooking equipment may NOT be used aboard vessels subject to The Rules and Regulations for Small Passenger Vessels?

    a. Gasoline
    b. Propane
    c. Butane
    d. LPG
2840: If a vessel loads 400 tons of deck cargo resulting in a GM of -0.2 feet on 9000 tons of displacement, what will be the angle of loll? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 16°
    b. 15°
    c. 12°
    d. 9°
2841: The distance from the still water level (corrected for tides and storm surge) to the bottom of the hull of a MODU is the __________.

    a. air gap
    b. freeboard
    c. penetration
    d. water depth
2842: No "T-boat", however propelled, may operate with more than six passengers onboard __________.

    a. unless the operator has a Coast Guard license
    b. unless the vessel has a valid Permit to Proceed
    c. until the Boarding Officer has checked the papers
    d. until a permit is obtained from the Collector of Customs
2843: Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal records must be kept __________.

    a. two years
    b. one year
    c. until the next Coast Guard inspection
    d. until the end of the voyage
2844: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 23.1 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 37° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.8 feet off center.

    a. 0.4 foot
    b. 1.4 feet
    c. 1.8 feet
    d. 2.6 feet
2845: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0084

    a. FWD 27'-01", AFT 25'-08"
    b. FWD 29'-09", AFT 25'-09"
    c. FWD 25'-09", AFT 30'-05"
    d. FWD 25'-06", AFT 30'-00"
2846: A small passenger vessel engaging in international voyages must be dry docked at least once every __________.

    a. 6 months
    b. 12 months
    c. 36 months
    d. 60 months
2847: The required portable radio shall be stored in the proper location and be __________.

    a. equipped with an approved carrying case
    b. equipped with spare batteries
    c. readily accessible for transfer to a lifeboat
    d. in a waterproof enclosure
2849: A vessel would be referred to as "stiff" when the weight of the cargo is __________.

    a. evenly distributed vertically and the double bottoms are full
    b. concentrated low and the double bottoms are empty
    c. concentrated low and the double bottoms are full
    d. concentrated high and the double bottoms are empty
2850: If a vessel loads 400 tons of deck cargo resulting in a GM of -0.3 foot on 9000 tons displacement, what will be the angle of loll? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 7°
    b. 11°
    c. 15°
    d. 17°
2851: Kevlar sails, when not in use, may be damaged if __________.

    a. left in the sunlight
    b. stowed wet
    c. folded frequently
    d. washed with soap and water
2852: You are fighting a fire in a watertight compartment using hoses and river water. Stability may be reduced because of __________.

    a. progressive downflooding
    b. reduction of water in the storage tanks
    c. increase in free surface which reduces the metacentric height
    d. reduction of KG to the minimum allowable
2853: What can be used to measure the percentage of oxygen inside a confined space?

    a. Flame safety lamp
    b. Combustible gas indicator
    c. Oxygen indicator
    d. H2S meter
2854: The sailing drafts are: FWD 14'-08", AFT 15'-06" and the GM is 4.8 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 40° inclination.

    a. 3.3 feet
    b. 3.7 feet
    c. 4.3 feet
    d. 5.4 feet
2855: Deficient oxygen content inside a confined space can be detected with __________.

    a. litmus paper
    b. a combustible gas indicator
    c. an oxygen breathing apparatus
    d. an oxygen indicator
2856: Which vessel is NOT required to have a Pollution Placard posted on board?

    a. 215-foot naval auxiliary vessel
    b. 75-foot towing vessel
    c. 50-foot cabin cruiser used for pleasure only
    d. 150-foot unmanned tank barge
2858: A 50-foot passenger vessel not limited to daylight operation is required to be equipped with at least __________.

    a. 1 ring life buoys with a water light
    b. 2 ring life buoy with a water light
    c. 2 ring life buoys with 2 water lights
    d. 3 ring life buoys with 2 water lights
2859: For emergency communications, vessels operating on oceans, coastwise, or Great Lakes routes, on runs of more than 30 minutes shall carry in a portable watertight container at or near the operating station __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. six orange hand smoke distress signals
    b. six red hand flare distress signals
    c. one 3-cell flashlight
    d. six red hand flare distress signals and six orange hand smoke distress signals
2860: If a vessel loads 250 tons of deck cargo resulting in a GM of -0.3 foot on 8000 tons displacement, what will be the angle of loll? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 16°
    b. 13°
    c. 10°
    d. 7°
2861: What is the minimum number of portable fire extinguishers required on board a 45-foot towing vessel having a fixed fire system on board? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. 1 B-I
    b. 2 B-I
    c. 3 B-I
    d. 4 B-I
2862: A wooden small passenger vessel operating on a coastwise route in cold water shall carry sufficient inflatable buoyant apparatus for _____________ or meet alternate requirements regarding collision bulkhead standards and the provision of life floats.(small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. all persons aboard
    b. 67% of the total number of persons permitted on board.
    c. 50% of all persons aboard
    d. 30% of all persons aboard
2863: You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a dangerous cargo from your barge. You must complete topside repairs on the barge involving hot work before sailing. Which statement is TRUE?

    a. You can make repairs with permission of the facility owner since you are empty and the cargo is on the facility.
    b. The repair area must be inspected by a marine surveyor to ensure that it can be done safely.
    c. Hot work repairs at such a facility are prohibited.
    d. The Captain of the Port may give specific approval to make hot work repairs.
2864: The sailing drafts are: FWD 22'-08", AFT 23'-04" and the GM is 4.6 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 20° inclination.

    a. 2.1 feet
    b. 2.4 feet
    c. 2.8 feet
    d. 3.2 feet
2865: Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?

    a. It is added to GM at light drafts and subtracted at deep drafts.
    b. It is increased if the slack tank is not on the centerline.
    c. It is decreased if the slack tank is below the KG of the vessel.
    d. The correction decreases as the draft increases
2866: If a vessel is not equipped with an automatically-activated emergency lighting system, the vessel must be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. operated only in daylight hours
    b. provided with gasoline or kerosene lights
    c. equipped with luminous tape markings on emergency equipment
    d. equipped with individual battery-powered lights
2867: In illustration D041DG, the symbol for amidships is __________.

    a. 2
    b. 3
    c. 4
    d. 5
2868: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 14'-06", AFT 17'-00". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0085

    a. 0.52 foot
    b. 0.70 foot
    c. 0.84 foot
    d. 1.10 feet
2869: Mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or towing engine should __________.

    a. be open to view so, if a foreign object gets in the gearing, the operator can immediately stop the machinery
    b. have a guard over the gearing
    c. be painted a contrasting color from the base color in order to call attention to the gearing
    d. not be operated if there is any crew within 10 feet of the machinery
2870: If a vessel loads 250 tons of deck cargo resulting in a GM of -0.4 foot on 8000 tons displacement, what will be the angle of loll? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 12°
    b. 10°
    c. 8°
    d. 6°
2871: As shown, the symbol 3 represents __________. (D041DG )

    a. displacement
    b. amidships
    c. forward perpendicular
    d. baseline
2872: A tank barge equipped with an internal-combustion engine-driven cargo pump on the weather deck shall be provided with a minimum of one remote manual shutdown station. What is the correct location of the shutdown station?

    a. Midpoint of the vessel or 100 feet from the engine
    b. Stern of the vessel or 100 feet from the engine
    c. Midpoint of the vessel or 75 feet from the bow
    d. Bow of the vessel or 75 feet from the engine
2873: As shown, the symbol for the reference from which transverse measurements are made is __________. (D041DG )

    a. 5
    b. 4
    c. 3
    d. 1
2874: The sailing drafts are: FWD 22'-06", AFT 23'-06" and the GM is 3.3 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 22° inclination.

    a. 1.2 feet
    b. 1.8 feet
    c. 2.4 feet
    d. 3.0 feet
2875: The symbol 5 as shown represents __________. (D041DG )

    a. displacement
    b. leverage center
    c. centerline
    d. counterflood limits
2876: The minimum number of portable B-II fire extinguishers required in the machinery space of a 199 GT motor towing vessel of 8000 B.H.P. is __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. 3
    b. 6
    c. 8
    d. 9
2877: In illustration D041DG, the symbol for the vertical plane midway between the fore and aft perpendiculars is __________.

    a. 2
    b. 3
    c. 4
    d. 5
2878: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should __________.

    a. remove combustibles from direct exposure
    b. cool the bulkheads around the fire
    c. close all openings to the area
    d. shut off all electrical power
2879: While underway and towing an unmanned tank barge you are required to __________.

    a. maintain a strict watch on the barge from the towing vessel
    b. fly a red flag from the towing vessel
    c. open the tops of all empty tanks on the barge
    d. take hourly soundings of any loaded tanks on the barge
2880: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 6° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-05", AFT 16'-07". If you then load 1150 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 12.0 feet) and take on 520 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 1.8 feet
    b. 2.4 feet
    c. 2.8 feet
    d. 3.1 feet
2881: How many type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the machinery space of an uninspected towing vessel with 1,400 B.H.P.? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. 2
    b. 3
    c. 4
    d. 5
2882: Whenever an inspected vessel is dry-docked for major repairs, the person in charge of the vessel, the owner or the agent should report this to the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection
    b. National Cargo Bureau, Inc.
    c. American Boat and Yacht Council, Inc.
    d. All of the above
2883: Life jackets should be stowed in __________.

    a. survival craft
    b. messrooms
    c. readily accessible locations
    d. locked watertight containers
2884: The sailing drafts are: FWD 23'-02", AFT 24'-06" and the GM is 2.8 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available righting arm at 30° inclination.

    a. 1.3 feet
    b. 2.5 feet
    c. 3.2 feet
    d. 3.7 feet
2885: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-04", AFT 29'-10". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts.

    a. FWD 26'-04", AFT 30'-00"
    b. FWD 26'-06", AFT 29'-10"
    c. FWD 26'-08", AFT 29'-08"
    d. FWD 26'-10", AFT 29'-06"
2886: A small passenger vessel, operating only on domestic routes, which is operated in salt water for more than three months in a year must undergo a dry dock and internal structural examination at least once every __________.

    a. 2 years
    b. 3 years
    c. 4 years
    d. 5 years
2887: Seawater may be used for drinking __________.

    a. at a maximum rate of two ounces per day
    b. under no conditions
    c. after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water
    d. if gathered during or immediately after a hard rain
2889: Switchboards shall be ...... (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. Watertight.
    b. Grounded to the main engine on a wooden hulled boat.
    c. The dead-front type, totally enclosed
    d. Equipped with switch locks
2890: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed an 8° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-10", AFT 17'-02". If you then load 1050 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 12.5 feet) and 475 tons in the lower 'tween decks (VCG 24.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 2.1 feet
    b. 1.6 feet
    c. 1.4 feet
    d. 0.6 foot
2891: The maximum angle at which the intact stability curves are valid for MODU's is the angle for __________.

    a. the limit of positive stability
    b. the limit of small-angle stability
    c. maximum offset
    d. downflooding
2892: Regulations define the bulkhead deck as __________. (subdivision and stability regulations)

    a. any deck extending from stem to stern
    b. the uppermost deck to which transverse watertight bulkheads extend
    c. the lowermost deck to which transverse watertight bulkheads extend
    d. the uppermost complete deck
2893: The downflooding angle for a MODU is the maximum angle at which __________.

    a. stability is positive
    b. neutral equilibrium exists
    c. the load line is not submerged
    d. intact stability curves are valid
2894: The sailing drafts are: FWD 23'-10", AFT 25'-02" and the GM is 5.3 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 18° inclination.

    a. 0.8 feet
    b. 1.1 feet
    c. 1.5 feet
    d. 1.9 feet
2895: The downflooding angle for a MODU is the minimum angle at which __________.

    a. the load line becomes submerged
    b. a non-watertight opening is at still water level
    c. offset becomes excessive
    d. reserve buoyancy is a maximum
2896: Your vessel is certificated to carry 50 persons. You are required to have __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. 50 adult life jackets
    b. 40 adult life jackets and 10 child life jackets
    c. 50 adult life jackets and 5 child life jackets
    d. 50 adult life jackets and 2 child life jackets
2897: If the result of loading a vessel is an increase in the height of the center of gravity, there will always be an increase in the __________.

    a. metacentric height
    b. righting arm
    c. righting moment
    d. vertical moments
2898: Painters on life floats shall be not less than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. 20 feet in length
    b. 30 feet in length
    c. 70 feet in length
    d. 100 feet in length
2899: All small passenger vessels operating on lakes, bays, sounds, or river routes on runs of more than 30 minutes are required to carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. 3 red hand flare distress signals and 3 orange smoke hand distress signals
    b. 8 red hand flare distress signals and 8 orange smoke hand distress signals
    c. 6 red hand flare distress signals and 6 orange smoke hand distress signals
    d. None of the above
2900: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 7° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 17'-00", AFT 17'-04". If you then load 825 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 11 feet) and take on 500 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 0.8 foot
    b. 1.0 foot
    c. 1.7 feet
    d. 2.3 feet
2901: What is one of the FIRST actions you should take after abandoning and clearing away from a vessel?

    a. Identify the person in charge.
    b. Gather up useful floating objects.
    c. Prepare for arrival of rescue units.
    d. Arrange watches and duties.
2902: Vessels in ocean service shall carry sufficient life floats for __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. 25% of all persons on board
    b. 50% of all persons on board
    c. 75% of all persons on board
    d. 100% of all persons on board
2903: Life jackets should be marked with the __________.

    a. maximum weight allowed
    b. stowage space assigned
    c. vessel's home port
    d. vessel's name
2904: The sailing drafts are: FWD 24'-03", AFT 25'-03" and the GM is 5.5 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 30° inclination.

    a. 2.6 feet
    b. 2.9 feet
    c. 3.2 feet
    d. 3.5 feet
2905: Each emergency light must be marked with __________.

    a. the letter "E"
    b. an arrow pointing to the nearest exit
    c. a no-smoking symbol
    d. the word "DANGER"
2906: Which vessel must carry a compass on board? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. A non-self-propelled vessel
    b. A vessel operating in protected waters with a short restricted route
    c. A vessel operating on the Ohio River
    d. A vessel operating on the Gulf of Mexico
2907: The number of kips necessary to change the true mean draft of a MODU one inch is known as __________.

    a. MT1 inch
    b. MH1 inch
    c. KPI
    d. KMD
2908: How many months after its expiration date may a Coast Guard license be renewed without retaking the complete exam?

    a. 1 month
    b. 6 months
    c. 12 months
    d. 24 months
2909: Following a collision or accident, the Master of each vessel involved must render assistance to persons affected by the collision or accident __________.

    a. if he can do so without any risk to his vessel
    b. if he can do so without undue delay
    c. if he can do so without serious danger to his vessel or to individuals on board
    d. without regard to any danger to his vessel
2910: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 6° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-02", AFT 16'-06". If you then load 825 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 11.5 feet) and take on 624 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 3.0 feet
    b. 2.7 feet
    c. 2.4 feet
    d. 1.9 feet
2911: In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by __________.

    a. ventilation
    b. convection
    c. radiation
    d. conduction
2912: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0086

    a. 0.68 foot
    b. 0.85 foot
    c. 0.97 foot
    d. 1.30 feet
2913: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 21'-09.5", AFT 22'-09.5". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0087

    a. FWD 21'-06.3", AFT 22'-06.6"
    b. FWD 21'-11.3", AFT 23'-01.8"
    c. FWD 22'-06.6", AFT 21'-06.9"
    d. FWD 23'-00.2", AFT 22'-00.4"
2914: The sailing drafts are: FWD 25'-03", AFT 26'-03" and the GM is 3.5 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 25° inclination.

    a. 0.8 foot
    b. 1.4 feet
    c. 2.0 feet
    d. 2.6 feet
2915: A MODU lists and trims about the __________.

    a. center of gravity
    b. center of buoyancy
    c. center of flotation
    d. centroid of the underwater volume
2916: What is the minimum number of B-II hand portable fire extinguishers required on board a 105 GT towboat with a 7500 B.H.P. plant (including the machinery space)? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. 6
    b. 8
    c. 9
    d. 11
2917: For a jack-up, the angle of maximum stability corresponds approximately to the angle of __________.

    a. deck edge immersion
    b. the load line
    c. downflooding
    d. loll
2918: Which statement is TRUE concerning the ventilation of engine and fuel tank compartments on uninspected towing vessels using fuel with a flash point of 100°F? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. There shall be at least 3 ventilator ducts open to the atmosphere.
    b. At least one exhaust duct shall extend from the open atmosphere to the lower portion of the bilge.
    c. At least one intake duct shall extend from the open atmosphere to the lower portion of the bilge.
    d. Only vessels using fuel with a flash point above 110°F need ventilate engine and fuel compartments.
2919: All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.

    a. fuel
    b. electricity
    c. oxygen
    d. heat
2920: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed an 8° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-02", AFT 16'-06". If you then load 1200 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 12 feet) and take on 624 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 2.0 feet
    b. 2.6 feet
    c. 3.0 feet
    d. 3.4 feet
2921: A MODU is inclined at an angle of loll. In the absence of external forces, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.

    a. positive
    b. negative
    c. zero
    d. vertical
2922: Whenever practicable, the Certificate of Inspection must be posted __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. as high as feasible in the pilot house
    b. near the area where passengers embark
    c. in any location desired
    d. in a conspicuous place where it will most likely be observed by the passengers
2923: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0088

    a. Available GM 4.01 ft
    b. Available GM 4.16 ft
    c. Available GM 4.69 ft
    d. Available GM 4.81 ft
2924: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 22.4 feet and the drafts are: FWD 15'-03", AFT 15'-09".

    a. 25°
    b. 33°
    c. 48°
    d. 72°
2925: The free surface effects of a partially full liquid tank decrease with increased __________.

    a. density of the liquid
    b. placement of the tank above the keel
    c. displacement volume of the MODU
    d. size of the surface area in the tank
2926: The sailing drafts are: FWD 16'-06", AFT 17'-04" and the GM is 2.6 feet. Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 15° inclination.

    a. 0.4 foot
    b. 0.8 foot
    c. 1.2 feet
    d. 1.9 feet
2927: If the metacentric height is small, a floating MODU will __________.

    a. be tender
    b. have a quick and rapid motion
    c. be stiff
    d. yaw
2928: It is recommended that drip collectors required on all updraft carburetors be drained by __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. a device to automatically return all drip to the engine air intakes
    b. no means whatsoever
    c. a separate pipe leading to the bilges
    d. a pump leading to a point outside the hull
2930: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 5° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-10", AFT 16'-08". If you then load 1225 tons of cargo in the lower hold (VCG 12 feet) and 875 tons of cargo in the lower 'tween decks (VCG 24 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 0.0 feet
    b. 0.8 foot
    c. 1.2 feet
    d. 1.9 feet
2931: If the metacentric height is large, a floating MODU will __________.

    a. be tender
    b. have a slow and easy motion
    c. be stiff
    d. have a tendency to yaw
2932: What is FALSE concerning the use of unicellular plastic foam work vests on small passenger vessels? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. They may be substituted for up to 50% of the required life jackets.
    b. They shall be of an approved type.
    c. They shall be stowed separately from required lifesaving equipment.
    d. They may be worn by crew members when working near or over the water.
2933: Movement of liquid in a tank when a drilling barge inclines causes an increase in __________.

    a. righting arm
    b. metacentric height
    c. height of the uncorrected KG
    d. natural rolling period
2934: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 21.8 feet and the drafts are: FWD 23'-05", AFT 24'-04".

    a. 37°
    b. 31°
    c. 26°
    d. 21°
2935: Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which are severely damaged?

    a. They should be replaced.
    b. They must be tested for buoyancy before being continued in use.
    c. They can be repaired by a reliable seamstress.
    d. They can be used for children.
2936: A vessel's drafts are: FWD 16'-03", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 21.3 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 2 feet off the centerline.

    a. 12°
    b. 14°
    c. 20°
    d. 22°
2937: A tank of a MODU with a volume of 2,000 cubic feet is pressed with sea water weighing 64 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight, in kips, of the liquid?

    a. 54 kips
    b. 67 kips
    c. 78 kips
    d. 128 kips
2938: What equipment must be on a life float? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. Two paddles, a light, painter, lifeline and pendants
    b. Water-light, painter, and signal mirror
    c. Water-light and painter only
    d. Two paddles, painter, and six red flares
2939: How many distress flares and smoke signals are small passenger vessels on oceans, coastwise or Great Lakes routes required to carry?

    a. Six red hand flares and six orange smoke signals in a watertight container
    b. Two ring life buoys with attached water lights
    c. A battery operated red-flasher lantern
    d. All of the above
2940: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 5° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-05", AFT 16'-07". If you then load 1200 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 11 feet) and take on 520 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 2.5 feet
    b. 2.0 feet
    c. 1.4 feet
    d. 0.6 foot
2941: The existence of liquids in partially full tanks or compartments of a MODU causes a virtual rise in the height of the __________.

    a. metacenter
    b. center of buoyancy
    c. center of flotation
    d. center of gravity
2942: Vessels in ocean service shall carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. life floats for 50% of all persons on board
    b. buoyant apparatus for all persons on board
    c. sufficient inflatable buoyant apparatus for all persons on board
    d. life jackets for 50% of all persons on board
2943: A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU may be caused by __________.

    a. filling a partially filled tank
    b. using an on board crane to lift a freely swinging heavy object
    c. emptying a partially filled tank
    d. transferring pipe from the setback area to the pipe rack
2944: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 25.0 feet and the drafts are: FWD 15'-04", AFT 15'-08".

    a. 12°
    b. 17°
    c. 20°
    d. 23°
2945: A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU may be caused by __________.

    a. filling a partially filled tank
    b. using fuel from a pressed fuel tank
    c. emptying a partially filled tank
    d. transferring pipe from the setback area to the pipe rack
2946: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 18'-03"; and the KG is 22.4 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.5 feet off the centerline.

    a. 14°
    b. 18°
    c. 22°
    d. 26°
2947: A semisubmersible displacing 700,000 cubic feet while floating in sea water (64 pounds per cubic foot) weighs __________.

    a. 8,929 long tons
    b. 19,509 long tons
    c. 20,000 long tons
    d. 24,500 long tons
2948: Licenses are issued for __________.

    a. 3 years
    b. 5 years
    c. 1 year
    d. 2 years
2949: Which information are you required to report to the Coast Guard when an accident occurs in which loss of life results? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. Location of the occurrence
    b. Number and name of vessel
    c. Names of owners
    d. All of the above
2950: You have loaded a deck cargo, and the vessel has assumed a 7° list due to negative GM. Your salt water drafts are: FWD 16'-00", AFT 16'-02". If you then load 1050 tons of cargo in the lower holds (VCG 11.0 feet) and take on 600 tons of bunkers (VCG 2.5 feet), what is the final GM? (Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 2.8 feet
    b. 2.5 feet
    c. 1.9 feet
    d. 1.5 feet
2951: A jack-up displacing 350,000 cubic feet while floating in sea water (64 pounds per cubic foot) weighs __________.

    a. 10,000 kips
    b. 18,169 kips
    c. 21,841 kips
    d. 22,400 kips
2952: Where is the most probable location of the remote shutdown station for cargo pumps on a tank barge carrying oil?

    a. The loading dock
    b. The midpoint of the barge
    c. Within 25 feet of the pump engine
    d. Above the forward rake end
2953: When the height of the metacenter has the same value as the height of the center of gravity, the metacentric height is equal to __________.

    a. the height of the metacenter
    b. the height of the center of gravity
    c. the same as half the height of the metacenter
    d. zero
2954: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 19'-06", AFT 20'-10" and the GM is 3.3 feet. What will be the angle of list if the #2 starboard deep tank (capacity 100 tons, VCG 19.1 feet, and 24 feet off the centerline) is filled? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. Less than 1°
    b. 2°
    c. 4°
    d. 6°
2955: For a floating MODU, the center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force __________.

    a. only when there is positive stability
    b. only when there is negative stability
    c. only when there is neutral stability
    d. at all times
2956: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 21'-10.6", AFT 22'-11.6". Cargo was loaded and discharged as shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0089

    a. FWD 22'-00.1", AFT 23'-00.1"
    b. FWD 21'-11.0", AFT 23'-01.2"
    c. FWD 21'-10.0", AFT 22'-10.0"
    d. FWD 21'-08.9", AFT 22'-11.1"
2957: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-09", AFT 23'-03"; and the KG is 20.0 feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the center of gravity is shifted 1.9 feet off the centerline.

    a. 9°
    b. 12°
    c. 15°
    d. 19°
2958: The discharge side of every fire pump must be equipped with a __________.

    a. gate valve
    b. pressure gauge
    c. check valve
    d. strainer
2959: Which commodity would be regulated by subchapter D, Rules and Regulations for Tank Vessels?

    a. Asphalt
    b. Vinyl Chloride
    c. Benzene
    d. All of the above
2961: The Certificate of Inspection issued to a vessel carrying more than six passengers must be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. posted on board under glass, if practical
    b. posted on the dock where passengers are embarked
    c. retained at the owner's principal place of business
    d. kept on file by the Collector of Customs
2962: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0090

    a. FWD 17'-06", AFT 24'-03"
    b. FWD 19'-03", AFT 22'-06"
    c. FWD 17'-01", AFT 24'-08"
    d. FWD 21'-04", AFT 19'-07"
2963: Which of the following statements about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT?

    a. If no answer is received on the designated distress frequencies, repeat the distress call on any frequency available.
    b. Channel 16 (156.8) may be used for distress messages.
    c. It is advisable to follow a distress message on 2182 kHz by two dashes of 10 to 15 seconds duration.
    d. Distress messages should first be transmitted on 2182 kHz.
2964: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 22.2 feet and the drafts are: FWD 23'-06", AFT 24'-03".

    a. 26°
    b. 30°
    c. 34°
    d. 53°
2965: Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?

    a. Only a light layer of clothing may be worn underneath.
    b. They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing a life jacket.
    c. They should be tight fitting.
    d. A puncture in the suit will not appreciably reduce its value.
2966: Each vessel shall be dry-docked or hauled out at intervals not to exceed 2 years if operated in salt water for a total of more than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. 3 months in any 12 month period since it was last hauled out
    b. 6 months in the 3 year period since it was last hauled out
    c. 12 months in the 5 year period since it was last hauled out
    d. whenever ownership or management changes
2967: When a wind force causes a floating MODU to heel to a static angle, the __________.

    a. centers of buoyancy and gravity are in the same vertical line
    b. righting moment equals the wind-heeling moment
    c. downflooding point is below water
    d. deck-edge immersion occurs
2968: Air-cooled radiators for gasoline propulsion engine cooling __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. must be approved for marine use
    b. must have a double fan installation
    c. must be filled with fresh water
    d. are permitted on vessels less than 65 feet carrying not more than 12 passengers
2969: All inlet and discharge fittings below the waterline shall have __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. cast-iron shut-off valves
    b. a wooden plug with a 36 inch lanyard
    c. an efficient and accessible means of closing
    d. a blank-off flange of similar material
2969: All inlet and discharge fittings below the waterline shall have __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. cast-iron shut-off valves
    b. a wooden plug with a 36 inch lanyard
    c. an efficient and accessible means of closing
    d. a blank-off flange of similar material
2970: An immersion suit must be equipped with a/an __________.

    a. air bottle for breathing
    b. orange smoke canister
    c. whistle, light and retroreflective material
    d. sea dye marker
2972: Regulations require that approved buoyant work vests __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. may not be carried on inspected vessels
    b. may be substituted for 10% of the required life jackets
    c. shall be stowed in a place inaccessible to passengers
    d. shall be stowed separately from the required life jackets
2974: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 21.2 feet and the drafts are: FWD 27'-11", AFT 28'-07".

    a. 72°
    b. 52°
    c. 24°
    d. 19°
2975: A quick and rapid motion of a MODU in a seaway is an indication of a(n) __________.

    a. large GM
    b. high center of gravity
    c. excessive free surface
    d. small GZ
2976: Aboard small passenger vessels the number of childrens' life jackets carried must be at least what percentage of the total number of persons aboard?

    a. 4%
    b. 7.5%
    c. 10%
    d. 15%
2977: A slow and easy motion of a MODU in a seaway is an indication of a __________.

    a. small GM
    b. low center of gravity
    c. stiff vessel
    d. large GZ
2978: Which equipment is not required for a life float? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. Paddles
    b. Light
    c. Painter
    d. Compass
2979: Which vessel is required to carry a Category I, 406 MHz EPIRB installed to automatically float free and activate? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. A vessel operating exclusively on inland waters
    b. A vessel limited to 20 miles offshore, which carries a radiotelephone on board
    c. A vessel operating on the high seas or beyond 3 miles from the coastline of the Great Lakes
    d. A vessel limited to 100 miles offshore
2981: The center of gravity of a freely swinging load suspended from a pedestal crane acts as if it were located at the __________.

    a. counterweight
    b. pedestal
    c. longitudinal centerline
    d. point of suspension
2982: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0091

    a. 1.20 feet
    b. 0.92 foot
    c. 0.73 foot
    d. 0.61 foot
2983: The height of the metacenter above the keel will vary depending on the __________.

    a. draft and beam of the drilling unit
    b. displacement and deadweight of the drilling unit
    c. buoyancy and trim of the drilling unit
    d. tonnage and deadweight of the drilling unit
2984: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 24'-02", AFT 24'-10" and the GM is 4.6 feet. What will be the angle of list if #6 starboard double bottom (capacity 95 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 21 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. Less than 1°
    b. 2°
    c. 4°
    d. 7°
2985: For a MODU with list, a decrease in GMT will cause the angle of inclination to __________.

    a. stabilize at an angle of loll
    b. decrease
    c. increase
    d. remain constant
2986: What must be mounted at a small passenger vessel's operating station for use by the Master and crew?

    a. Emergency Instructions
    b. A tide table for the area
    c. Instructions on artificial respiration
    d. The location of the first aid kit
2987: For a MODU with trim, a decrease in GMT will cause the angle of inclination to __________.

    a. increase
    b. decrease
    c. remain constant
    d. stabilize at an angle of loll
2988: No person whose license has been revoked shall be issued another license except upon __________.

    a. approval of the Commandant
    b. taking a new examination
    c. approval of the Officer-in-Charge, Marine Inspection
    d. approval of an administrative law judge
2989: When would it NOT be necessary to immediately notify the U.S. Coast Guard? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. Loss of life
    b. Major damage affecting the seaworthiness of a vessel
    c. Damage amounting to $2,000
    d. Injury to a person which requires medical treatment beyond first aid
2990: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-04", AFT 30'-08". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0092

    a. FWD 29'-01", AFT 30'-01"
    b. FWD 29'-03", AFT 29'-11"
    c. FWD 29'-05", AFT 29'-09"
    d. FWD 29'-07", AFT 29'-07"
2992: A 98 GT uninspected towing vessel with a 1500 B.H.P. engine capability would be required to carry how many type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers on board? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. 2
    b. 4
    c. 6
    d. 8
2993: Convection spreads a fire by __________.

    a. the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space
    b. burning liquids flowing into another space
    c. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal
    d. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
2994: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 21'-08", AFT 22'-04" and the GM is 3.2 feet. What will be the angle of list if the #6 port deep tank (capacity 201 tons, VCG 11.4 feet, and 25.5 feet off the centerline) is filled? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 2°
    b. 4°
    c. 6°
    d. 8°
2996: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0093

    a. 286.1 ft
    b. 282.7 ft
    c. 278.6 ft
    d. 272.4 ft
2998: The minimum amount of lifesaving equipment required aboard an 85-foot uninspected towing vessel consists of __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. one approved flotation cushion for each person on board
    b. one approved life preserver for each person on board and one lifebuoy
    c. one approved inflatable vest for each person on board
    d. lifeboat capacity equal to 1 1/2 times the number of persons on board
2999: The use of portable electrical equipment in the pumproom on tank barges is prohibited unless __________.

    a. the pumproom is gas-free
    b. spaces with bulkheads common to the pumproom are either gas-free, inert, filled with water, or contain grade E liquid
    c. all other compartments in which flammable vapors and gases may exist are closed and secured
    d. All of the above
3000: A rigid lifesaving device ONLY designed for survivors to hold on to while in the water is known as a __________.

    a. liferaft
    b. life float
    c. life preserver
    d. buoyant apparatus
3001: Which statement concerning immersion suits is TRUE?

    a. Immersion suits should be worn during routine work on deck to provide maximum protection.
    b. After purchasing, the suit should be removed from its storage bag and hung on a hanger where readily accessible.
    c. Immersion suits must have a PFD light attached to the front shoulder area.
    d. Small leaks or tears may be repaired using the repair kit packed with the suit.
3002: A vessels Certificate of Inspection will show the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. crew requirements
    b. minimum fire fighting and lifesaving equipment
    c. route permitted
    d. All of the above
3003: How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated?

    a. It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is automatically tripped when the front zipper is at the top of the zipper track.
    b. It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is manually tripped.
    c. It is inflated by blowing through an inflation tube.
    d. It inflates by seawater bleeding into the inflation bladder and reacting with a chemical.
3004: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 23.7 feet and the drafts are: FWD 28'-00", AFT 28'-06".

    a. 16°
    b. 21°
    c. 41°
    d. 56°
3005: All vessels having a Certificate of Inspection and operating exclusively in salt water shall be dry-docked or hauled out __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. once in each calendar year
    b. once in each fiscal year
    c. at the time of each inspection
    d. at intervals not to exceed 2 years
3006: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0094

    a. FWD 26'-03", AFT 27'-08"
    b. FWD 26'-08", AFT 25'-07"
    c. FWD 25'-06", AFT 26'-11"
    d. FWD 26'-11", AFT 25'-06"
3007: A floating MODU with an initial negative metacentric height __________.

    a. will capsize
    b. will incline further
    c. may lie at an angle of loll
    d. may be initially level
3008: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0095

    a. 280.2 ft
    b. 284.1 ft
    c. 285.3 ft
    d. 286.2 ft
3009: Which type of ventilation is required for enclosed spaces containing gasoline, machinery, or fuel tanks? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. Natural supply and mechanical exhaust
    b. Mechanical supply and natural exhaust
    c. Mechanical supply and mechanical exhaust
    d. Natural supply and natural exhaust
3010: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0096

    a. Available GM 4.07 ft
    b. Available GM 4.60 ft
    c. Available GM 4.69 ft
    d. Available GM 4.81 ft
3011: A semisubmersible which will not remain upright and will assume a list either to port or starboard is likely to have __________.

    a. a large TCG
    b. a negative GM
    c. excessive ballast
    d. insufficient deck load
3012: You are on the cargo vessel represented in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book. Your present KG is 22.3 feet and the drafts are FWD 21'-07", AFT 22'-05". The following cargo must be loaded: (1) 1120 tons, KG 33 feet; (2) 990 tons, KG 25 feet. How many tons of deck cargo with a KG of 47 feet may be loaded if the ship is to sail with a GM of not less than 2.1 feet and not exceed the freeboard draft?

    a. 0 tons
    b. 60 tons
    c. 103 tons
    d. 149 tons
3013: Semisubmersibles A and B are identical. However, "A" is more tender than "B". This means that "A" relative to "B" has a __________.

    a. lower KG
    b. smaller GM
    c. smaller roll angle
    d. larger GZ
3014: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 21.8 feet and the drafts are: FWD 19'-05", AFT 20'-01".

    a. 52°
    b. 45°
    c. 31°
    d. 26°
3015: An inclined semisubmersible with a very short rolling period about a constant angle of list is likely to have __________.

    a. an off-center TCG
    b. an LCG greater than level vessel LCB
    c. a negative GM
    d. excessive free surfaces
3016: Hand held red flares expire 42 months from the date of manufacture. Floating orange smoke distress signals expire after how many months?

    a. 18 months
    b. 24 months
    c. 42 months
    d. 60 months
3017: A semisubmersible which flops between forward and aft trim angles is likely to have __________.

    a. an off-center TCG
    b. LCG greater than level-vessel LCB
    c. KMT greater than KML
    d. KML less than KGL
3018: Each life float on an inspected vessel shall be fitted and equipped with __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. a lifeline, a painter, and one paddle
    b. a lifeline, a painter, and a water light
    c. two paddles, a light, and a lifeline
    d. two paddles, a light, a lifeline, a painter and pendants
3019: All vessels not limited to daylight service shall be fitted with a ring life buoy __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. on the stern of the vessel
    b. with a twenty fathom line attached
    c. with no line attached
    d. with a water light to be attached during nighttime operation
3021: A semisubmersible which flops between port and starboard angles of list is likely to have __________.

    a. KMT greater than KML
    b. KMT less than KGT
    c. an off-center LCG
    d. TCG greater than level-vessel TCB
3022: Vessels operating in warm water whose routes are restricted to 20 miles from a harbor of safe refuge shall carry life floats or buoyant apparatus for not less than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. 25% of all persons on board
    b. 50% of all persons on board
    c. 75% of all persons on board
    d. 100% of all persons on board
3023: A semisubmersible which flops between forward and aft angles of trim is likely to have __________.

    a. KML less than KGL
    b. an off-center LCG
    c. LCG greater than LCB
    d. KML greater than KMT
3024: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 18'-05" and the GM is 3.4 feet. What will be the angle of list if #4 port double bottom (capacity 140 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 26 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. Less than 1°
    b. 3°
    c. 6°
    d. 9°
3025: A semisubmersible with a negative GM flops to an angle of __________.

    a. heel
    b. trim
    c. list
    d. loll
3026: Who is required to prepare and post Emergency Instructions in a conspicuous place accessible to crew and passengers? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. The builder of the vessel
    b. The owner or Master of the vessel
    c. The U.S. Coast Guard
    d. The classification society
3027: If the result of loading a MODU is an increase in the height of the center of gravity, there will always be an increase in the __________.

    a. metacentric height
    b. righting arm
    c. righting moment
    d. vertical moments
3028: While serving as Master on board your vessel, your license must be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. displayed in the company office on shore
    b. displayed in your home
    c. in your possession on board the vessel
    d. kept in the Coast Guard office where you sat for your license
3030: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0097

    a. 7.7 feet
    b. 9.1 feet
    c. 9.9 feet
    d. 10.6 feet
3031: The natural rolling period of a drilling barge increases when __________.

    a. GM increases
    b. the setback is placed in the pipe racks
    c. free surfaces are reduced
    d. ice accumulates above deck
3032: Controls for a fixed carbon dioxide system shall be mounted __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. directly outside the space protected by the system
    b. as near the gas cylinders as possible
    c. in the pilothouse
    d. on the main deck near the bow
3033: The effects of free surface on initial stability depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.

    a. volume of liquid in the tank
    b. volume of displacement of the vessel
    c. location of the tank in the vessel
    d. height of the center of gravity of the vessel
3034: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 16'-02" and the GM is 3.0 feet. What will be the angle of list if #5 port double bottom (capacity 195 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 18.5 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 4°
    b. 8°
    c. 13°
    d. 16°
3035: The external inflation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated __________.

    a. before you enter the water
    b. after you enter the water
    c. after one hour in the water
    d. after you notice that your suit is losing buoyancy
3036: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0098

    a. 262.3 ft
    b. 264.9 ft
    c. 268.1 ft
    d. 270.3 ft
3037: An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an __________.

    a. air bottle for breathing
    b. whistle and hand held flare
    c. whistle, strobe light and reflective tape
    d. whistle, hand held flare and sea dye marker
3038: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 18'-06", AFT 20'-06". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0099

    a. 1.10 feet
    b. 0.91 foot
    c. 0.72 foot
    d. 0.68 foot
3039: What is a requirement for remote manual shutdown stations for internal combustion engine driven cargo pumps on tank barges?

    a. They must be conspicuously marked.
    b. They must be located at least 10 feet from the engine.
    c. There must be at least two such shutdown devices.
    d. The valve rods shall be fitted with stuffing boxes.
3040: A vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-00", AFT 21'-10". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 4819 tons
    b. 4982 tons
    c. 5012 tons
    d. 5099 tons
3041: Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal records must be kept __________.

    a. one year
    b. two years
    c. until the end of the voyage
    d. until the next Coast Guard inspection
3042: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0100

    a. 271.2 ft
    b. 260.3 ft
    c. 251.9 ft
    d. 247.2 ft
3043: Which statement concerning immersion suits is TRUE?

    a. Immersion suits should be worn while performing routine work on deck.
    b. After purchasing, the suit should be stowed in the storage bag in which it was received.
    c. During the annual maintenance, the front zipper should be lubricated using light machine oil or mineral oil.
    d. Any tear or leak will render the suit unserviceable and it must be replaced.
3044: Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 22.4 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 19'-06", AFT 20'-00".

    a. 12°
    b. 24°
    c. 48°
    d. 52°
3045: You are testing the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit and find it has a very slow leak. Which action should be taken?

    a. Replace the suit.
    b. Replace the inflation bladder.
    c. Contact the manufacturer for repair instructions.
    d. Some leakage should be expected and a topping off tube is provided; no other action is necessary.
3046: How long is the Certificate of Inspection issued to a 50 gross ton, passenger carrying vessel which is 60 feet (18 meters) in length valid? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. One year
    b. Two years
    c. Three years
    d. Four years
3047: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of __________.

    a. remotely operated valves
    b. fusible links
    c. C02 system pressure switches
    d. heat or smoke detectors
3048: What is required for a dry exhaust pipe? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. Noncombustible hangers and supports
    b. Insulation from combustible material
    c. An automatic damper
    d. A rain spray and spray cap
3050: A vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 15'-08". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 7280 tons
    b. 7879 tons
    c. 8004 tons
    d. 8104 tons
3051: The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated __________.

    a. only after two hours in the water
    b. only after four hours in the water
    c. before entry into the water
    d. upon entry into the water
3052: Which statement is TRUE concerning work vests on a small passenger vessel?

    a. They may be worn during drills
    b. They may be substituted for up to 10% of the required life jackets on board
    c. They need not be an approved type
    d. They must be stowed separately from approved life jackets
3053: On an OSV, when may a work vest be substituted for a required life jacket?

    a. To replace a damaged life jacket
    b. For use during fire drills
    c. For use during boat drills
    d. At no time
3054: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 23'-06" and the GM is 3.2 feet. What will be the angle of list if #3 starboard double bottom (capacity 97 tons, VCG 2.5 feet and 23 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. Less than 1°
    b. 3°
    c. 7°
    d. 11°
3055: Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets?

    a. Buoyant vests may be substituted for life jackets.
    b. Life jackets are designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear of the water.
    c. Life jackets must always be worn with the same side facing outwards to float properly.
    d. Lightly stained or faded life jackets will fail in the water and should not be used.
3056: The service use of pyrotechnic distress signals measured from the date of manufacture shall be limited to a period of __________.

    a. 24 months
    b. 36 months
    c. 42 months
    d. 60 months
3057: Each buoyant work vest on an OSV must be __________.

    a. Coast Guard Approved
    b. marked with the name of the unit
    c. equipped with a waterlight
    d. All of the above
3058: Life floats and buoyant apparatus shall be marked __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. with the vessel's name in 3" letters
    b. conspicuously in 1-1/2" letters with the number of persons allowed
    c. with the vessel's name on all paddles
    d. All of the above
3059: How many ring life buoys must a small passenger vessel, of less than 65 feet in length, carry?

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
3060: A vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-00", AFT 17'-02". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 5928 tons
    b. 6016 tons
    c. 6149 tons
    d. 6242 tons
3061: When transferring survivors from a survival craft to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the craft should __________.

    a. remove their lifejackets to make it easier to climb on board the rescue vessel
    b. climb on top of the survival craft while waiting their turn to transfer to the rescue vessel
    c. remain seated inside the survival craft and make the transfer one person at a time
    d. enter the water and swim over to the rescue vessel
3062: The Master of a vessel shall make sure the EPIRB is tested __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. daily
    b. weekly
    c. every two weeks
    d. monthly
3063: The first AMVER position report must be sent within how many hours of departure?

    a. 48
    b. 36
    c. 24
    d. 12
3064: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 18'-03", AFT 19'-07" and the GM is 4.3 feet. What will be the angle of list if #2 starboard double bottom (capacity 78 tons, VCG 2.7 feet, and 24.5 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 3°
    b. 5°
    c. 7°
    d. 9°
3065: Which precaution should be taken when testing a line throwing gun?

    a. Never remove the line from the rocket.
    b. Fire it at an angle of approximately 90 degrees to the horizon.
    c. Wear asbestos gloves.
    d. All of the above
3066: Prior to getting underway for the day's operations, every small passenger vessel shall have it's steering gear tested by __________.

    a. the Mate on watch
    b. the Master
    c. a Mate or Designated Duty Engineer
    d. a licensed Engineer
3067: The canopy of your liferaft should __________.

    a. go into place as your liferaft is inflated
    b. be put up after everyone is aboard
    c. be put up only in severe weather
    d. be used as a sail if the wind is blowing
3069: Unless otherwise stated, the term "approved" applied to a vessel's equipment, means approved by the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. American Bureau of Shipping
    b. Congress of the United States
    c. Commandant of the Coast Guard
    d. Board of Fire Underwriters
3070: Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 12'-08". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 6500 tons
    b. 7001 tons
    c. 7415 tons
    d. 8699 tons
3071: The free surface effects of a partially-full tank in a floating MODU increase with the __________.

    a. surface area of the fluid in the tank
    b. displacement volume of the MODU
    c. draft of the MODU
    d. height of the tank above the keel
3072: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6450 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 274.46 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0101

    a. LCG-FP 272.6 feet
    b. LCG-FP 269.8 feet
    c. LCG-FP 266.5 feet
    d. LCG-FP 263.8 feet
3073: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 28'-04", AFT 29'-10". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0102

    a. FWD 27'-01", AFT 29'-11"
    b. FWD 27'-03", AFT 29'-09"
    c. FWD 27'-05", AFT 29'-07"
    d. FWD 27'-07", AFT 29'-05"
3074: Your sailing drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 18'-03" and the GM is 2.8 feet. What will be the angle of list if the #4 starboard double bottom (capacity 141 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 23.8 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)

    a. 6°
    b. 8°
    c. 10°
    d. 12°
3075: Although KG for a MODU in lightweight is relatively high, the vessel is stiff because __________.

    a. KM is small
    b. KM is high
    c. BL is small
    d. KB is large
3076: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 11'-01", AFT 15'-01". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction. ST-0103

    a. 0.87 foot
    b. 0.98 foot
    c. 1.14 feet
    d. 1.25 feet
3077: The purpose of the inclining experiment on a MODU is to determine the __________.

    a. lightweight and lightweight center of gravity location
    b. position of the center of buoyancy
    c. position of the metacenter
    d. maximum load line
3078: If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________.

    a. throw him/her a life buoy
    b. hail "man overboard"
    c. pass the word to the bridge
    d. All of the above
3080: When inspecting a tank barge to see that it has all the required fire extinguishers and other safety items aboard, which of the following is the best source for determining what is required?

    a. The supervisor in charge of the dock to which the barge is tied up
    b. Part 38 of the Rules and Regulations for Tank Vessels
    c. The Certificate of Inspection of the barge
    d. The local fire marshal
3081: A person who observes an individual fall overboard from an OSV should __________.

    a. immediately jump into the water to assist the individual
    b. call for help and keep the individual in sight
    c. run to the radio room to send an emergency message
    d. go to the control room for the distress flares
3082: On vessels subject to the provisions of 46 CFR Subchapter T, life jackets shall be __________.

    a. kept locked up at all times when underway
    b. stored in convenient places throughout the accommodation spaces
    c. inaccessible to passengers
    d. on the topmost deck of the vessel at all times
3083: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0104

    a. 7.7 feet
    b. 9.1 feet
    c. 9.9 feet
    d. 10.7 feet
3084: All life floats and buoyant apparatus shall be clearly and legibly marked or painted with the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. manufacturer's price, stock number, and inspection date
    b. vessel's name, tonnage, and horsepower
    c. vessel's name in 3" letters
    d. vessel's name, and number of persons allowed, all in at least 3" inch high letters and numbers
3085: The vertical distance between G and M of a MODU is used as a measure of __________.

    a. stability at all angles of inclination
    b. initial stability
    c. stability at angles less than the limit of positive stability
    d. stability at angles less than the downflooding angle
3086: Which barge in your tow would require a cargo information card to be carried in the pilothouse?

    a. A tank barge with a sign reading "No Visitors, No Smoking, No Open Lights"
    b. An open hopper barge carrying coal
    c. A gas-free chlorine barge
    d. An empty (not gas-free) barge that last carried benzene
3088: Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will __________.

    a. reduce your drift rate
    b. keep the survival craft from turning over
    c. aid in recovering the survival craft
    d. increase your visibility
3089: What is NOT a responsibility of the tankerman in charge of loading an unmanned tank barge?

    a. Enforcement of smoking restrictions
    b. Restricting vessels from coming alongside the barge
    c. Insuring that a combustible gas indicator is aboard
    d. Protecting cargo hose with chafing gear
3090: Which statement is TRUE concerning spare charges for portable fire extinguishers on unmanned tank barges?

    a. Spare charges shall be carried for at least 50 percent of each size and variety required on board.
    b. If the unit cannot be charged by the vessel's personnel, one spare unit shall be carried in lieu of spare charges.
    c. Spare charges shall be stowed in watertight containers on deck.
    d. Regulations concerning spare charges do not apply to unmanned barges.
3091: When will the float-free emergency position indicating radio beacon be activated after abandoning ship?

    a. Immediately after floating free
    b. After about one hour when the salt water activates the battery
    c. Only when keyed by the radar of another vessel
    d. Only when daylight activates the photovoltaic cell
3092: Why is it necessary to extend ventilators of gasoline powered vessels to the bilges?

    a. To keep them dry, and thus easier to clean
    b. To remove fuel vapors which are heavier than air
    c. To provide adequate air to the engines
    d. To cool the machinery areas
3093: You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 150 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents __________.

    a. are not obstructed by on-deck cargo
    b. have a fire extinguisher within the immediate area
    c. have containment capacity for at least 5 gallons
    d. are opened and the flame screen replaced
3094: A type B-III CO2 extinguisher has a rated capacity of __________.

    a. 15 lbs
    b. 25 lbs
    c. 35 lbs
    d. 45 lbs
3095: While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________.

    a. when the craft clears the water
    b. when the cable has been attached
    c. on approach to the platform
    d. at the embarkation
3096: The shut off valve at the gasoline tank which can be operated from outside the tank space __________.

    a. controls the amount of gasoline to the engine
    b. shuts off the gasoline supply at the tank
    c. is used if the gasoline tank leaks
    d. All of the above
3097: When retrieving the survival craft, the winch operator should stop the winch and check __________.

    a. that all personnel are seated in the craft
    b. that the cable has not jumped any grooves on the drum
    c. which way the wind is blowing
    d. the hydraulic fuel level before lifting
3098: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 8 & 12 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 28'-03"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN).

    a. 460 tons per hatch
    b. 520 tons per hatch
    c. 690 tons per hatch
    d. 730 tons per hatch
3099: Which type of power may a towing vessel use to drive the cargo pumps of a tank barge?

    a. Only air
    b. Only steam
    c. Air or steam only
    d. Steam, air, or electricity
3100: Portable fire extinguishers must be provided for the cargo tank area of an unmanned tank barge __________.

    a. only when fully loaded
    b. if one or more tanks are full
    c. when transferring cargo
    d. only when the barge is being towed
3101: Adding the transverse free surface correction to the uncorrected height of the center of gravity of a MODU yields __________.

    a. FSCT
    b. KG
    c. KGT
    d. GMT
3102: Which type of fixed fire-extinguishing system is approved for use on board uninspected vessels? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. Carbon dioxide
    b. Steam smothering
    c. Chemical foam
    d. All of the above
3103: Adding the longitudinal free surface correction to the uncorrected height of the center of gravity of a MODU yields __________.

    a. FSCL
    b. KG
    c. KGL
    d. GML
3104: An emergency check-off list is required on vessels carrying six or fewer passengers for hire. The list must contain information on all of the following EXCEPT __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. precautions for rough weather
    b. actions required in the event of accident
    c. procedures for man overboard emergencies
    d. emergency procedures for fire at sea
3105: Subtracting the height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects from the height of the transverse metacenter of a MODU yields __________.

    a. GM
    b. GMT
    c. KGT
    d. KMT
3106: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 5480 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 272.20 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0105

    a. LCG-FP 272.2 feet
    b. LCG-FP 268.3 feet
    c. LCG-FP 265.1 feet
    d. LCG-FP 263.4 feet
3107: Subtracting the height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects from the height of the longitudinal metacenter of a MODU yields __________.

    a. GM
    b. GML
    c. KGL
    d. KML
3108: A CO2 extinguisher which has lost 10% of its charge must be __________.

    a. used at the earliest opportunity
    b. hydro tested
    c. recharged
    d. weighed again in one month
3109: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0106

    a. 3.9 feet
    b. 4.3 feet
    c. 4.7 feet
    d. 5.1 feet
3110: When a vessel is not in compliance with its Certificate of Inspection, which certificate may be issued to allow its movement to a repair facility? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. Change of Employment
    b. Permit to Proceed
    c. Application for Inspection
    d. Temporary Certificate of Inspection
3111: For a MODU with list, an increase in GMT will cause the inclination to __________.

    a. stabilize at an angle of loll
    b. decrease
    c. increase
    d. remain constant
3112: An 85 foot uninspected towing vessel with a crew of ten (10) persons on board must carry at LEAST __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. 10 approved ring life buoys and 10 approved life preservers
    b. 10 approved work vests
    c. 10 approved life jackets and 1 approved ring life buoy
    d. 11 approved life preservers
3113: For a MODU with trim, an increase in GMT will cause the inclination to __________.

    a. stabilize at an angle of loll
    b. decrease
    c. increase
    d. remain constant
3115: For a MODU with transverse inclination, an increase in GMT causes __________.

    a. list to stabilize at an angle of loll
    b. list to decrease
    c. trim to decrease
    d. list to increase
3116: According the Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W, fire and abandon ship drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew that has not participated in drills aboard that particular vessel in the prior month exceeds __________.

    a. 5%
    b. 10%
    c. 25%
    d. 40%
3117: For a MODU with longitudinal inclination, an increase in GML causes __________.

    a. list to stabilize at an angle of loll
    b. trim to stabilize at an angle of loll
    c. trim to increase
    d. trim to decrease
3118: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 4850 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 275.72 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0107

    a. LCG-FP 268.3 feet
    b. LCG-FP 265.4 feet
    c. LCG-FP 261.2 feet
    d. LCG-FP 256.9 feet
3119: Life floats and buoyant apparatus may be stowed in tiers, one above the other, to a height of not more than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. 3 feet
    b. 4 feet
    c. 5 feet
    d. 6 feet
3120: Before issuing an initial Certificate of Inspection, the construction arrangement and equipment of a vessel must be acceptable to the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. American Bureau of Shipping Surveyor
    b. U.S. Salvage Marine Surveyor
    c. Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection
    d. U.S. Customs Collector
3121: To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should __________.

    a. cool the bulkheads around the fire
    b. remove combustibles from direct exposure
    c. close all openings to the area
    d. shut off all electric power
3122: All life jackets carried on board small passenger vessels are required to be marked __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. with the vessel's name
    b. with the vessel's official number
    c. with the maximum weight to be held by the life preserver
    d. with the maximum serviceable life of the life preserver
3123: You are monitoring VHF Channel 16 when you receive a call to your vessel, TEXAS PRIDE. What is the proper way to answer this call?

    a. "This is TEXAS PRIDE. Pick a channel."
    b. "This is TEXAS PRIDE on Channel 16. Come back."
    c. "This is TEXAS PRIDE, WSR 1234, reply Channel 10."
    d. "Please stand by. We're busy right now."
3124: On a life float or buoyant apparatus, the life line is __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. secured around the sides and ends in bights of not longer than three feet
    b. woven into a net and secured in the center of the float
    c. used for securing unconscious persons to the sides
    d. the lanyard for securing provisions
3125: The center of flotation for the COASTAL DRILLER is located at the geometric center of the __________.

    a. underwater volume
    b. above water volume
    c. amidships section
    d. waterplane area
3126: A cargo information card does NOT contain __________.

    a. instructions for the safe handling of the cargo
    b. appearance and odor characteristics of the cargo
    c. precautions to be observed in case of a spill or leak
    d. duties of the person in charge during the transfer of cargo
3127: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of a __________.

    a. fusible link
    b. remote operated valve
    c. C02 system pressure switch
    d. heat or smoke detector
3128: You are Master of a 20-ton ketch. You wish to heave-to on the starboard tack in 35 knots of wind. Which action would be appropriate?

    a. Set your storm jib aback to port and secure your rudder hard to starboard.
    b. Secure your reefed mizzen aback to starboard and your storm jib aback to port. Secure your rudder hard to port.
    c. Sheet your mizzen in flat and secure your rudder amidships.
    d. Secure your storm jib aback to starboard and sheet your reefed mizzen in flat. Secure your rudder hard to starboard.
3129: If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should first __________.

    a. abandon the survival craft
    b. check for cracks in the hull
    c. shift all personnel to the stern
    d. check the bilge drain plug
3130: What is the minimum height of rails on passenger decks of ferryboats, excursion vessels, and vessels of a similar type? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. 18 inches (.5 m) high
    b. 24 inches (.6 m) high
    c. 39-1/2 inches (1 m) high
    d. 42 inches (1.1 m) high
3131: Damage stability of a MODU is the stability __________.

    a. which exists when the wind speed is less than 50 knots
    b. before collision
    c. after flooding
    d. at survival draft
3132: If the water level is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should first __________.

    a. increase the speed of the survival craft
    b. shift all personnel to the bow
    c. shift all personnel to the stern
    d. check the bilge drain plug
3133: The stability which exists after the unintentional flooding of a compartment on a MODU is called __________.

    a. intact stability
    b. initial stability
    c. immersion stability
    d. damage stability
3134: Which is a B-II fire extinguisher? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. A 2-1/2 gallon water (stored pressure) extinguisher
    b. A 15 lb. CO2 extinguisher
    c. A 2 lb. dry chemical extinguisher
    d. A 1-1/4 gallon foam extinguisher
3135: While the DEEP DRILLER is operating loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. If the port forward inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?

    a. 1P
    b. 2P
    c. 1S
    d. 3P
3136: Where should the tops of vents from gasoline tanks terminate?

    a. In open air
    b. Inside cabins near the overhead
    c. In the machinery space near the engine air intake
    d. Underwater
3137: With damaged floating vessels, the most important consideration is the preservation of __________.

    a. bilge pumping capacity
    b. reserve buoyancy
    c. level attitude
    d. instability
3138: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 20 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 29'-06"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.)

    a. 1550 tons
    b. 2920 tons
    c. 3010 tons
    d. 3515 tons
3139: Open ullage holes in tanks which are not gas-free must be protected by __________.

    a. PV valves
    b. warning signs
    c. flame screens
    d. stop-check valves
3140: Hatches on small passenger vessels operating on exposed waters and exposed to the weather __________.

    a. must be watertight
    b. must be open at all times
    c. need not be watertight
    d. None of the above
3141: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0108

    a. Available GM 4.81 ft
    b. Available GM 4.69 ft
    c. Available GM 4.60 ft
    d. Available GM 4.28 ft
3142: In the machinery space of all uninspected motor vessels, there must be one type B-II hand portable fire extinguisher for every __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. 500 S.H.P. of the main engines or fraction thereof
    b. 1000 S.H.P. of the main engines or fraction thereof
    c. 500 B.H.P. of the main engines or fraction thereof
    d. 1000 B.H.P. of the main engines or fraction thereof
3143: The instructions for rescue boats and liferafts on an OSV must be approved by the __________.

    a. lease operator
    b. Minerals Management Service
    c. Coast Guard
    d. person-in-charge of the unit
3144: On a lifeboat equipped with Rottmer-type releasing gear, turning the releasing lever releases __________.

    a. the painter
    b. the after boat fall only if the boat is waterborne
    c. both falls at the same time only if the boat is waterborne
    d. both falls at the same time even if the boat has not reached the water
3145: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the port forward column below the waterline. You should pump from tank __________.

    a. C1P
    b. 8P
    c. 1P
    d. 2S
3146: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6048 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 270.89 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0109

    a. LCG-FP 263.4 feet
    b. LCG-FP 266.6 feet
    c. LCG-FP 267.8 feet
    d. LCG-FP 269.4 feet
3147: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers severe damage to the starboard forward column below the waterline. You should pump from tank __________.

    a. C1S
    b. 8S
    c. 2P
    d. 1S
3148: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 29'-06", AFT 29'-02". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0110

    a. FWD 29'-07", AFT 29'-08"
    b. FWD 29'-05", AFT 29'-10"
    c. FWD 29'-03", AFT 30'-00"
    d. FWD 29'-01", AFT 30'-02"
3149: To find the cause of a gasoline engine's failure to start, you should __________.

    a. break the joint in the fuel line at the engine and let the gas run in the bilges
    b. disconnect the wires at the spark plugs and make the spark jump the gap
    c. prime the engine with ether through spark plug openings
    d. ventilate the space, then check the battery, spark plugs, carburetor, and fuel line
3150: Your vessel must have a B-II fire extinguisher. Which extinguisher fulfills this requirement? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. 4 lb. carbon dioxide
    b. 4 lb. dry chemical
    c. 15 lb. carbon dioxide
    d. 12 gallon foam
3151: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers severe damage to the starboard aft column below the waterline. You should pump from tank __________.

    a. C1S
    b. 9S
    c. 2P
    d. 2S
3152: U. S. Coast Guard approved work vests may be substituted life jackets __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. aboard work vessels
    b. aboard towing vessels
    c. aboard sailing vessels
    d. under no circumstances
3153: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers severe damage to the port aft column below the waterline. You should pump from tank __________.

    a. C1S
    b. 9S
    c. 10P
    d. 2S
3154: How many escape routes must normally exist from all general areas accessible to the passengers or where the crew may be quartered or normally employed? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. Two
    b. Three
    c. Four
    d. Five
3155: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the port center column below the waterline. Among the tanks from which you should pump is tank __________.

    a. C1S
    b. 9S
    c. 9P
    d. 2S
3156: Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W require that a fire drill include __________.

    a. starting the fire pumps
    b. checking the operation of watertight doors
    c. checking arrangements for abandon ship
    d. All of the above
3157: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard center column below the waterline. Among the tanks from which you should pump is tank __________.

    a. C1S
    b. 9S
    c. 9P
    d. 2P
3158: Electric generators can be protected against overload __________.

    a. with switches
    b. with a governor on the engine
    c. with fuses or circuit breakers
    d. by using heavy wire
3159: Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by __________.

    a. a break-glass and pull-cable system
    b. electrical controls on the bridge
    c. a mechanical arm outside the vent duct
    d. the heat of a fire melting the link
3160: Fixed ballast, if used, may be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. discharged or moved at any time
    b. moved temporarily for examination or repair of the vessel, when done under the supervision of an inspector
    c. moved under the supervision of the owner, Master or shipyard
    d. moved under any condition except extreme emergency
3161: The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________.

    a. filling completely
    b. developing free surfaces
    c. developing free surface moments
    d. collapsing
3162: All life jackets and life buoys shall be marked with the vessel's name in letters at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. 1/2 inch high
    b. 1 inch high
    c. Height not specified
    d. 1-1/2 inches high
3163: A continual worsening of the list or trim of any floating MODU indicates __________.

    a. negative GM
    b. progressive flooding
    c. structural failure
    d. an immediate need to counterflood
3164: When discharging cargo from a tank barge, in which case may the cargo pass through or over the towing vessel?

    a. With permission from the person in charge of the towing vessel
    b. With permission from the person in charge of the shore facility
    c. When off-loading grade C cargo
    d. In no case
3165: The wooden plug inserted in the vent of a damaged tank of a MODU should be removed in case it is decided to __________.

    a. pump from the damaged tank
    b. fight a fire
    c. abandon the rig
    d. use the crossover system
3166: You are underway with a tow consisting of six barges containing hazardous chemicals. Which statement is FALSE concerning a cargo information card?

    a. It must be carried in the pilothouse, readily available for each chemical carried.
    b. It must be posted on the lead barge of the tow only.
    c. It must be posted on each barge on the tow.
    d. It contains information on procedure for spills or leaks.
3167: Topside icing that blocks freeing ports and scuppers __________.

    a. is usually below the center of gravity and has little effect on stability
    b. will cause water on deck to pocket and increase stability
    c. may decrease stability by increasing free surface effect due to water on deck
    d. increases the effective freeboard and increases the wind-heel affect
3168: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has on board 6080 tons of cargo with an LCG-FP of 270.71 feet. See the distribution of the cargo to be loaded. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final LCG-FP of the cargo. ST-0111

    a. LCG-FP 270.8 feet
    b. LCG-FP 269.2 feet
    c. LCG-FP 267.6 feet
    d. LCG-FP 266.7 feet
3169: Which license or document enable a person to serve as person in charge of a tank barge which is transferring cargo?

    a. Operator of Uninspected Towing Vessels
    b. Certified Tankerman
    c. Able Seaman
    d. Ordinary Seaman/Wiper
3169: Which license or document enable a person to serve as person in charge of a tank barge which is transferring cargo?

    a. Operator of Uninspected Towing Vessels
    b. Certified Tankerman
    c. Able Seaman
    d. Ordinary Seaman/Wiper
3170: What would be an example of a B-I extinguisher? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. 2.5 gallon foam
    b. 10 pound carbon dioxide
    c. 2 pound dry chemical
    d. 5 pound foam
3171: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of __________.

    a. fusible links
    b. remotely operated valves
    c. C02 system pressure switches
    d. heat or smoke detectors
3172: Your vessel has a gasoline engine and a mechanical exhaust ventilation system. BEFORE starting the engine, the exhaust blower should be run long enough to __________.

    a. warm up the exhaust blower motor
    b. provide a proper supply of fresh air for the engine(s)
    c. see the system is in good operating condition
    d. insure at least one complete change of air in the compartments concerned
3173: What is considered to be a B-II portable fire extinguisher?

    a. 2 pound dry chemical
    b. 2-1/2 gallon foam
    c. 4 pound carbon dioxide
    d. All of the above
3174: What is considered to be a B-II portable fire extinguisher?

    a. 2-1/2 gallon foam
    b. 4 pound carbon dioxide
    c. 2 pound dry chemical
    d. All of the above
3175: The jettisoning of topside weight from a MODU serves what purpose?

    a. It returns the MODU to an even keel.
    b. It reduces free surface effect.
    c. It lowers the center of gravity.
    d. It raises the center of gravity.
3176: The tops of vents from gasoline tanks should terminate __________.

    a. in open air
    b. inside cabins
    c. in machinery space
    d. underwater
3177: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0112

    a. FWD 25'-07", AFT 27'-01"
    b. FWD 25'-02", AFT 27'-06"
    c. FWD 24'-10", AFT 27'-10"
    d. FWD 24'-08", AFT 28'-00"
3178: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 23 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 28'-00"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.)

    a. 2930 tons
    b. 3110 tons
    c. 3170 tons
    d. 3240 tons
3179: What is NOT a requirement for storage batteries on tank barges?

    a. They may be located in cargo handling rooms
    b. They must be located in well ventilated spaces
    c. Each battery box must have a watertight lining
    d. They must be secured against movement
3181: Repairing damage to the hull of a MODU at or above the waterline reduces the threat of __________.

    a. free surface effects
    b. capsizing the MODU
    c. continued progressive flooding
    d. wind overturning moments
3182: What is the minimum number of portable fire extinguishers required on board a 45-foot motorboat having a fixed fire system on board? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. 1 B-I
    b. 2 B-I
    c. 3 B-I
    d. 4 B-I
3183: The order of importance in addressing damage control on a MODU is __________.

    a. control flooding, control fire, repair structural damage
    b. restore vital services, control fire, control flooding
    c. control fire, restore vital services, control flooding
    d. control fire, control flooding, repair structural damage
3184: The center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force __________.

    a. only when there is positive stability
    b. only when there is negative stability
    c. only when there is neutral stability
    d. at all times
3185: Control of flooding on a MODU should be addressed __________.

    a. first
    b. following control of fire
    c. following restoration of vital services
    d. only if a threat exists
3186: Using a sea anchor will __________.

    a. reduce the drift rate of the liferaft
    b. keep the liferaft from turning over
    c. aid in recovering the liferaft
    d. increase your visibility
3187: Repair of vital machinery and services on a MODU should be accomplished __________.

    a. after control of fire, flooding, and structural repairs
    b. immediately
    c. after control of fire, but before control of flooding
    d. after stability is restored
3188: The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft will provide protection against __________.

    a. asphyxiation from CO2
    b. loss of air in the sides of the raft
    c. rough seas
    d. cold water temperatures
3189: If a gasoline engine turns over freely but will not start, the cause is generally __________.

    a. a defective ignition system
    b. low lube oil level
    c. weak valve springs
    d. too heavy a load
3191: To assess the potential for progressive flooding aboard a damaged MODU, you must know the __________.

    a. integrity of the watertight boundaries
    b. capacity of the water sprinkler systems
    c. operation of the machinery space bilge level alarms
    d. All of the above
3192: Which statement is FALSE concerning the use of approved buoyant work vests on board uninspected towboats? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. They may be substituted for up to 50% of the required life preservers.
    b. They shall be of an approved type.
    c. They shall be stowed separately from required lifesaving equipment.
    d. They may be worn by crew members when working near or over the water.
3193: Progressive flooding on a MODU may be indicated by __________.

    a. ballast control alarms
    b. excessive draft
    c. excessive list or trim
    d. a continual worsening of list or trim
3194: Generally, what is used to inflate liferafts?

    a. non-toxic gas
    b. Oxygen
    c. Hydrogen
    d. Helium
3195: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0113

    a. FWD 18'-05", AFT 21'-05"
    b. FWD 18'-00", AFT 21'-10"
    c. FWD 18'-06", AFT 22'-01"
    d. FWD 17'-10", AFT 22'-00"
3196: What shall be conducted during a fire and boat drill?

    a. All watertight doors in the vicinity of the drill shall be operated.
    b. All lifeboat equipment shall be examined.
    c. Fire pumps shall be started and all exterior outlets opened.
    d. All of the above
3197: The best information on the nature and extent of damage on a MODU is obtained from __________.

    a. alarms and monitoring devices
    b. the toolpusher
    c. personnel at the scene of the damage
    d. person in charge of the affected spaces
3198: Starting motors, generators, and other spark producing devices should be mounted as high above the bilges as possible to __________.

    a. keep them dry when the bilges are full of water
    b. keep them cool when the vessel is underway
    c. make them more accessible for repairs
    d. prevent accidental ignition of any gasoline vapors that may have accumulated in the bilges
3199: You are towing a 1,000 GT gasoline tank barge which is not gas free. By regulation, cargo tank hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworth plates on the barge may __________.

    a. not be open without flame screens under any circumstances
    b. be open without flame screens in good weather from 16 May to 15 September
    c. be open without flame screens when the barge is empty
    d. be open without flame screens under the supervision of the senior crew member on duty
3200: Which circumstance concerning an inspected passenger vessel would require knowledge and approval of the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. The removal of a watertight bulkhead
    b. A minor overhaul of the propulsion machinery
    c. Renewal of a FCC Certificate for a radiotelephone
    d. All of the above
3201: The stamped full weight of a 100-lb. CO2 bottle is 314 lbs. What is the minimum weight of the bottle before it has to be recharged?

    a. 282 lbs.
    b. 294 lbs.
    c. 300 lbs.
    d. 304 lbs.
3202: Which of these approved lifesaving devices must a small passenger vessel carrying passengers for hire carry for each person on board? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. Buoyant cushion
    b. Life jacket
    c. Ring buoy
    d. Buoyant vest
3203: The inside light in an inflatable liferaft is turned on __________.

    a. automatically as the liferaft inflates
    b. with a switch near the boarding handle
    c. at night because the light has a photosensitive switch
    d. by screwing the bulb in after the raft inflates
3204: In accordance with SOLAS, the batteries that power interior lighting in inflatable liferafts can be made to last longer by __________.

    a. unscrewing the bulb during the daylight
    b. switching the light on only when necessary
    c. taking no action as there is no way on saving power
    d. taking no action as they shut off automatically in daylight
3205: On a sailing vessel, it is best to approach a person in the water by placing them on your __________.

    a. leeward side
    b. windward side
    c. bow
    d. transom
3206: Your tow contains a barge carrying carbon tetrachloride. What is NOT required?

    a. Cargo warning signs on barge
    b. Cargo information card on barge
    c. Cargo information card in pilothouse
    d. Certificated tankerman on towboat
3207: The lights on the outside of the canopy of an inflatable liferaft operate __________.

    a. by turning the globe clockwise
    b. by a switch at the light
    c. by a light sensor
    d. automatically when the raft is inflated
3208: Water pockets on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are for __________.

    a. catching rain water
    b. stability
    c. easy drainage
    d. maneuverability
3209: In the illustration shown, the floating sheath knife is indicated as item number __________. (D014SA )

    a. 2
    b. 8
    c. 13
    d. 16
3210: On a small passenger vessel, 58 feet in length, carrying 52 passengers the fire pump shall have a minimum pumping capacity of __________.

    a. 10 gallons per minute
    b. 25 gallons per minute
    c. 50 gallons per minute
    d. 100 gallons per minute
3211: What is placed on the underside of an inflatable liferaft to help prevent it from being skidded by the wind or overturned?

    a. Ballast bags
    b. A keel
    c. Strikes
    d. Sea anchor
3212: Before starting a gasoline engine on a motorboat, you should make sure for safety that __________.

    a. the gasoline tank is full
    b. the bilges, cabins, etc. are thoroughly ventilated
    c. you have fresh water on board
    d. Each of the above is followed
3213: A safety feature provided on all inflatable liferafts is __________.

    a. overhead safety straps
    b. built in seats
    c. internal releasing hooks
    d. water stabilizing pockets
3214: What does the "B" on a "B-II" fire extinguisher refer to? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. Size of the applicator
    b. Size of the nozzle
    c. Size of the extinguisher
    d. Class of fire that the extinguisher should be used on
3215: The jackknife stored on an inflatable liferaft will always be located __________.

    a. in one of the equipment bags
    b. in a special pocket near the forward entrance
    c. on a cord hanging from the canopy
    d. in a pocket on the first aid kit
3216: Gasoline fuel tank vents should terminate __________.

    a. in the engine compartment
    b. in the fuel tank space
    c. above or outside the hull
    d. at the most convenient location
3217: Which of the devices listed will prevent an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet deep?

    a. The hydrostatic release
    b. A shear pin
    c. A rottmer release
    d. A weak link in the painter
3218: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 3 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 27'-07"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.)

    a. 2500 tons
    b. 2550 tons
    c. 2600 tons
    d. 2650 tons
3219: The final inspection responsibility for seeing that a tank barge is provided with the required equipment and fittings in good and serviceable condition prior to loading cargo rests with the __________.

    a. terminal operator
    b. owner of the barge
    c. tankerman or person in charge of loading
    d. charterer through the Master of the towing vessel
3220: All vessels not required to have a power driven fire pump shall carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. a suitable, detachable pump usable for fire fighting purposes
    b. at least three 2-1/2 gallon fire buckets
    c. an emergency hand fire and bilge pump
    d. not less than three hand fire pumps
3221: A MODU with a displacement of 15,000 kips has a KG of 20 feet. A load of 300 kips is shifted from a VCG of 100 feet to a VCG of 10 feet. How far does the KG move?

    a. 0.2 foot downward
    b. 0.2 foot upward
    c. 1.8 feet downward
    d. 1.8 feet upward
3223: After 1 September 1992, in the North Pacific area, a documented 75-foot fishing vessel operating in cold waters 25 miles off the coast must have at least a(n) __________.

    a. buoyant cushion for each person on board
    b. inflatable liferaft with a SOLAS pack
    c. inflatable buoyant apparatus with EPIRB attached
    d. approved rescue boat
3225: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 18'-05", AFT 20'-11". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0114

    a. FWD 18'-07", AFT 20'-11"
    b. FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-09"
    c. FWD 18'-11", AFT 20'-07"
    d. FWD 19'-01", AFT 20'-05"
3226: The sign used to caution persons approaching the gangway of a tank barge during cargo transfer reads __________.

    a. "Warning, Keep Off, Stay Clear"
    b. "Danger, Do Not Board"
    c. "Warning, No Smoking, No Open Lights, No Visitors"
    d. "Dangerous Cargo Being Transferred"
3227: A semisubmersible, while floating level, displaces 18,000 long tons. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is placed in P-tanks located 80 feet to starboard of the centerline. What is the new TCG?

    a. 0.02 foot starboard of centerline
    b. 0.32 foot starboard of centerline
    c. 1.74 feet starboard of centerline
    d. 1.78 feet starboard of centerline
3228: A fuel line breaks, sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold, and catches fire. Your FIRST action should be to __________.

    a. batten down the engine room
    b. start the fire pump
    c. apply carbon dioxide to the fire
    d. shut off the fuel supply
3229: The engine head, block, and exhaust manifold shall be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. water jacketed
    b. air cooled
    c. preheated prior to starting
    d. drained weekly
3230: Which statement is TRUE concerning a power driven fire pump on board a small passenger vessel?

    a. The hand fire pump shall be located adjacent to the main engine spaces.
    b. It shall be of at least 2 gallons per minute capacity.
    c. It shall be painted red.
    d. It may also serve as a bilge pump.
3231: A lifeline must be connected to the liferaft __________.

    a. at the bow
    b. at the stern
    c. in the middle
    d. all around
3232: Which statement is TRUE concerning work vests aboard a vessel? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. They may be worn during drills.
    b. They may be substituted for up to 10% of the required lifesaving gear aboard.
    c. They need not be of an approved type.
    d. They must be stowed separately from approved life preservers.
3234: The abandon ship signal is __________.

    a. a continuous ringing of general alarm bells for at least 10 seconds
    b. a continuous ringing of the general alarm, and sounding of the ship's whistle
    c. more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast of the ship's whistle and the same signal on the general alarm bells
    d. a continuous sounding of the ship's whistle
3235: A MODU displacing 28,000 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is added at a VCG of 150 feet. The change in KG is __________.

    a. 1.09 feet
    b. 1.60 feet
    c. 1.58 feet
    d. 2.73 feet
3236: While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of two short blasts of the whistle. This signal indicates __________.

    a. "abandon ship"
    b. "commence lowering boats"
    c. "stop lowering boats"
    d. "secure from boat stations"
3237: A MODU displacing 28,000 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is discharged from a VCG 150 feet. The change in KG is __________.

    a. 1.09 feet
    b. 1.60 feet
    c. 1.64 feet
    d. 2.73 feet
3237: A MODU displacing 28,000 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is discharged from a VCG 150 feet. The change in KG is __________.

    a. 1.09 feet
    b. 1.60 feet
    c. 1.64 feet
    d. 2.73 feet
3238: During fueling, all doors, hatches, and ports __________.

    a. to windward should be opened and the ones to leeward should be closed
    b. to leeward should be opened and the ones to windward should be closed
    c. should be opened
    d. should be closed
3239: Your tow includes a loaded chlorine barge. After inspecting the tow, the mate reports that he hears a hissing sound coming from the safety valves. Where will you find information on emergency procedures concerning the uncontrolled release of cargo?

    a. Barge's Certificate of Inspection
    b. Cargo Information Card on your towboat
    c. Cargo Manifest or loading paper
    d. Dangerous Cargo Regulations
3240: When a vessel is required to have a power-driven fire pump, the pump may also be used for __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. the drinking water supply system
    b. the bilge pump
    c. engine cooling water
    d. None of the above
3241: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 45 feet and total vertical moments of 981,567 ft-long tons, floods 2068.7 long tons of sea water through the overboard discharge into tanks 3 and 8 on both sides. The VCG of the added ballast is 7.22 feet. The shift in the height of the center of gravity is __________.

    a. 0.93 foot
    b. 6.16 feet
    c. 6.95 feet
    d. 7.88 feet
3242: A vessel carrying passengers for hire shall have on board an approved life jacket __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. for every passenger on board
    b. for every person on board, plus 10% childrens' life jackets
    c. for every person on board, plus 10% additional on upper deck in box
    d. or buoyant cushion for every person on board plus 10% for children
3243: If there's a fire aboard your vessel, you should FIRST __________.

    a. notify the Coast Guard
    b. cut off air supply to the fire
    c. have passengers put on life preservers
    d. sound the alarm
3244: A person may operate an air compressor in which of the following areas on board a tank barge?

    a. Pumproom
    b. Generator room
    c. A space adjacent to a cargo tank
    d. A space two meters from a cargo valve
3245: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0115

    a. FWD 25'-02", AFT 29'-10"
    b. FWD 25'-06", AFT 29'-06"
    c. FWD 27'-10", AFT 26'-02"
    d. FWD 29'-11", AFT 25'-04"
3246: A loaded hopper barge with independent tanks has a placard, with alternating red and white quadrants, on each side and end. Which statement concerning this barge is TRUE?

    a. The cargo will spontaneously ignite if released to the atmosphere.
    b. You must operate this barge as a lead barge.
    c. The barge should be spotted as far away from the towboat as possible.
    d. The barge must be in a protected position within the tow.
3247: A semisubmersible with displacement of 19,700 long tons and KG of 50.96 feet loads 300 long tons of barite into P-tanks located 120 feet above the keel. What is the change in KG?

    a. 0.79 foot upward
    b. 1.00 foot upward
    c. 1.04 feet upward
    d. 1.83 feet upward
3249: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0116

    a. 231.0 ft
    b. 234.3 ft
    c. 244.6 ft
    d. 251.5 ft
3250: Which statement is TRUE concerning fire hose on a small passenger vessel?

    a. Fire hose shall be at least 3/4" outside diameter.
    b. One length of fire hose shall be provided for every two fire hydrants.
    c. All fittings on hoses shall be of steel or other ferrous metal.
    d. A length of hose with nozzle attached shall be attached to each fire hydrant at all times.
3251: A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft __________.

    a. must be wet before it will release
    b. should be kept in a watertight cover except in an emergency
    c. will inflate the raft in its cradle if operated manually
    d. must be submerged to a certain depth to release automatically
3252: Before any machinery is put in operation, you should __________.

    a. ventilate all compartments, see that the machinery is clean and there are no obstructions
    b. just turn the key and start up
    c. take for granted that there are no fuel leaks
    d. assume there are no volatile fumes in the engine space
3253: A semisubmersible displacing 17,600 long tons has an LCG 3.2 feet forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is loaded into P-tanks located 50.8 feet aft of amidships. What is the new LCG?

    a. 0.80 foot forward of amidships
    b. 1.20 feet forward of amidships
    c. 2.00 feet forward of amidships
    d. 4.40 feet forward of amidships
3254: All uninspected motor vessels constructed after 25 April 1940, which use fuel with a flash point of 110°F (43°C) or less, shall have at least what number of ventilator ducts for the removal of explosive or flammable gases from every engine and fuel tank compartment? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
3255: A MODU displacing 28,000 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is discharged from a VCG of 150 feet. To maintain draft, ballast is added at a VCG of 10 feet. What is the change in KG?

    a. 2.5 feet downward
    b. 2.0 feet downward
    c. 1.5 feet downward
    d. 1.0 foot downward
3256: Gasoline vapor tends to collect __________.

    a. above the floor plates of the bilges
    b. above the carburetor level
    c. at the lowest point of the bilge areas
    d. at no particular level
3257: A semisubmersible with a displacement of 20,000 tons and a KG of 60.0 feet loads 300 tons at a VCG of 120 feet. To maintain draft, ballast is discharged from a height of 20 feet. What is the change in KG?

    a. 1.5 feet upward
    b. 1.5 feet downward
    c. 0.8 foot upward
    d. 0.8 foot downward
3258: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 20 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 24'-10"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.)

    a. 1540 tons
    b. 1590 tons
    c. 1645 tons
    d. 1670 tons
3259: Why is a warning sign displayed at the gangway or access point of a barge during cargo transfer?

    a. To keep visitors away from the barge
    b. To prohibit smoking
    c. To prohibit open lights
    d. All of the above
3260: A length of fire hose shall be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. attached to each fire hydrant at all times
    b. equipped with a rotary sprinkler head
    c. marked with the lot number and wholesale price
    d. not more than 10 feet in length
3261: A semisubmersible with a displacement of 20,000 tons and a KG of 60.0 feet loads 300 tons at a VCG of 120 feet. What is the change in KG?

    a. 1.32 feet downward
    b. 1.32 feet upward
    c. 0.89 foot downward
    d. 0.89 foot upward
3263: What is the operating principal of a flash type evaporator?

    a. Sea water is heated to boiling temperature under a vacuum.
    b. Sea water is passed over heated plates in a thin film.
    c. Heated sea water is injected into a vacuum chamber.
    d. Sea water is forced through a heated eductor.
3264: If you reef a marconi mainsail, the sail area __________.

    a. stays the same
    b. moves aft
    c. becomes more
    d. becomes less
3265: A semisubmersible with a displacement of 20,000 tons and KG of 52 feet discharges 300 long tons of barite from P-tanks located 120 feet above the keel. Ballast added to maintain draft has a VCG of 20 feet. What is the change in KG?

    a. 0.49 foot increase
    b. 0.50 foot decrease
    c. 1.50 feet decrease
    d. 1.80 feet decrease
3266: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0117

    a. FWD 17'-11", AFT 22'-07"
    b. FWD 17'-09", AFT 23'-01"
    c. FWD 17'-05", AFT 23'-04"
    d. FWD 17'-02", AFT 23'-04"
3267: A MODU displacing 30,500 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is discharged from a VCG of 150 feet. What is the change in KG?

    a. 2.5 feet downward
    b. 2.0 feet downward
    c. 1.5 feet downward
    d. 1.0 foot downward
3268: Diesel engines are considered safer than gasoline engines because __________.

    a. they are more heavily built
    b. the fuel used is less volatile
    c. they can be easily reversed
    d. they operate at a lower speed
3269: What is the purpose of the liferaft's hydrostatic release?

    a. To release raft automatically as the ship sinks
    b. To inflate the raft automatically
    c. To test rafts hydrostatically
    d. None of the above
3270: Which portable fire extinguisher is required just outside the exit of the propulsion machinery space of a 75-ton passenger vessel?

    a. 2-1/2 gallon foam extinguisher
    b. 15 lb. CO2 extinguisher
    c. 2 lb. dry chemical extinguisher
    d. None of the above
3271: A MODU displacing 29,500 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is added at a VCG of 150 feet. What is the change in KG?

    a. 2.5 feet upward
    b. 2.0 feet upward
    c. 1.5 feet upward
    d. 1.0 foot upward
3272: Where should life jackets be stowed? (Small Passenger Vessel Regulations)

    a. In the forepeak
    b. In the wheelhouse
    c. Throughout the accommodation spaces
    d. In locked watertight and fireproof containers on or above the main deck
3273: A semisubmersible with a displacement of 20,000 long tons and a KG of 52 feet discharges 300 long tons of barite from P-tanks located 120 feet above the keel. What is the change in KG?

    a. 0.79 foot downward
    b. 1.00 foot downward
    c. 1.04 feet downward
    d. 1.83 feet downward
3274: Vessels required to be equipped with an approved backfire flame arrester are __________.

    a. those with diesel engines
    b. all those with gasoline engines
    c. those with large engines only
    d. None of the above
3275: Your present displacement is 15,000 short tons. The KG at this displacement is 60 feet. 100 short tons of casing are added at a VCG of 75 feet for an ocean tow. What is the new KG?

    a. 59.09 feet
    b. 60.09 feet
    c. 61.09 feet
    d. 62.09 feet
3276: While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of one short blast of the whistle. This signal indicates __________.

    a. abandon ship
    b. commence lowering boats
    c. stop lowering boats
    d. secure from boat stations
3277: When starting a long ocean tow at a displacement of 18,000 short tons and a KG of 70 feet, you dump 100 short tons of water which had a VCG of 88 feet. What is the new KG?

    a. 59.9 feet
    b. 69.9 feet
    c. 79.9 feet
    d. 89.9 feet
3278: Gasoline tanks should be filled __________.

    a. to the top to expel all vapors from the tanks
    b. to the top so the operator is certain how much fuel he has aboard
    c. with only sufficient fuel for the planned trip so excess gasoline is not carried
    d. to near the top with some space allowed for gasoline expansion
3279: You have orders to drop off a barge loaded with propylene oxide at a fleet. In doing so, you must ensure that __________.

    a. all wing voids and rakes are pumped dry before tying off the barge
    b. the barge is moored next to the bank where it will be protected from a possible collision
    c. the barge is under the care of a watchman
    d. a rake end is facing upstream to minimize the effect of current on the mooring lines
3280: Which type of fire extinguishers are permitted on inspected vessels? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. Foam
    b. Carbon dioxide
    c. Dry chemical
    d. All of the above
3281: Preparing to move on a location, you find that you must remove 450 tons of drill water, with a VCG of 8 feet, to enable you to meet the draft limitations. You started with a displacement of 17,000 tons and a KG of 69 feet. What is the KG after pumping out the drill water?

    a. 49.13 feet
    b. 59.13 feet
    c. 69.13 feet
    d. 70.66 feet
3282: What form of venting of cargo tanks is allowed for a tank barge certificated to carry grade B petroleum products?

    a. Gooseneck vents only
    b. Gooseneck vents with flame screens
    c. Individual pressure-vacuum relief valves with flame screens
    d. Straight vents with flame screens
3283: The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept open when underway?

    a. They can be kept open if the Muster List ("Station Bill") has personnel designated to close them in case of fire.
    b. They may be kept open if the ventilation or air conditioning system is shut down.
    c. They are to be kept closed at all times.
    d. They may be kept open if they can be automatically closed from the bridge.
3284: Unless the COI is endorsed for adults only, there shall be provided a number of approved life jackets suitable for children equal to at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. 20% of the passengers carried
    b. 10% of the total number of persons carried
    c. 10% of the passengers carried
    d. 20% of the total number of persons carried
3284: Unless the COI is endorsed for adults only, there shall be provided a number of approved life jackets suitable for children equal to at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. 20% of the passengers carried
    b. 10% of the total number of persons carried
    c. 10% of the passengers carried
    d. 20% of the total number of persons carried
3285: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0118

    a. 271.2 ft
    b. 288.8 ft
    c. 292.3 ft
    d. 307.2 ft
3286: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0119

    a. 270.6 ft
    b. 261.2 ft
    c. 250.5 ft
    d. 246.8 ft
3287: A vessel displacing 18,000 tons has a KG of 50 feet. A crane is used to lift cargo weighing 20 long tons from a supply vessel. When lifting, the head of the crane boom is 150 feet above the keel. What is the change in KG?

    a. 0.11 foot
    b. 0.17 foot
    c. 0.25 foot
    d. 0.32 foot
3289: A warship indicates that it wishes to communicate with a merchant ship by hoisting __________.

    a. the merchant ship's identity signal and keeping it hoisted during the entire communication
    b. the national ensign of the merchant vessel at the starboard yard
    c. the flags MV close up until acknowledged and then lowering them to the dip
    d. the code pennant, and keeping it flying during the entire communication
3290: On vessels that are required to have fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems, the controls to operate the system shall be installed in an accessible location __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. outside the space protected
    b. inside the space protected
    c. at the carbon dioxide cylinders
    d. in a padlocked waterproof metal box
3291: A semisubmersible with a displacement of 18,117.7 long tons and a KG of 52.0 feet discharges 200 long tons from a KG of 130 feet. To remain at draft, ballast is added at a height of 10 feet. What is the change in KG?

    a. 1.32 feet downward
    b. 1.32 feet upward
    c. 0.87 foot downward
    d. 0.87 foot upward
3292: Upon completion of fueling a gasoline driven vessel it is necessary to __________.

    a. keep ports, doors, windows, and hatches closed
    b. start engines immediately
    c. ventilate before starting engine
    d. None of the above
3293: Your sailing vessel is docked during a storm and is in continuous motion. If a mooring line parts due to vessel motion, it will most likely do so __________.

    a. where it is made fast on the vessel
    b. midway between the vessel and the dock
    c. at the eye
    d. at the chock
3294: What is the purpose of the liferaft hydrostatic release?

    a. To release the liferaft from the cradle automatically as the ship sinks
    b. To inflate the raft automatically
    c. To test rafts hydrostatically
    d. None of the above
3295: A semisubmersible floating in sea water displaces 20,000 long tons. She has vertical moments of 1,000,000 foot-long tons. What is the new KG if 300 long tons are added at a VCG of 50 feet?

    a. 49.2 feet
    b. 50.0 feet
    c. 50.8 feet
    d. 57.5 feet
3296: Which statement is TRUE concerning fuel vapors on a vessel?

    a. Fuel vapors gather in the lowest portions of the vessel.
    b. Fuel vapors can only be ignited by an open flame.
    c. Vent outlets should be located above the level of the carburetor air intake.
    d. None of the above
3296: Which statement is TRUE concerning fuel vapors on a vessel?

    a. Fuel vapors gather in the lowest portions of the vessel.
    b. Fuel vapors can only be ignited by an open flame.
    c. Vent outlets should be located above the level of the carburetor air intake.
    d. None of the above
3297: A floating MODU displacing 20,000 long tons with a VCG of 50 feet loads 100 long tons at 100 feet above the baseline and 200 long tons at 130 feet above the baseline. What is the new KG?

    a. 49.0 feet
    b. 50.0 feet
    c. 51.0 feet
    d. 51.8 feet
3298: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 2, 6, & 10, while using a single belt loader, to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 27'-07"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN)

    a. 510 tons per hatch
    b. 530 tons per hatch
    c. 590 tons per hatch
    d. 610 tons per hatch
3299: Which signal must you display at night on a docked tank barge to show that it is loading or discharging flammable liquid cargo?

    a. Red light
    b. Flashing amber light
    c. ICC yellow light
    d. Two orange lights
3300: How many portable fire extinguishers are required to be located inside the machinery space of a small passenger vessel?

    a. None are required
    b. One B-I, C-I
    c. One B-II, C-II
    d. One B-II
3301: A semisubmersible, while floating level, displaces 25,000 long tons. LCG is 2 feet forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 300 long tons, is placed in P-tanks located 50 feet aft of amidships. What is the new LCG?

    a. 1.43 feet forward of amidships
    b. 1.38 feet forward of amidships
    c. 0.62 foot forward of amidships
    d. 0.57 foot forward of amidships
3302: What is the minimum number of Type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers required to be aboard a 3,000 BHP, 99 GT harbor tug? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. 2
    b. 3
    c. 5
    d. 6
3303: Your fireman's outfit includes a(n) __________.

    a. chemical protection face shield
    b. approved work vest
    c. self-contained breathing apparatus
    d. marlinspike
3304: If your passenger vessel has been issued a stability letter, it must be __________.

    a. filed in the ship's office
    b. posted in a passenger area
    c. posted adjacent to the Certificate of Inspection
    d. posted in the pilothouse
3305: The height of the transverse metacenter for a MODU is 62.44 feet. The height of the center of gravity is 56.10 feet, and the transverse free surface correction is 1.21 feet. What is the value of the metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects?

    a. 5.13 feet
    b. 6.34 feet
    c. 8.76 feet
    d. 12.10 feet
3306: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts. ST-0120

    a. FWD 26'-09", AFT 28'-05"
    b. FWD 26'-05", AFT 28'-07"
    c. FWD 26'-04", AFT 28'-10"
    d. FWD 26'-00", AFT 29'-00"
3307: You are signaling by flag hoist using the International Code of Signals. You wish to send the signals CL and IW and have them read in that order. What would ensure this?

    a. Hoist CL from the starboard yard and IW from the port yard.
    b. Hoist CLIW together.
    c. Hoist CL tackline IW
    d. Any of the above will ensure the correct reading.
3308: The quickest method to stop a small diesel engine whose throttle or governor has become stuck open is to __________.

    a. drain the fuel tank
    b. turn off the ignition switch
    c. close the fuel supply valve
    d. apply the shaft brake
3309: The exhaust pipe must be gas tight throughout its entire length otherwise __________.

    a. bilge water may enter the exhaust pipe
    b. entry of air may cause vapor lock
    c. carbon monoxide may enter the interior of the vessel
    d. the joint gaskets may be blown
3310: Fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems shall be installed to protect enclosed machinery and fuel tank spaces of all vessels using gasoline or other fuel having a flash point of __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. 0°F or lower
    b. 75°F or lower
    c. 90°F or lower
    d. 110°F or lower
3311: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0121

    a. Available GM 3.51 ft
    b. Available GM 3.60 ft
    c. Available GM 3.98 ft
    d. Available GM 4.28 ft
3312: By regulation, life preservers aboard an uninspected towing vessel must be __________. (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. readily accessible
    b. securely stowed
    c. stored in sealed containers
    d. stowed with the emergency provisions
3313: If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes inoperable, it will fail to __________.

    a. set the water lights on immersion
    b. release the dye marker from the liferaft
    c. free the liferaft from the vessel
    d. break the seal on the carbon dioxide cylinder
3314: Which device is required to be installed under the carburetor of a gasoline engine? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. Box of sawdust
    b. Drip collector
    c. Vent
    d. Flame arrestor ONLY
3315: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0122

    a. 271.2 ft
    b. 291.0 ft
    c. 288.8
    d. 305.3 ft
3316: When supplemented by a comparable signal on the general alarm, what is the signal for boat stations or boat drill?

    a. More than six short blasts followed by one long blast of the whistle
    b. A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds
    c. One long blast followed by three short blasts of the whistle
    d. Three short blasts of the whistle
3317: You are in a lifeboat broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?

    a. The nature of the distress
    b. The time of day
    c. Your radio call sign
    d. Your position by latitude and longitude
3318: You discover a leak in the fuel line to the engine. You should FIRST __________.

    a. activate the CO2 system
    b. make a temporary repair with canvas or tape
    c. start the bilge pump
    d. close the fuel valve at the tank
3319: If you have a liquefied flammable gas barge in tow, which is NOT required of you with respect to the barge and its cargo?

    a. Make periodic inspections of bilges.
    b. Keep the barge under constant surveillance.
    c. Have a properly certificated tankerman or at least one licensed officer on board the towing vessel.
    d. Verify ullage readings.
3320: If your vessel is required to have a fire ax on board, where should it be located? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. In or adjacent to the primary operating station
    b. In below-decks passenger accommodations
    c. Just outside the engine room access
    d. In the galley near the stove
3321: A semisubmersible displacing 18,000 long tons has an LCG 2 feet forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is discharged from P-tanks located 50.8 feet aft of amidships. What is the new LCG?

    a. 0.8 foot forward of amidships
    b. 1.20 feet forward of amidships
    c. 3.11 feet forward of amidships
    d. 3.20 feet forward of amidships
3322: If your vessel is certificated to carry 10 persons, including both adults and children, how many life jackets are you required to carry on board? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. 11 adult
    b. 10 adult and 1 child
    c. 10 adult and 5 child
    d. 10 adult
3323: A semisubmersible, with a TCG of 0.5 foot to port, displaces 20,000 long tons. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is loaded in P-tanks located 50 feet starboard to the centerline. What is the new TCG?

    a. 0.49 foot starboard of centerline
    b. 0.51 foot starboard of centerline
    c. 0.99 foot starboard of centerline
    d. 1.49 feet starboard of centerline
3324: How should cargo tank hatches be protected when the ullage opening is open and the tank NOT gas free?

    a. With gooseneck vents
    b. With warning signs
    c. With flame screens
    d. With pressure-vacuum relief valves
3325: A semisubmersible, with a TCG of 0.5 feet to port, displaces 20,000 long tons. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is discharged from P-tanks located 50 feet starboard of the centerline. What is the new TCG?

    a. 1.03 feet starboard of centerline
    b. 0.53 foot starboard of centerline
    c. 0.53 foot port of centerline
    d. 1.53 feet port of centerline
3326: The nozzle of a gasoline hose or can should be kept __________.

    a. in contact with the fill opening to guard against static spark
    b. from making contact with the fill opening to guard against static spark
    c. in contact with the fill opening to allow proper venting
    d. None of the above
3327: A semisubmersible, while floating level, displaces 20,000 long tons. LCB is 3.0 feet forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 300 long tons, is placed in P-tanks located 40 feet aft of amidships. What is the new LCG?

    a. 3.64 feet forward of amidships
    b. 2.45 feet forward of amidships
    c. 2.36 feet forward of amidships
    d. 0.55 foot forward of amidships
3328: A barge displaying a 2' X 3' white sign with the word "WARNING" followed by "DANGEROUS CARGO" in black letters __________.

    a. would require that a cargo information card be carried in the pilothouse of the towboat
    b. may not be spotted next to the towboat while under tow
    c. may not be in the same tow as a barge carrying gasoline
    d. must be located as a lead barge in a tow
3329: A fire is discovered in the forepeak of a vessel at sea. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should __________.

    a. remain on course and hold speed
    b. remain on course but slack the speed
    c. change course and put the stern to the wind
    d. change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed
3330: A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is required to be recharged if the weight loss exceeds what percentage of the weight of the charge? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. One percent
    b. Five percent
    c. Seven percent
    d. Ten percent
3331: The stability which remains after a compartment is flooded is called __________.

    a. intact stability
    b. initial stability
    c. immersion stability
    d. damage stability
3332: When fueling has been completed __________.

    a. the fuel tank fill pipe should be left open to allow vapors to vent from the tank
    b. the engine should be started immediately to prevent vapor lock in the fuel line
    c. all hatches should be opened and all compartments should be ventilated
    d. open the fuel line and drain a small amount of gasoline into the bilge to clear the line of sediment
3333: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 18'-06", AFT 21'-10". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0123

    a. FWD 18'-06", AFT 21'-06"
    b. FWD 18'-08", AFT 21'-04"
    c. FWD 18'-10", AFT 21'-02"
    d. FWD 19'-00", AFT 21'-00"
3334: Inflatable liferafts are provided with __________.

    a. a portable radio
    b. an oil lantern
    c. canned milk
    d. a towing bridle
3335: Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________.

    a. jackknife
    b. towing connection
    c. lifeline
    d. All of the above
3336: Which statement is TRUE concerning gasoline vapors on board a vessel?

    a. They are heavier than air and will settle in the lowest part of the vessel.
    b. They are lighter than air and will settle in the highest part of the vessel.
    c. They should be vented into the engine to improve combustion.
    d. They should be vented into the wheelhouse.
3337: Aboard a MODU, multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity from the centerline results in the load's __________.

    a. LCG
    b. transverse moment
    c. righting moment
    d. inclining moment
3338: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 5 & 7 while using a single belt loader, to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 25'-02"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.)

    a. 1410 tons
    b. 1450 tons
    c. 1490 tons
    d. 1520 tons
3339: What is acceptable flame screening?

    a. A fitted single brass screen of 10 x 10 mesh
    b. A fitted stainless steel screen of 30 x 30 mesh
    c. A fitted single stainless steel screen of 15 x 15 mesh
    d. Two fitted brass screens of 10 x 15 mesh spaced 1/2 inch apart
3341: Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________.

    a. Very pistol
    b. towing connection
    c. portable radio
    d. canned milk
3342: How many type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the machinery space of an uninspected motor vessel with 1,400 BHP? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. 2
    b. 3
    c. 4
    d. 5
3343: The righting moment created by a MODU that displaces 15,000 tons with a righting arm (GZ) of 0.02 foot is __________.

    a. 3,000 foot-tons
    b. 750 foot-tons
    c. 600 foot-tons
    d. 300 foot-tons
3345: When launching an inflatable liferaft, you should make sure that the operating cord is __________.

    a. fastened to some substantial part of the vessel
    b. not fastened to anything
    c. secured to the hydrostatic release
    d. fastened to the raft container
3346: An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel. Which action occurs automatically after the painter trips the CO2 bottles to inflate the raft?

    a. The sea anchor is deployed.
    b. The floor inflates.
    c. If upside down, the raft will right itself.
    d. The painter detaches from the raft.
3347: The DEEP DRILLER is level at a draft of 60 feet in calm water. What is the value of the righting moment?

    a. 18,118 foot-tons
    b. 9,059 foot-tons
    c. 4,529 foot-tons
    d. 0 foot-tons
3348: Generally speaking, the fuel injected into a marine diesel engine combustion chamber is ignited by __________.

    a. spark plugs
    b. glow plugs
    c. heat of compression
    d. a magneto
3349: Which device is required in the fuel supply line at the engine?

    a. Flow meter
    b. Shut-off valve
    c. Pressure gauge
    d. Filter
3350: Which statement is TRUE concerning the number of portable fire extinguishers required at the operating station of a small passenger vessel? (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. None are required.
    b. One B-I extinguisher is required.
    c. One B-II extinguisher is required.
    d. Two B-I extinguishers are required.
3351: In good weather, you should deploy the sea anchor from the liferaft to __________.

    a. keep the liferaft from capsizing
    b. navigate against the current
    c. keep personnel from getting seasick
    d. stay in the general location
3352: Which personal lifesaving device(s) is(are) approved for use on a towboat 150 feet in length? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. Life preserver
    b. Buoyant vest or cushion
    c. Special purpose safety device
    d. All of the above
3353: An inflatable liferaft can be launched by __________.

    a. the float free method only
    b. kicking the hydrostatic release
    c. throwing the entire container overboard, then pulling on the operating cord to inflate the raft
    d. removing the securing straps
3354: Backfire flame arrestors are installed on __________.

    a. fuel tanks
    b. spark plugs
    c. carburetors
    d. distributors
3355: The sea painter of an inflatable liferaft should be __________.

    a. free running on deck
    b. faked out next to the case
    c. secured to a permanent object on deck via a weak link
    d. stowed near the raft
3356: The tank barge on which you are preparing to load petroleum is required to have on board one B-II fire extinguisher. What does NOT meet this requirement?

    a. 2-1/2 gallon foam
    b. 5 gallon water (stored pressure)
    c. 10 pound dry chemical
    d. 15 pound CO2
3357: What must be carried out in order to launch and inflate an inflatable liferaft?

    a. Pull on the hydrostatic release, pull on the sea painter.
    b. Push on the hydrostatic release, pull on the sea painter.
    c. Push on the hydrostatic release, push on the sea painter.
    d. Pull on the hydrostatic release, push on the sea painter.
3357: What must be carried out in order to launch and inflate an inflatable liferaft?

    a. Pull on the hydrostatic release, pull on the sea painter.
    b. Push on the hydrostatic release, pull on the sea painter.
    c. Push on the hydrostatic release, push on the sea painter.
    d. Pull on the hydrostatic release, push on the sea painter.
3358: Spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because __________.

    a. ventilation avoids CO2 buildup
    b. ventilation supplies extra oxygen for the battery
    c. ventilation avoids flammable gas accumulation
    d. less water would be used
3359: You are making tow. A loaded, open-hopper barge with independent tanks has placards, with alternating red and white quadrants, located at each side and end. You inspect the barge and find slight traces of water in the wing voids due to condensation. What should you do?

    a. Refuse to accept the barge until all wing voids are dry.
    b. Accept the barge and when weather conditions permit run with the wing voids open to ventilate the spaces.
    c. Accept the barge and periodically check the wing voids.
    d. Return the barge to the fleet and depart without the barge.
3360: The premixed foam agent in fixed and semiportable fire extinguishing systems should be replaced __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. every 12 months
    b. every 18 months
    c. every 36 months
    d. only when used
3361: The moment created by a force of 12,000 tons and a moment arm of 0.25 foot is __________.

    a. 48,000 ft-tons
    b. 6,000 ft-tons
    c. 3,000 ft-tons
    d. 0 ft-tons
3361: The moment created by a force of 12,000 tons and a moment arm of 0.25 foot is __________.

    a. 48,000 ft-tons
    b. 6,000 ft-tons
    c. 3,000 ft-tons
    d. 0 ft-tons
3363: What must be carried out in order to manually launch an inflatable liferaft not designed for float-free operation?

    a. It will be easily launched by simply breaking the weak link.
    b. Depress the hydrostatic release button.
    c. It is easily launched by cutting the container securing straps.
    d. It is only necessary to attach the weak link to the vessel.
3364: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0124

    a. 444 tons
    b. 644 tons
    c. 1044 tons
    d. 1263 tons
3365: What is the correct procedure to follow when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand from an OSV?

    a. Connect the float free link to the vessel.
    b. Pull the painter from the container and make it fast to the cleat provided.
    c. Open the canopy relief valves.
    d. Remove the raft from the container to permit complete inflation.
3366: An inflatable liferaft is floating in its container, attached to the ship by its painter, as the ship is sinking rapidly. Which action should be taken with respect to the liferaft container?

    a. Cut the painter line so that it will not pull the liferaft container down.
    b. Swim away from the container so that you will not be in danger as it goes down.
    c. Take no action as the pull on the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open the container.
    d. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump.
3367: After a liferaft is launched, the operating cord __________.

    a. serves as a sea painter
    b. detaches automatically
    c. is used to rig the boarding ladder
    d. is cut immediately as it is of no further use
3368: Your tow includes a barge carrying chlorine. Which special requirements must be observed?

    a. The wing voids shall not be opened when underway.
    b. You must post a deckhand to keep a special watch on this barge.
    c. A cargo information card for chlorine must be in the pilothouse.
    d. All of the above
3369: Several vessels are at an anchorage. You wish to communicate with the vessel bearing 046°T from you but do not know the vessels call letters. Which flag hoist should NOT be used to establish communications?

    a. CS
    b. RQ A046
    c. VF
    d. YQ3 A046
3370: The carbon dioxide cylinders of all fixed fire extinguishing systems shall be retested and remarked whenever a cylinder remains in place on a vessel for __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. 5 years from the latest test date stamped on the cylinder
    b. 7 years from the latest test date stamped on the cylinder
    c. 10 years from the latest test date stamped on the cylinder
    d. 12 years from the latest test date stamped on the cylinder
3371: The DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60.0 feet discharges 68.94 long tons of ballast. What is the new draft?

    a. 66.0 feet
    b. 60.5 feet
    c. 59.5 feet
    d. 55.0 feet
3372: Which statement is FALSE concerning precautions during small craft fueling operations?

    a. All engines, motors, fans, etc. should be shut down when fueling.
    b. All windows, doors, hatches, etc. should be closed.
    c. A fire extinguisher should be kept nearby.
    d. Fuel tanks should be topped off with no room for expansion.
3373: The DEEP DRILLER at survival draft loads 2,068.1 long tons of ballast. What is the new draft?

    a. 30.0 feet
    b. 45.0 feet
    c. 60.0 feet
    d. 75.0 feet
3374: What is NOT listed on the metallic name plate required to be attached to hand portable fire extinguishers? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. The rated capacity in gallons, quarts, or pounds
    b. The hydrostatic test date of the cylinder
    c. The name of the item
    d. An identifying mark of the actual manufacturer
3375: The DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 58.0 feet discharges 1,792.44 long tons of ballast. What is the new draft?

    a. 40 feet
    b. 45 feet
    c. 50 feet
    d. 55 feet
3376: Outlets in gasoline fuel lines are _____________,

    a. permitted for drawing fuel samples
    b. permitted for draining fuel from lines
    c. permitted for bleeding air from lines
    d. prohibited
3377: The DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 58.0 feet loads 68.94 long tons of ballast. What is the new draft?

    a. 52.0 feet
    b. 57.5 feet
    c. 58.5 feet
    d. 64.0 feet
3378: Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 1 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 29'-11"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN)

    a. 2230 tons
    b. 2270 tons
    c. 2310 tons
    d. 2350 tons
3379: Where should a tank barge's Certificate of Inspection be kept?

    a. In the owner's office
    b. In the operator's office
    c. On the barge
    d. On the towboat
3380: At each initial and subsequent inspection for certification, all carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard a vessel are __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)

    a. checked for pressure loss
    b. discharged and recharged
    c. sent ashore to an approved service facility
    d. weighed
3381: The DEEP DRILLER, at a mean draft of 60 feet, has a two-foot trim by the head and a three foot list to starboard. What is the draft at the port aft draft mark?

    a. 57.5 feet
    b. 59.5 feet
    c. 60.5 feet
    d. 62.5 feet
3382: A 6,000 BHP, 199 GT tug operating on the Great Lakes is required to carry how many B-II extinguishers? (Uninspected Vessel Regulations)

    a. 2
    b. 3
    c. 6
    d. 9
3383: The DEEP DRILLER, at a mean draft of 45 feet, has a three-foot trim by the stern and a two-foot list to port. What is the draft at the starboard forward draft mark?

    a. 42.5 feet
    b. 44.5 feet
    c. 45.5 feet
    d. 47.5 feet
3384: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 4236 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 27.2 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0125

    a. KG 26.9 feet
    b. KG 27.3 feet
    c. KG 27.8 feet
    d. KG 28.1 feet
3385: A jack-up, 180 feet in length, has the center of flotation at 110 feet aft of frame zero. The draft at the bow is 11.0 feet and the draft at the stern is 13.0 feet. What is the true mean draft?

    a. 11.78 feet
    b. 12.00 feet
    c. 12.22 feet
    d. 12.78 feet
3386: While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message PRU-DONCE over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?

    a. Advise the sender of your course, speed, position, and ETA at the distress site.
    b. Resume base course and speed because the distress is terminated.
    c. Shift your radio guard to the working frequency that will be indicated in the message.
    d. Use that frequency only for restricted working communications.
3387: A semisubmersible records the following drafts: Port Forward 64'-09"; Port Aft 68'-09"; Starboard Forward 59'-09"; Starboard Aft 63'-09". What is the mean draft?

    a. 64.25 feet
    b. 64.40 feet
    c. 64.75 feet
    d. 64.90 feet
3388: A carburetor is required to have a safety device called a(n) __________.

    a. pressure release
    b. backfire flame arrestor
    c. automatic shut off
    d. flow valve
3389: The draft of the SS AMERICAN MARINER cannot exceed 23'-06" in order to cross a bar. The present drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 24'-00". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum amount of sea water to ballast the forepeak to achieve this condition.

    a. 77 tons
    b. 96 tons
    c. 120 tons
    d. 124 tons
3390: Non-required lifesaving equipment carried as additional equipment aboard small passenger vessels __________.

    a. must be removed when carrying passengers
    b. must be approved by the Commandant
    c. may be substituted for not more than 5% of the required lifejackets
    d. may be carried regardless of approval or condition, if in excess of required lifesaving equipment
3391: A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 64'-9"; Port Aft 68'-9"; Starboard Forward 59'-9"; and Starboard Aft 63'-9". What is the true mean draft?

    a. 64.25 feet
    b. 64.45 feet
    c. 64.75 feet
    d. 64.90 feet
3392: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0126

    a. 595 tons
    b. 870 tons
    c. 1200 tons
    d. 1350 tons
3393: A semisubmersible with a TPI of 11.25 long tons per inch discharges 270 long tons from amidships. What is the new mean draft if the original drafts were: Port Forward 69.5 feet; Port Aft 68.5 feet; Starboard Forward 71.5 feet; Starboard Aft 70.5 feet?

    a. 68'-0"
    b. 69'-10"
    c. 70'-2"
    d. 72'-0"
3394: The carburetor is placed on the engine to __________.

    a. distribute the gasoline
    b. mix the fuel and air
    c. properly lubricate the engine
    d. assist in priming the cylinders
3395: A jack-up 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AFO has a draft of 8 feet at the bow and 11 feet at the stern. What is the mean draft?

    a. 8.0 feet
    b. 9.0 feet
    c. 9.5 feet
    d. 12.0 feet
3396: On a vessel making a voyage more than 48 hours long, regulations require that __________.

    a. a lifeboat drill be held within 12 hours prior to departure
    b. fire pumps be tested by starting within 12 hours prior to departure
    c. the emergency generator and lighting system be tested by starting and operating within 12 hours prior to departure
    d. the entire steering gear be tested within 12 hours prior to departure
3397: A jack-up 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AFO has a draft of 8 feet at the bow and 11 feet at the stern. What is the true mean draft (draft at the center of flotation)?

    a. 8.0 feet
    b. 9.0 feet
    c. 10.0 feet
    d. 11.0 feet
3398: Before starting any diesel or gasoline engine, which of the following must be checked?

    a. Oil level
    b. Flow of cooling water
    c. Exhaust discharge
    d. All of the above
3399: Which sizes of fire extinguishers are considered to be semi-portable? (Uninspected vessel regulations)

    a. I, II, III, IV, and V
    b. I, II, and III only
    c. II, III, and IV only
    d. III, IV, and V only
3400: How should the number "9" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

    a. NEW-MER-AL-NINER
    b. NUM-BER-NINE
    c. NO-VAY-NINER
    d. OK-TOH-NINE
3401: While in port, what signal flag would inform the vessel's crew to report on board because the vessel was about to proceed to sea?

    a. "P"
    b. "H"
    c. "U"
    d. "A"
3402: A vessel is signaling to you by flag hoist, and the answer pennant is hoisted close-up. You should __________.

    a. hoist flag "C"
    b. wait for further signals after a short delay
    c. hoist flag "R"
    d. expect no further flag hoists
3403: The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. The draft at the forward draft marks is observed to be 8.0 feet. The draft at the center of flotation is __________.

    a. 7.00 feet
    b. 8.58 feet
    c. 9.00 feet
    d. 9.42 feet
3404: Convection spreads a fire by __________.

    a. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal
    b. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
    c. burning liquids flowing into another space
    d. the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space
3405: The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. If the draft at the forward draft marks is 8.0 feet, the draft at the after draft marks is __________.

    a. 7.00 feet
    b. 9.00 feet
    c. 9.42 feet
    d. 10.13 feet
3406: After having thrown the liferaft and stowage container into the water, the liferaft is inflated by __________.

    a. pulling on the painter line
    b. forcing open the container which operates the CO2
    c. hitting the hydrostatic release
    d. using the hand pump provided
3407: The most important thing to remember when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand is to __________.

    a. open the CO2 inflation valve
    b. open the raft container
    c. ensure that the operating cord is secured to the vessel
    d. inflate the raft on the vessel, then lower it over the side
3408: As shown, number 1 operates the __________. (D011SA )

    a. McCluny hook
    b. Fleming gear
    c. releasing gear
    d. sea painter
3409: To launch a liferaft by hand, you should __________.

    a. cut the casing bands, throw the raft over the side and it will inflate by itself
    b. detach the operating cord, throw the liferaft over the side and it will then inflate
    c. cut the casing bands, throw the raft over the side and pull the operating cord
    d. throw the liferaft over the side and pull the operating cord
3410: How should the letter "I" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

    a. IN DEE GO
    b. IN DEE AH
    c. I EE
    d. I VAN HO
3411: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0127

    a. 7.9 feet
    b. 7.3 feet
    c. 6.4 feet
    d. 4.3 feet
3412: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 24'-08", AFT 25'-04". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 180 long tons are loaded in No. 23 hatch.

    a. FWD 24'-04 2/3", AFT 25'-10 3/4"
    b. FWD 24'-06 1/2", AFT 25'-08 2/3"
    c. FWD 24'-08 1/4", AFT 25'-00 2/3"
    d. FWD 24'-10 1/4", AFT 25'-00 1/4"
3413: With no environmental forces on the DEEP DRILLER, the average of the forward drafts is 59.0 feet, and the average of the aft drafts is 61.0 feet. KGL is 51.13 feet. What is the value of LCG?

    a. -0.12 foot
    b. 0.12 foot
    c. 2.11 feet
    d. 2.35 feet
3414: A rigid lifesaving device designed to support survivors in the water is a __________.

    a. rigid liferaft
    b. life float
    c. inflatable liferaft
    d. survival capsule
3415: A vessel has a strong wind on the port beam. This has the same affect on stability as __________.

    a. weight that is off-center to starboard
    b. increasing the draft
    c. reducing the freeboard
    d. increasing the trim
3416: The instructions for the launching of lifeboats and liferafts must be approved by the __________.

    a. lease operator
    b. Minerals Management Service
    c. Coast Guard
    d. person-in-charge of the unit
3417: Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable liferaft?

    a. The floor may be inflated for insulation from cold water.
    b. Crew members may jump into the raft without damaging it.
    c. The raft may be boarded before it is fully inflated.
    d. All of the above
3418: Your 600 GT vessel must carry a line-throwing appliance if it is certificated for __________.

    a. river service
    b. Great Lakes service
    c. coastwise service
    d. None of the above
3419: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 5 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 35 lbs.

    a. 785 tons each
    b. 820 tons each
    c. 880 tons each
    d. 900 tons each
3420: How should the number "1" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

    a. OO-NO
    b. OO-NAH-WUN
    c. NUM-EV-WUN
    d. NEW-MAL-WON
3421: In order to retrieve an inflatable liferaft and place it on deck, you should heave on the __________.

    a. lifelines
    b. righting strap
    c. sea anchor
    d. towing bridle
3423: What is the trim of a jack-up with forward draft of 11 feet and aft draft of 13.75 feet?

    a. 1.38 feet by the stern
    b. 1.45 feet by the stern
    c. 2.75 feet by the stern
    d. 2.90 feet by the stern
3424: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0128

    a. 1920 tons
    b. 1280 tons
    c. 895 tons
    d. 720 tons
3425: What is the trim of a jack-up with a forward draft of 12 feet and an after draft of 13 feet?

    a. 0.5 foot by the stern
    b. 1.0 foot by the stern
    c. 2.0 feet by the stern
    d. 0.5 feet by the head
3426: In illustration D011SA, number 1 operates the __________. (D011SA )

    a. releasing gear
    b. sea painter
    c. Fleming gear
    d. McCluny hook
3427: A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 64'-09"; Port Aft 68'-09"; Starboard Forward 59'-09"; and Starboard Aft 63'-09". What is the trim?

    a. 8 feet by the stern
    b. 4 feet by the stern
    c. 2 feet by the stern
    d. 4 feet by the head
3428: Which river passenger vessel must have a copy of the vessel's plans permanently displayed?

    a. A 200 GT vessel carrying more than 50 passengers
    b. A 325 GT vessel on a voyage in excess of 8 hours
    c. A 550 GT vessel with sleeping accommodations
    d. A 1100 GT vessel making daylight excursion trips only
3428: Which river passenger vessel must have a copy of the vessel's plans permanently displayed?

    a. A 200 GT vessel carrying more than 50 passengers
    b. A 325 GT vessel on a voyage in excess of 8 hours
    c. A 550 GT vessel with sleeping accommodations
    d. A 1100 GT vessel making daylight excursion trips only
3429: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 3 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 37.6 lbs.

    a. 930 tons each
    b. 955 tons each
    c. 975 tons each
    d. 990 tons each
3430: How should the letter "Q" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

    a. QWE BEC
    b. QUE BACH
    c. KEH BECK
    d. QU UE
3431: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has a KGL of 55.4 feet and an LCG of 2.37 feet. What is the trim in feet?

    a. 2.0 feet by the head
    b. 4.0 feet by the head
    c. 4.0 feet by the stern
    d. 8.0 feet by the stern
3432: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0129

    a. 6.1 feet
    b. 5.8 feet
    c. 5.4 feet
    d. 4.9 feet
3433: An inflatable liferaft should be lifted back aboard ship by using __________.

    a. the single hook at the top of the raft
    b. two line passed under the raft
    c. the towing bridle
    d. All of the above
3434: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 4260 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 25.8 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0130

    a. KG 24.6 feet
    b. KG 25.0 feet
    c. KG 25.4 feet
    d. KG 25.9 feet
3435: Small wooden hull passenger vessels, whose routes are limited to coastwise warm water routes on the high seas, must carry approved life floats or buoyant apparatus __________.

    a. for all persons on board
    b. for not less than 67% of all persons permitted on board
    c. for not less than 100% of all persons permitted on board
    d. in place of ring life buoys
3436: After launching, an inflatable raft should be kept dry inside by __________.

    a. opening the automatic drain plugs
    b. draining the water pockets
    c. using the electric bilge pump
    d. using the bailers and cellulose sponge
3437: A jack-up 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AFO has a draft of 8 feet at the bow and 11 feet at the stern. What is the trim by the stern?

    a. 2.0 feet
    b. 2.4 feet
    c. 3.0 feet
    d. 6.0 feet
3438: Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back aboard ship, you would use the __________.

    a. towing bridle
    b. main weather cover
    c. external lifelines
    d. righting strap
3439: An inflatable liferaft should be manually released from its cradle by __________.

    a. cutting the straps that enclose the container
    b. removing the rubber sealing strip from the container
    c. loosening the turnbuckle on the securing strap
    d. pushing the button on the hydrostatic release
3440: How should the number "7" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

    a. SAY-TAY-SEVEN
    b. SEE-ETA-SEVEN
    c. NUM-BER-SEVEN
    d. NEW-MER-AL-SEVEN
3441: A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 74'-09"; Port Aft 78'-09"; Starboard Forward 69'-09"; and Starboard Aft 73'-09". What is the trim?

    a. -1.0 foot
    b. -2.0 feet
    c. -4.0 feet
    d. -8.0 feet
3442: When hanging off drill pipe in emergency situations aboard a MODU, the preferred location of the drill bit is __________.

    a. on bottom with the full drill string in tension
    b. one stand (approximately 93 feet) off bottom
    c. no deeper than the shoe of the last casing set
    d. as close to the surface as possible
3443: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has a KGT of 57.11 feet and TCG of 0.5 foot to port. What is the list angle?

    a. 2° port
    b. 3° port
    c. 4° port
    d. 5° port
3444: The nautical term "lee shore" refers to the __________.

    a. shore on the lee side of the vessel
    b. shore that is in the lee
    c. western shore of the Lesser Antilles
    d. shore in a harbor of refuge
3445: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 55 feet, has a KGT of 53.05 feet and TCG of 0.5 foot to starboard. What is the list angle?

    a. 2.0°Starboard
    b. 2.9°Starboard
    c. 3.2°Starboard
    d. 3.5° starboard
3446: To release the davit cable of a davit launched liferaft, you must __________.

    a. pull the release lanyard
    b. pull the hydraulic release
    c. push the release button
    d. pull on the ratchet handle
3447: A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 64'-09"; Port Aft 68'-09"; Starboard Forward 59'-09"; and Starboard Aft 63'-09". What is the list?

    a. 10 feet to port
    b. 5 feet to port
    c. 2.5 feet to port
    d. 5 feet to starboard
3448: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3485 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 24.4 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0131

    a. KG 25.1 feet
    b. KG 25.6 feet
    c. KG 26.0 feet
    d. KG 26.5 feet
3449: How many ring life buoys should a 700 foot cargo vessel, not subject to SOLAS, navigating the Great Lakes carry?

    a. 12
    b. 14
    c. 18
    d. 24
3450: According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken at 30-month intervals?

    a. End-for-ended
    b. Renewed
    c. Inspected
    d. Weight tested
3451: As shown, number 1 operates the __________. (D011SA )

    a. Fleming gear
    b. McCluny hook
    c. sea painter
    d. releasing gear
3452: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 29'-05", AFT 30'-07". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 540 long tons are loaded in No. 18 hatch.

    a. FWD 29'-05", AFT 31'-03"
    b. FWD 29'-09", AFT 30'-11"
    c. FWD 30'-01", AFT 31'-03"
    d. FWD 30'-04", AFT 29'-06"
3453: Your rescue craft is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by __________.

    a. shifting the rudder constantly
    b. moving all personnel forward and low
    c. moving all personnel aft
    d. rigging a sea anchor
3454: A passenger vessel of 600 GT is required to have how many fire axes?

    a. 6
    b. 4
    c. 2
    d. 1
3455: A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 74'-09"; Port Aft 78'-09"; Starboard Forward 69'-09"; and Starboard Aft 73'-09". What is the list?

    a. -1.0 foot
    b. -2.5 feet
    c. -5.0 feet
    d. -10.0 feet
3456: When a sea anchor for a survival craft is properly rigged, it will __________.

    a. completely stop the survival craft from drifting
    b. help to prevent broaching
    c. prevent the survival craft from pitching
    d. prevent the survival craft from rolling
3457: Using a sea anchor will __________.

    a. reduce your drift rate
    b. keep the liferaft from turning over
    c. aid in recovering the liferaft
    d. increase your visibility
3458: When fighting a fire in a space containing an IMO class 1 hazardous cargo, the most effective fire fighting procedure is to __________.

    a. shut down the ventilation and exclude all air to smother the fire
    b. use water from fire hoses or a sprinkler system
    c. activate the fixed CO2 firefighting system
    d. use high-expansion foam
3459: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No.1 (P&S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 39.5 lbs.

    a. 155 tons each
    b. 170 tons each
    c. 190 tons each
    d. 200 tons each
3460: How should the letter "T" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

    a. TEE
    b. TA HO
    c. TANG GO
    d. TU TU
3461: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival) when an unexpected slowly increasing port list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in C1P is found. By deballasting from ballast tanks 2P and 3P, the inclination slowly decreases. The increase in the transverse free surface correction is __________.

    a. 1.25 feet
    b. 0.82 foot
    c. 0.34 foot
    d. 0.18 foot
3462: A rigid lifesaving device only designed for survivors to hold on to while in the water is known as a __________.

    a. liferaft
    b. life float
    c. life preserver
    d. buoyant apparatus
3463: Which of the following statements relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?

    a. An AMVER participant is under greater obligation to render assistance to a vessel in distress than a non-participant.
    b. An AMVER participant is not relieved of the obligation to give 24 hour advance notice to the U.S. Coast Guard before entering a U.S. port from offshore.
    c. The AMVER system does not reduce the time lost for vessels responding to calls for assistance.
    d. There is no cost to the ship or owner for messages sent within the AMVER system.
3464: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 3175 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 25.8 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0132

    a. KG 26.8 feet
    b. KG 27.3 feet
    c. KG 28.2 feet
    d. KG 28.5 feet
3465: The free surface effects of a partially full liquid tank decrease with increased __________.

    a. density of the liquid
    b. placement of the tank above the keel
    c. displacement volume of the vessel
    d. size of the surface area in the tank
3466: A sea anchor is __________.

    a. a heavy metal anchor with an extra long line used to anchor in deep water
    b. a cone shaped bag used to slow down the wind drift effect
    c. a pad eye to which the sea painter is made fast
    d. made of wood if it is of an approved type
3467: An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by using __________.

    a. a boat bucket
    b. an air tank filled with water
    c. an oar and canvas weighted down
    d. All of the above
3468: Handholds or straps on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are provided __________.

    a. to right the raft if it capsizes
    b. to carry the raft around on deck
    c. for crewmen to hang on to
    d. to hang the raft for drying
3469: The knife on an inflatable liferaft will always be located __________.

    a. in one of the equipment bags
    b. in a special pocket on the exterior of the canopy
    c. on a cord hanging from the canopy
    d. in a pocket on the first aid kit
3470: According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken with the falls no later than 5-year intervals?

    a. Proof tested
    b. End-for-ended
    c. Renewed
    d. Weight tested
3471: Every fishing vessel required to have a general alarm system must test it __________.

    a. once every day that the vessel is operated
    b. once every week that the vessel is operated
    c. prior to operation of the vessel
    d. Both B and C
3472: If you find an inflatable liferaft container with the steel bands still in place around its case, you should __________.

    a. tell the Master
    b. leave the bands in place
    c. tell the Mate
    d. remove the bands yourself
3473: In each inflatable rescue boat, what piece of equipment is provided to make quick, emergency, temporary repairs to a large hole in a raft?

    a. No equipment is provided.
    b. Glue and rubber patches
    c. Several various-sized sealing clamps
    d. Self-adhesive rubberized canvas patches
3475: What is the increase in the longitudinal free surface correction for the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet if 103.48 long-tons of ballast are transferred from a full ballast tank 1P to an empty ballast tank 10S?

    a. 0.50 foot
    b. 0.47 foot
    c. 0.27 foot
    d. 0.13 foot
3477: What is the increase in the transverse free surface correction for the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet if 103.48 long-tons of ballast are transferred from a full ballast tank 1P to an empty ballast tank 10S?

    a. 0.47 foot
    b. 0.32 foot
    c. 0.27 foot
    d. 0.13 foot
3478: Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using __________.

    a. sealing clamps
    b. repair tape
    c. a tube patch
    d. sail twine and vulcanizing kit
3478: Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using __________.

    a. sealing clamps
    b. repair tape
    c. a tube patch
    d. sail twine and vulcanizing kit
3479: A feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people stationary in rough weather is __________.

    a. lashings on the floor of the raft for the passenger's feet
    b. straps from the overhead
    c. lifelines on the inside of the raft
    d. ridges in the floor of the raft
3480: How should the number "6" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

    a. SOX-SIX
    b. NUM-BER-SIX
    c. SOK-SEE-SIX
    d. NEW-MER-AL-SIX
3481: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 Drill Water Tanks are discharged, what is the new longitudinal free surface correction?

    a. 1.63 feet
    b. 2.14 feet
    c. 2.24 feet
    d. 2.38 feet
3482: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0133

    a. 5.1 feet
    b. 4.9 feet
    c. 2.9 feet
    d. 2.5 feet
3483: The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). If the contents of #6 and #7 Drill Water Tanks are discharged, what is the new transverse free surface correction?

    a. 1.77 feet
    b. 1.67 feet
    c. 1.56 feet
    d. 1.45 feet
3484: Your 80-ton schooner is hove to on the starboard tack under storm trysail and fore-staysail in 45 knots of wind. Your heading is averaging about 000° true and the wind is from the northeast. There is a dangerous shoal bearing 270° true, range 5 miles. Which action would be appropriate?

    a. You need only stay alert for changes, as your present drift will carry you away from the danger.
    b. You should strike all sails and get underway under bare poles, making as much way as possible to the north.
    c. You should set a reefed foresail and strike the jib.
    d. You should tack or jibe to the port tack and make all possible headway to the south.
3485: In the event the motion of the DEEP DRILLER is such that critical motion limits are exceeded, you should __________.

    a. place the unit at 65 foot draft
    b. place the unit at 45 foot draft
    c. shift loads to increase KG
    d. place the unit in standby
3487: Generally, what is used to inflate liferafts?

    a. non-toxic inert gas
    b. Oxygen
    c. Hydrogen
    d. Carbon monoxide
3488: Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft?

    a. The person in charge
    b. An approved servicing facility
    c. Shipyard personnel
    d. A certificated lifeboatman
3489: If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes inoperative, it will NOT __________.

    a. set the water lights on immersion
    b. release the dye-marker from the liferaft
    c. free the liferaft from a sinking vessel
    d. break the seal on the carbon dioxide cylinder
3490: According to the SOLAS regulations, lifeboat falls must be renewed at intervals of how many years?

    a. 2.5
    b. 3
    c. 4
    d. 5
3491: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard forward column below the waterline. Pumping from tank 2S and 3S is not sufficient to prevent increasing starboard list and bow down trim. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.

    a. 2P
    b. 9P
    c. C2BP
    d. 10P
3491: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard forward column below the waterline. Pumping from tank 2S and 3S is not sufficient to prevent increasing starboard list and bow down trim. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.

    a. 2P
    b. 9P
    c. C2BP
    d. 10P
3492: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 17'-03", AFT 18'-09". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the new draft if 450 long tons are loaded in No. 16 hatch.

    a. FWD 16'-11", AFT 19'-04 2/3"
    b. FWD 17'-01", AFT 18'-11 1/4"
    c. FWD 17'-04", AFT 19'-03 3/4"
    d. FWD 17'-07", AFT 18'-11 1/4"
3493: The longitudinal distance between draft marks for the DEEP DRILLER is __________.

    a. 122'-09"
    b. 164'-00"
    c. 260'-00"
    d. 260'-05"
3494: A passenger vessel in river service which operates in fresh water at least 6 out of every 12 months since the last dry dock examination must be dry-docked at intervals not to exceed __________.

    a. 12 months
    b. 24 months
    c. 48 months
    d. 60 months
3495: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 17'-10", AFT 19'-06". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0134

    a. FWD 16'-10", AFT 21'-02"
    b. FWD 17'-00", AFT 21'-00"
    c. FWD 17'-02", AFT 20'-10"
    d. FWD 17'-04", AFT 20'-08"
3496: In general, how often are sanitary inspections of passenger and crew quarters made aboard passenger vessels in river service?

    a. Once each day
    b. Once each week
    c. Once each month
    d. Once each trip
3497: What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on an inflatable liferaft?

    a. To release the raft from the cradle automatically as the ship sinks
    b. To inflate the raft automatically
    c. To test the rafts hydrostatically
    d. None of the above
3498: Your passenger vessel is 130 feet (40 m) long and is alternatively equipped for operating in river service. The number of ring life buoys required for the vessel is __________.

    a. 2
    b. 4
    c. 6
    d. 8
3500: How should the letter "Z" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

    a. ZEE BR AH
    b. ZEE ZE
    c. ZE HE
    d. ZOO LOO
3501: The DEEP DRILLER as currently configured is limited to a maximum water depth of __________.

    a. 400 feet
    b. 600 feet
    c. 800 feet
    d. 1,000 feet
3502: How many self-contained breathing apparati are required aboard a 500 ton passenger vessel in river service with 75 passenger staterooms?

    a. 0
    b. 1
    c. 2
    d. 3
3503: The transverse distance between draft marks for the DEEP DRILLER is __________.

    a. 122'-09"
    b. 164'-00"
    c. 217'-01"
    d. 260'-05"
3504: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed. There is already 6280 tons of cargo on board with a KG of 25.5 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo after loading is completed. ST-0135

    a. KG 25.3 feet
    b. KG 25.7 feet
    c. KG 26.0 feet
    d. KG 27.1 feet
3505: The lightweight vertical moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.

    a. 680,914 ft-long tons
    b. 9,733 ft-long tons
    c. -5,937 ft-long tons
    d. -6,716 ft-long tons
3506: You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 17'-04", AFT 19'-04". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 3.0' to 4.2'. What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability Data Reference Book.)

    a. Tanks: DB3, DB4
    b. Tanks: DB6, DB3
    c. Tanks: DB2, DB6
    d. Tanks: DT7, DT8, DB3
3507: The lightweight longitudinal moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.

    a. 680,914 ft-long tons
    b. 9,733 ft-long tons
    c. -5,937 ft-long tons
    d. -6,716 ft-long tons
3508: Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.

    a. interrupting the chain reaction
    b. removing the heat
    c. removing the oxygen
    d. removing the fuel
3509: The maximum draft of the SS AMERICAN MARINER cannot exceed 30'-01" in order to cross a bar. The present drafts are: FWD 29'-04", AFT 30'-06". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum amount of sea water to ballast the forepeak to achieve this condition.

    a. 97 tons
    b. 100 tons
    c. 103 tons
    d. 106 tons
3510: When required, the steering gear, whistle, and the means of communication between the pilothouse and the engine room on a passenger vessel shall be tested by an officer of the vessel within a period of not more than how many hours prior to departure?

    a. 4
    b. 8
    c. 12
    d. 24
3511: The lightweight transverse moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.

    a. 680,914 ft-long tons
    b. 9,733 ft-long tons
    c. -5,937 ft-long tons
    d. 000 ft-long tons
3512: You have sent a visual signal to an aircraft. The aircraft then flies over your position on a straight course and level altitude. What should you do?

    a. Repeat your signal.
    b. Send any more signals necessary.
    c. Change course to follow the airplane.
    d. Prepare for a helicopter pickup.
3513: The lightweight transverse free surface moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.

    a. 680,914 ft-long tons
    b. 000 ft-long tons
    c. -5,937 ft-long tons
    d. -6,716 ft-long tons
3514: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0136

    a. 2.8 feet
    b. 4.6 feet
    c. 6.8 feet
    d. 7.1 feet
3515: The lightweight longitudinal free surface moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.

    a. 680,914 ft-long tons
    b. 000 ft-long tons
    c. -5,937 ft-long tons
    d. -6,716 ft-long tons
3516: Drinking salt water will __________.

    a. will protect against heat cramps
    b. dehydrate you
    c. be safe if mixed with fresh water
    d. prevent seasickness
3517: What is the lightweight of the DEEP DRILLER?

    a. 680,914 long tons
    b. 9,733 long tons
    c. 5,937 long tons
    d. 6,716 long tons
3518: The groups "AA" and "AB" are used in conjunction with what other group in signaling by flashing light?

    a. WA
    b. RQ
    c. CS
    d. RPT
3519: A message by flashing light consists of the call, the identity, the ending, and the __________.

    a. reply
    b. text
    c. time
    d. answer
3520: How should the number "5" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

    a. FIVE-ER
    b. NEW-MARL-FIVE
    c. NUM-ERL-FIVE
    d. PAN-TAH-FIVE
3521: Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the derrick, traveling block in the lowest position, anchors, mooring chain, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and __________.

    a. normal food supplies for 79 persons
    b. eight anchor buoys
    c. lower-hull fuel
    d. loading hoses
3522: You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 21'-04", AFT 23'-04". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 4.8' to 5.8'. What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability Data Reference Book.)

    a. Tanks: DB2, DB6
    b. Tanks: DB6, DT7
    c. Tanks: DB4, DB7
    d. Tanks: DB2, DB5
3523: Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the loading hoses, traveling block in the lowest position, anchors, mooring chain, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and __________.

    a. derrick
    b. lower hull fuel
    c. eight anchor buoys
    d. normal food supplies for 79 persons
3524: Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a tankship must be stowed in a(n) __________.

    a. locked cabinet in the machinery space
    b. unlocked cabinet in the machinery space
    c. separate and accessible location
    d. location near a fire hydrant
3524: Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a tankship must be stowed in a(n) __________.

    a. locked cabinet in the machinery space
    b. unlocked cabinet in the machinery space
    c. separate and accessible location
    d. location near a fire hydrant
3525: Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the loading hoses, derrick, traveling block in the lowest position, mooring chain, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and __________.

    a. normal food supplies for 79 persons
    b. eight anchor buoys
    c. anchors
    d. lower hull fuel
3526: A message by flashing light consists of the call, the text, the ending, and the __________.

    a. identity
    b. time of origin
    c. reply
    d. procedure code
3527: Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the loading hoses, derrick, traveling block in the lowest position, anchors, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and __________.

    a. normal food supplies for 79 persons
    b. mooring chain
    c. lower hull fuel
    d. eight anchor buoys
3528: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0137

    a. 271.2 ft
    b. 288.8 ft
    c. 294.4 ft
    d. 305.3 ft
3529: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-11.5", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0138

    a. 2.15 feet
    b. 2.05 feet
    c. 1.95 feet
    d. 1.75 feet
3531: The draft of the DEEP DRILLER in the lightweight condition is __________.

    a. 16.19 feet
    b. 17.71 feet
    c. 17.96 feet
    d. 18.35 feet
3532: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 19'-08", AFT 20'-04". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 840 long tons are loaded in No. 1 hatch.

    a. FWD 18'-08", AFT 21'-06"
    b. FWD 18'-09", AFT 21'-07"
    c. FWD 18'-11", AFT 21'-09"
    d. FWD 22'-00", AFT 19'-02"
3533: If the maximum amount of weight is stored in the pipe racks of the DEEP DRILLER, what is the weight per square foot?

    a. 250.0 pounds per square foot
    b. 312.5 pounds per square foot
    c. 350.0 pounds per square foot
    d. 400.0 pounds per square foot
3534: When a passenger vessel's plans must be permanently exhibited, they are NOT required to show information on the __________.

    a. fire detection system
    b. portable fire extinguishers
    c. lifeboats, liferafts, and life preservers
    d. ventilation systems
3535: The marine riser on the DEEP DRILLER should be disconnected if it appears the ball joint angle will exceed 10° or the mooring line tensions will exceed __________.

    a. 348 kips
    b. 500 kips
    c. 522 kips
    d. 600 kips
3536: There are two disadvantages to CO2 as a firefighting agent. One of these is the limited quantity available, and the other is __________.

    a. the lack of cooling effect on heated materials
    b. that it cannot be used in a dead ship situation with no electrical power to the CO2 pump
    c. that it breaks down under extreme heat to form poisonous gases
    d. there is no effect on a class A fire even in an enclosed space
3537: The marine riser on the DEEP DRILLER should be disconnected if it appears the mooring line tensions will exceed 522 kips or the ball joint angle will exceed __________.

    a. 4°
    b. 5°
    c. 7°
    d. 10°
3538: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 22'-03", AFT 24'-00". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 100.7 tons of seawater.

    a. FWD 23'-00.3", AFT 23'-05.0"
    b. FWD 23'-01.0", AFT 23'-05.7"
    c. FWD 22'-11.3", AFT 23'-04.0"
    d. FWD 22'-10.3", AFT 23'-06.0"
3539: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 5 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 33 lbs.

    a. 1010 tons each
    b. 1025 tons each
    c. 1050 tons each
    d. 1070 tons each
3540: How should the letter "R" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

    a. ROW ME OH
    b. AR AH
    c. ROA MA O
    d. AR EE
3541: The DEEP DRILLER as currently configured is limited to a maximum drilling depth of __________.

    a. 18,400 feet
    b. 20,600 feet
    c. 22,800 feet
    d. 25,000 feet
3542: An aircraft has indicated that he wants you to change course and follow him. You cannot comply because of an emergency on board. Which signal should you make?

    a. Fire a red flare at night or a red smoke signal by day
    b. Send the Morse signal "N" by flashing light
    c. Make a round turn (360°) and resume course
    d. Make an "S" turn (hard right then hard left) and resume course
3543: The DEEP DRILLER's lightweight is the condition prior to loading __________.

    a. deck load
    b. deck load and lower-hull liquids
    c. deck load, lower-hull liquids, and external loads
    d. deck load, lower-hull liquids, external loads, and deploying anchors
3544: A message by flashing light consists of the call, the identity, the text, and the __________.

    a. destination
    b. answer
    c. time
    d. ending
3545: Until a change to lightweight has been approved, the weights and center of gravity locations for the changes to lightweight shown in the permanent record for the Deep Driller are treated as __________.

    a. variable load
    b. fixed load
    c. basic load
    d. gross tonnage
3546: According to the regulations for passenger vessels, a "motor vessel" is one which is propelled by machinery other than steam and is more than __________.

    a. 16 ft. in length
    b. 34 ft. in length
    c. 45 ft. in length
    d. 65 ft. in length
3547: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the available GM. ST-0139

    a. Available GM 3.5 ft
    b. Available GM 3.9 ft
    c. Available GM 4.3 ft
    d. Available GM 4.8 ft
3548: You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 26'-06", AFT 28'-02". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 2.7' to 2.9'. What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability Data Reference Book.)

    a. Tanks: DB1
    b. Tanks: DB1, DT1
    c. Tanks: DB2
    d. Tanks: DB1, DT1, DT6
3549: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD 18'-10", AFT 18'-06". Cargo was loaded and discharged as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final drafts. ST-0140

    a. FWD 18'-00", AFT 19'-06"
    b. FWD 18'-02", AFT 19'-04"
    c. FWD 18'-04", AFT 19'-02"
    d. FWD 18'-06", AFT 19'-00"
3551: Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?

    a. Carbon monoxide
    b. Carbon dioxide
    c. Hydrogen sulfide
    d. Nitric oxide
3552: You are communicating by radiotelephone using the International Code of Signals. What is the correct method of sending the group 1.3?

    a. "Wun point tree"
    b. "Unaone point tercetree"
    c. "Unaone decimal terrathree"
    d. "One decimal three"
3553: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). What is the margin on the maximum allowable KG while drilling?

    a. 4.58 feet
    b. 5.24 feet
    c. 6.27 feet
    d. 6.94 feet
3554: You are underway in mid-ocean, when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is 20 miles away. What action should you take?

    a. Immediately acknowledge receipt of the distress message.
    b. Defer acknowledgment for a short interval so that a coast station may acknowledge receipt.
    c. Do not acknowledge receipt until other ships nearer to the distress have acknowledged.
    d. Do not acknowledge because you are too far away to take action.
3555: What are the maximum vertical moments, including free surface moments, permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at survival draft if the winds are greater than 70 knots?

    a. 912,120 foot-tons
    b. 942,120 foot-tons
    c. 996,522 foot-tons
    d. 998,927 foot-tons
3556: The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall include __________.

    a. compass
    b. one 50 meter line
    c. one can opener
    d. All of the above
3557: What are the maximum vertical moments, including free surface moments, permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at survival draft if the winds are less than 70 knots?

    a. 912,120 foot-tons
    b. 933,124 foot-tons
    c. 996,529 foot-tons
    d. 998,929 foot-tons
3558: Limit switches are located on the survival craft winch systems for OSVs to __________.

    a. stop the winch just before the survival craft reaches final stowage position
    b. limit the amount of cable on the drum
    c. limit the ascent rate
    d. stop the winch in case the craft's weight exceeds the load lift limit
3558: Limit switches are located on the survival craft winch systems for OSVs to __________.

    a. stop the winch just before the survival craft reaches final stowage position
    b. limit the amount of cable on the drum
    c. limit the ascent rate
    d. stop the winch in case the craft's weight exceeds the load lift limit
3559: The rescue boat on an OSV is not required to carry a __________.

    a. fishing kit
    b. searchlight
    c. sea anchor
    d. radar reflector
3560: How should the number "4" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

    a. QUAD-ROS-FOOR
    b. NUM-ERL-FOUR
    c. NUMB-ER-FOWER
    d. KAR-TAY-FOWER
3561: The DEEP DRILLER is operating with KGL at the maximum allowable value (70 knots) at a 60 feet draft. What is the value of GML?

    a. 0.05 foot
    b. 1.02 feet
    c. 1.06 feet
    d. 2.63 feet
3562: The Master or person-in-charge of an OSV shall insure that each deck from which rescue boats are launched is __________.

    a. surfaced with a nonskid texture
    b. roped off to prevent unnecessary access
    c. kept clear of any obstructions that would interfere with launching
    d. posted with a list of persons assigned to the rescue boat
3563: Because of the presence of 75 knot winds, the DEEP DRILLER is at survival draft. KGL is 1.24 feet less than the maximum allowed. What is the value of GML?

    a. 0.15 foot
    b. 1.00 foot
    c. 1.24 feet
    d. 1.39 feet
3564: The sea painter of a rescue boat should be led __________.

    a. forward and outboard of all obstructions
    b. forward and inboard of all obstructions
    c. up and down from the main deck
    d. to the foremost point on the vessel
3565: What are the maximum vertical moments, including free surface moments, permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet if the winds are less than 70 knots?

    a. 942,120 foot-tons
    b. 946,271 foot-tons
    c. 974,441 foot-tons
    d. 1,059,885 foot-tons
3566: The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall include __________.

    a. buoyant oars
    b. one 50 meter line
    c. one first aid kit
    d. All of the above
3567: What are the maximum vertical moments including free surface moments permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet if the winds are greater than 70 knots?

    a. 942,120 foot-tons
    b. 946,271 foot-tons
    c. 974,441 foot-tons
    d. 1,059,885 foot-tons
3569: If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after abandoning a vessel in a rescue boat, you should __________.

    a. go in one direction until the fuel runs out
    b. steer a course for the nearest land
    c. steer a course for the nearest sea lane
    d. shut down the engines if installed and put out the sea anchor
3570: How many means of escape must be provided from passenger areas on a passenger vessel of 500 GT?

    a. One
    b. Two
    c. Three
    d. Two, unless there is an elevator provided
3571: The DEEP DRILLER is anchoring in 600 feet of water. In the absence of environmental forces, the mooring lines should be adjusted to __________.

    a. 245 kips
    b. 222 kips
    c. 237 kips
    d. 194 kips
3572: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 25'-04", AFT 24'-08". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 634 long tons are discharged from NO. 19 hatch.

    a. FWD 25'-00 1/4", AFT 25'-04 1/8"
    b. FWD 25'-02 3/4", AFT 23'-08 5/8"
    c. FWD 25'-05 1/4", AFT 23'-08 5/8"
    d. FWD 25'-10 1/4", AFT 23'-11 3/4"
3573: The DEEP DRILLER in transit is level at 23.0 feet draft. Strong winds are blowing from the starboard. A careful load form calculation determines that the TCG is 2.0 feet to starboard. What is the value of the wind heeling moment?

    a. 4,339 foot-long tons
    b. 26,033 foot-long tons
    c. 39,050 foot-long tons
    d. 78,099 foot-long tons
3574: How many fire axes should be carried by a 700 GT cargo vessel, navigating the Great Lakes?

    a. 8
    b. 6
    c. 4
    d. 2
3575: While in transit at a draft of 20.5 feet, the DEEP DRILLER has a KGL of 65.00 feet. What is the GML?

    a. 7.55 feet
    b. 5.42 feet
    c. 5.30 feet
    d. 5.10 feet
3576: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0141

    a. 1220 tons
    b. 840 tons
    c. 460 tons
    d. 344 tons
3577: While being towed at a 19.5 foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER experiences single amplitude rolls of 10° with a period of 8 seconds. You should __________.

    a. continue towing operations at a 19.5 foot draft
    b. ballast the rig to a 60 foot draft and continue towing operations
    c. ballast the rig to a 45 foot draft and check the vessel motions
    d. alter course to bring the wind off the starboard beam
3578: The "call" part of a signal by flashing light is made by the general call or by __________.

    a. sending "CQ"
    b. the identity signal of the station called
    c. spelling the name of the station called
    d. omitting the call if the name of the station is unknown
3579: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 3 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 34 lbs.

    a. 1150 tons each
    b. 1180 tons each
    c. 1220 tons each
    d. 1250 tons each
3580: How should the letter "V" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

    a. VIK TAH
    b. VIC TO RE
    c. VIX TOO RE
    d. VEE
3581: The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 58 feet, has VM of 900,000 ft-tons, and FSMT of 20,000 ft-tons. What is the KGT?

    a. 51.6 feet
    b. 52.3 feet
    c. 53.8 feet
    d. 55.0 feet
3582: You are downbound in an ice filled channel. An icebreaker is meeting you and sounds two short, one prolonged, and two short blasts on the whistle. What action should you take?

    a. No action is required; the icebreaker will move out of the channel.
    b. Move to the right hand side of the channel and slow to bare steerageway.
    c. Stop your headway and await further signals.
    d. Slow to bare steerageway and be prepared to come ahead as the icebreaker commences escorting your vessel.
3583: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the KG of the liquid load. ST-0142

    a. 2.6 feet
    b. 2.8 feet
    c. 3.1 feet
    d. 4.3 feet
3585: When a man who has fallen overboard is being picked up by a rescue boat, the boat should normally approach with the wind __________.

    a. astern and the victim just off the bow
    b. ahead and the victim just off the bow
    c. just off the bow and the victim to windward
    d. just off the bow and the victim to leeward
3586: A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up with a rescue boat. If the person appears in danger of drowning, the rescue boat should be maneuvered to make____________________.

    a. an approach from leeward
    b. an approach from windward
    c. the most direct approach
    d. an approach across the wind
3587: A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up with a rescue boat. If the person appears in danger of drowning, the rescue boat should be maneuvered to make____________________.

    a. an approach from leeward
    b. an approach from windward
    c. an approach across the wind
    d. the most direct approach
3588: For the purpose of training and drills, if reasonable and practicable, rescue boats on an OSV must be launched with their assigned crew __________.

    a. once a week
    b. once a month
    c. once a year
    d. twice a year
3590: The patrolman, while on duty on a passenger vessel, must have in his possession a(n) __________.

    a. nightstick
    b. flashlight
    c. passenger list showing assigned berths
    d. A-I fire extinguisher
3591: With no environmental forces on the DEEP DRILLER, the average of the starboard drafts is 59.0 feet, and the average of the port drafts is 61.0 feet. KGT is 52.84 feet. What is the value of TCG?

    a. -2.00 feet
    b. -1.00 foot
    c. -0.16 foot
    d. -0.10 foot
3592: When should the emergency position-indicating radio beacon be activated after abandoning an OSV?

    a. Immediately
    b. After one hour
    c. Only when another vessel is in sight
    d. Only after sunset
3593: The DEEP DRILLER is level at a draft of 58 feet when there are no environmental forces. What is the value of LCG?

    a. 0.00 (amidships)
    b. 2.23 feet forward of amidships
    c. 2.26 feet forward of amidships
    d. 2.31 feet forward of amidships
3594: After having activated the emergency position indicating radio beacon, you should __________.

    a. turn it off for 5 minutes every half-hour
    b. turn it off and on at 5 minute intervals
    c. turn it off during daylight hours
    d. leave it on continuously
3595: The DEEP DRILLER is level at a draft of 58 feet when there are no environmental forces. What is the value of TCG?

    a. 0.00 on the centerline
    b. 2.23 feet forward of amidships
    c. 2.26 feet forward of amidships
    d. 2.31 feet forward of amidships
3596: The light on a life jacket must be replaced __________.

    a. when the power source is replaced
    b. each year after installation
    c. every six months
    d. when it is no longer serviceable
3597: The DEEP DRILLER has a KGT of 52.90 feet while at a draft of 58.0 feet. List is 2.0 feet to port. What is the value of TCG?

    a. -0.10 foot
    b. -0.13 foot
    c. -0.16 foot
    d. -0.19 foot
3598: If you have to abandon ship, the EPIRB can be used to __________.

    a. hold the survival craft's head up into the seas
    b. generate orange smoke
    c. seal leaks in rubber rafts
    d. send radio homing signals to searching aircraft
3599: What should you do with your emergency position indicating radio beacon if you are in a lifeboat during storm conditions?

    a. Bring it inside the liferaft and leave it on.
    b. Bring it inside the liferaft and turn it off until the storm passes.
    c. Leave it outside the liferaft and leave it on.
    d. Leave it outside the liferaft and turn it off.
3600: How should the number "3" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

    a. TAY-RAH-TREE
    b. BEES-SOH-THREE
    c. NUM-ERL-THREE
    d. TRIC-THREE
3601: For the DEEP DRILLER, the maximum permissible offset which can be tolerated while drilling is __________.

    a. 10% of water depth
    b. 6% of water depth
    c. 4% of water depth
    d. 2% of water depth
3602: You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 22'-06", AFT 25'-06". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 4.8' to 5.9'. What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability Data Reference Book.)

    a. Tanks: DB3, DB4
    b. Tanks: DB5, DT6
    c. Tanks: DB2, DB5
    d. Tanks: DB2, DB6, DB7
3603: While anchored in 600 feet water depth, 3,150 feet of chain is deployed for line #8. Tension on that line is 220 kips. According to the DEEP DRILLER Operating manual, how much of that chain lies along the bottom?

    a. 994 feet
    b. 1,422 feet
    c. 1,728 feet
    d. 2,550 feet
3604: You are the first vessel to arrive at the scene of a distress. Due to the volume of traffic on the radio, you are unable to communicate with the vessel in distress. Which action should you take?

    a. Switch to flag hoists.
    b. Broadcast "Seelonce Distress".
    c. Broadcast "Charlie Quebec-Mayday-Quiet".
    d. Key the microphone three times in quick succession.
3605: While anchored in 700 feet of water, 3,150 feet of chain is deployed for line #4. Tension on that line is 200 kips. According to the DEEP DRILLER Operating Manual, how much of that chain lies along the bottom?

    a. 1,218 feet
    b. 1,398 feet
    c. 1,752 feet
    d. 1,844 feet
3606: Which radiotelephone signal indicates receipt of a distress message?

    a. Roger wilco
    b. Romeo, romeo, romeo
    c. SOS acknowledged
    d. Mayday roger
3607: With the DEEP DRILLER anchored in 500 feet of water and with the tension on the mooring chain of 170 kips, the length of the catenary is __________.

    a. 1,378 feet
    b. 1,423 feet
    c. 1,591 feet
    d. 1,624 feet
3608: A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You should maneuver your vessel so the wind __________.

    a. comes over the bow
    b. blows the fire back toward the vessel
    c. comes over the stern
    d. comes over either beam
3609: General arrangement plans shall be permanently exhibited on all passenger vessels of at least __________.

    a. 200 GT and over
    b. 500 GT and over
    c. 1000 GT and over
    d. 1500 GT and over
3610: A passenger vessel is underway. When may passengers visit the pilothouse?

    a. Passengers are excluded from the pilothouse while underway.
    b. Passengers are permitted in the pilothouse during daylight hours only.
    c. Passengers are permitted to visit the pilothouse when authorized by the Master and officer of the watch.
    d. Passengers are permitted in the pilothouse when they are escorted by a ship's officer.
3611: Each life jacket light that has a non-replaceable power source must be replaced __________.

    a. every 6 months after initial installation
    b. every 12 months after initial installation
    c. every 24 months after initial installation
    d. on or before the expiration date of the power source
3612: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 14'-00", AFT 16'-00". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 350 long tons are discharged from No. 13 hatch.

    a. FWD 13'-03 5/8", AFT 15'-03 1/8"
    b. FWD 13'-04 3/4", AFT 15'-03 1/4"
    c. FWD 13'-05 1/5", AFT 15'-04 3/5"
    d. FWD 13'-08 4/5", AFT 15'-08 4/5"
3613: You are in a survival craft broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?

    a. The nature of the distress
    b. The time of day
    c. Your radio call sign
    d. Your position by latitude and longitude
3614: While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message "Seelonce Feenee" over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?

    a. Resume base course and speed because the distress situation is over.
    b. Do not transmit over the radiotelephone.
    c. Relay the initial distress message to the nearest shore station.
    d. Resume normal communications on the guarded frequency.
3615: The DEEP DRILLER is moored in 700 feet of water. The tension on anchor line #3 is 200 kips. What is the vertical component of chain tension for that line?

    a. 59.1 long tons
    b. 60.9 long tons
    c. 89.3 long tons
    d. 487.2 long tons
3616: Which radiotelephone signal indicates receipt of a distress message?

    a. Received mayday
    b. Roger wilco
    c. Seelonce
    d. Mayday wilco
3617: The DEEP DRILLER is moored in 600 feet of water. The average line tension is 190 kips. What is the total vertical component of chain tension?

    a. 55.3 long tons
    b. 428.8 long tons
    c. 442.4 long tons
    d. 678.4 long tons
3618: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 28'-00", AFT 29'-00". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 81.05 tons of seawater.

    a. FWD 28'-06.2", AFT 28'-06.2"
    b. FWD 28'-06.3", AFT 28'-08.0"
    c. FWD 28'-07.3", AFT 28'-07.8"
    d. FWD 28'-10.0", AFT 28'-08.0"
3620: How should the letter "O" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

    a. OCK TOW BER
    b. O RI AN
    c. OSS CAH
    d. OA KAM
3621: The DEEP DRILLER is moored in 700 feet of water. The average tension on the mooring lines is 200 kips. What is the total vertical component of chain tension?

    a. 60.9 long tons
    b. 472.8 long tons
    c. 487.2 long tons
    d. 714.4 long tons
3622: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0143

    a. 451 tons
    b. 1126 tons
    c. 1451 tons
    d. 1726 tons
3623: You wish to communicate by radiotelephone with a foreign vessel using the International Code of Signals. This is indicated by the signal __________.

    a. "Charlie Quebec"
    b. "Code"
    c. "Kilo"
    d. "Interco"
3624: What is the International Code signal for calling an unknown station using flashing light?

    a. AA AA
    b. UNK
    c. STA
    d. CQ
3625: The DEEP DRILLER is on location during a storm. Windward anchor tensions begin to exceed the test tensions. To reduce tensions while minimizing offset over the well, you should __________.

    a. increase tension on the leeward chain
    b. pay out more chain on the windward side
    c. reduce tension on the leeward chains
    d. connect an emergency tow wire to the work boat
3626: When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable liferaft, the personnel on the raft should __________.

    a. deflate the floor of the raft to reduce the danger of capsizing
    b. inflate the floor of the raft to provide for additional stability
    c. remove their lifejackets to prepare for the transfer
    d. take in the sea anchor to prevent fouling of the rescue sling
3627: The DEEP DRILLER is drilling on location at a 60 foot draft. Waves are approaching within 2 feet of the underside of the spider deck. You should __________.

    a. suspend drilling operations and deballast to a 45 foot draft
    b. continue drilling while ballasting to a 20 foot draft maximum air gap
    c. deballast when the waves just begin to hit the underside of the spider deck
    d. reduce tension on all anchor chains to increase draft
3628: Each vessel in ocean and coastwise service must have an approved EPIRB. An EPIRB __________.

    a. must be stowed in a manner so that it will float free if the vessel sinks
    b. must be stowed where it is readily accessible for testing and use
    c. is a devise that transmits a radio signal
    d. All of the above
3629: When a helicopter is lifting personnel from a rescue boat, the other individuals in the boat should __________.

    a. enter the water in case the person being lifted slips from the sling
    b. stand on the outside of the boat to assist the person being lifted
    c. remove their lifejackets to prepare for their transfer to the helicopter
    d. remain seated inside to provide body weight for stability
3630: A passenger vessel is required to have a supervised patrol when __________.

    a. there are passengers berthed on board
    b. navigating in excess of eight hours
    c. the vessel has substantial wood in its construction
    d. there is no automatic fire-detection system installed
3631: During an ice storm on board the DEEP DRILLER, the rig is uniformly covered with 414 tons of ice. At the beginning of the storm the rig was at 45 foot draft. After the storm the rig was at a 48 foot draft. Assume a KG of 127 feet for the new ice and an original KG of 58 feet. What is the new KG of the DEEP DRILLER?

    a. 59.74 feet
    b. 60.34 feet
    c. 61.19 feet
    d. 61.27 feet
3632: When using a handheld smoke signal in a liferaft, you should activate the signal __________.

    a. on the upwind side
    b. inside the boat
    c. at the stern
    d. on the downwind side
3633: The KG of the DEEP DRILLER increases from 57 feet to 59 feet while drilling at a 60 foot draft during an ice storm. What action should be taken?

    a. Continue drilling operations while waiting for the ice to melt
    b. Reduce the deck load until you reach the allowable KG for draft
    c. Notify the USCG that the rig is temporarily above the allowable KG
    d. Deballast to reach the allowable KG
3634: You are underway in mid-ocean when you hear a distress message. The position of the sender is 150 miles away. No other vessel has acknowledged the distress. Your maximum speed is 5 knots and due to the seriousness of the distress, you cannot arrive on scene to provide effective assistance. What action should you take?

    a. Do not acknowledge the distress message.
    b. Send an urgency message about the distress.
    c. Use the signal MAYDAY RELAY and transmit the distress message.
    d. Transmit a message as though your vessel was in distress.
3635: For the DEEP DRILLER, in deballasting to survival draft when threatened with heavy weather from 100 knot winds, a load form should be calculated to determine that __________.

    a. the maximum allowable KG is exceeded
    b. KG corrected for free surface effects does not exceed 62.24 feet
    c. KG corrected for free surface effects does not exceed 62.09 feet
    d. GM remains the same
3636: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-11.5", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0144

    a. 3.15 feet
    b. 3.00 feet
    c. 2.90 feet
    d. 2.80 feet
3637: In anticipation of heavy weather, it is decided to deballast the DEEP DRILLER to survival draft. The marine riser should be disconnected, pulled, and laid down. After doing so, the riser tension will be __________.

    a. zero
    b. equal to the weight of the riser
    c. dependent on the water depth
    d. applied at the riser tensioner sheaves
3638: When using a handheld smoke signal in a liferaft, you should activate the signal __________.

    a. on the downwind side
    b. inside the boat
    c. at the stern
    d. on the upwind side
3639: Which condition represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?

    a. Only when there is a chance of their being seen by rescue vessels
    b. At half hour intervals
    c. At one hour intervals
    d. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel
3640: How should the number "2" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

    a. NUM-BER-TOO
    b. BEES-SOH-TOO
    c. DOS-SOH-TU
    d. NEM-MARL-TWO
3641: Signaling devices required on inflatable liferafts include a(n) __________.

    a. Very pistol
    b. orange smoke signal
    c. air horn
    d. lantern
3642: When communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English, what procedure word indicates the end of my transmission and that a response is necessary?

    a. Out
    b. Over
    c. Roger
    d. Wilco
3643: Under extremely heavy weather on the DEEP DRILLER, when operating conditions are too severe to permit the drill string from being tripped out of the hole and laid down in the pipe racks, it may be __________.

    a. hung off
    b. placed in the setback
    c. supported by the lower marine riser package
    d. supported by the tensioners
3644: When should distress flares and rockets be used?

    a. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel
    b. Only when there is a chance of their being seen by a rescue vessel
    c. At one hour intervals
    d. At half hour intervals
3645: Signaling devices which are required on inflatable liferafts include __________.

    a. a rocket shoulder rifle
    b. an oil lantern
    c. red flares
    d. an air horn
3646: One of the signals, other than a distress signal, that can be used by a rescue boat to attract attention is a/an __________.

    a. red star shell
    b. searchlight
    c. burning barrel
    d. orange smoke signal
3647: A distress signal __________.

    a. consists of 5 or more short blasts of the fog signal apparatus
    b. consists of the raising and lowering of a large white flag
    c. may be used individually or in conjunction with other distress signals
    d. is used to indicate doubt about another vessel's intentions
3648: All of the following are recognized distress signals under the Navigation Rules EXCEPT __________.

    a. a green star signal
    b. orange-colored smoke
    c. red flares
    d. the repeated raising and lowering of outstretched arms
3649: A man aboard a vessel, signaling by raising and lowering his outstretched arms to each side, is indicating __________.

    a. danger, stay away
    b. all is clear, it is safe to pass
    c. all is clear, it is safe to approach
    d. a distress signal
3650: If your passenger vessel is fitted with a loudspeaker system, it must be tested at least once __________.

    a. every week
    b. a day
    c. every trip
    d. a watch or once a trip, whichever is shorter
3651: Distress signals may be __________.

    a. red flares
    b. smoke signals
    c. sound signals
    d. Any of the above
3652: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 17'-04", AFT 18'-08". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 765 long tons are discharged from No. 7 hatch.

    a. FWD 15'-04 3/4", AFT 18'-04"
    b. FWD 15'-11 3/5", AFT 18'-11"
    c. FWD 18'-08 2/5", AFT 18'-05"
    d. FWD 18'-05 3/4", AFT 18'-10"
3652: Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 17'-04", AFT 18'-08". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 765 long tons are discharged from No. 7 hatch.

    a. FWD 15'-04 3/4", AFT 18'-04"
    b. FWD 15'-11 3/5", AFT 18'-11"
    c. FWD 18'-08 2/5", AFT 18'-05"
    d. FWD 18'-05 3/4", AFT 18'-10"
3653: When a vessel signals her distress by means of a gun or other explosive signal, the firing should be at intervals of approximately __________.

    a. 10 minutes
    b. 1 minute
    c. 1 hour
    d. 3 minutes
3654: You are communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English. Which procedural word (proword) indicates that you have received another vessel's transmission?

    a. Out
    b. Over
    c. Roger
    d. Wilco
3655: You can indicate that your vessel is in distress by __________.

    a. displaying a large red flag
    b. displaying three black balls in a vertical line
    c. sounding five or more short and rapid blasts on the whistle
    d. continuously sounding the fog whistle
3657: For planning purposes, the time required to place the DEEP DRILLER at survival draft from the drilling mode to counter heavy weather is __________.

    a. 2 hours
    b. 4 hours
    c. 6 hours
    d. 8 hours
3658: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the liquid loading shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the LCG-FP of the liquid load. ST-0145

    a. 226.9 ft
    b. 238.3 ft
    c. 252.4 ft
    d. 268.8 ft
3659: Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 1 (P&S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 43 lbs.

    a. 23 tons each
    b. 50 tons each
    c. 75 tons each
    d. 150 tons each
3660: How should the letter "W" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?

    a. DUB A U
    b. WISS KEY
    c. WI NE
    d. WOO LF
3661: Under ideal conditions, the DEEP DRILLER can pick up and place pipe in the rack at a rate of about __________.

    a. 600 feet per hour
    b. 800 feet per hour
    c. 1,000 feet per hour
    d. 1,200 feet per hour
3662: You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 24'-00", AFT 25'-08". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 3.0' to 4.1'. What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability Data Reference Book.)

    a. Tanks: DB3, DT1A
    b. Tanks: DB2, DB6, DT6
    c. Tanks: DB 3, FB7, DT1
    d. Tanks: DB4, DT6
3663: Before deballasting to survival draft in the event of predicted heavy weather, the DEEP DRILLER Operations Manual recommends that the mooring lines be slacked __________.

    a. 10 feet
    b. 20 feet
    c. 30 feet
    d. 40 feet
3664: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 29'-04", AFT 30'-06". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 101.6 tons of seawater.

    a. FWD 29'-04.5", AFT 30'-07.5"
    b. FWD 29'-07.6", AFT 30'-05.0"
    c. FWD 29'-04.5", AFT 30'-10.0"
    d. FWD 30'-00.8", AFT 30'-01.0"
3665: The time required to ballast the DEEP DRILLER to survival draft, when threatened with heavy weather, while under tow, is about __________.

    a. 2 hours
    b. 3 hours
    c. 4 hours
    d. 5 hours
3666: When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed at __________.

    a. straight overhead
    b. at the vessel whose attention you are trying to get
    c. into the wind
    d. about 60 degrees above the horizon
3667: The principal action in changing from transit to survival draft in the event heavy weather threatens is __________.

    a. ballasting
    b. deballasting
    c. disconnecting
    d. hanging off
3668: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0146

    a. 920 tons
    b. 1120 tons
    c. 1245 tons
    d. 1545 tons
3669: The free surface correction depends upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquid and the __________.

    a. volume of liquid in the tank
    b. displacement of the vessel
    c. location of the tank in the vessel
    d. height of the center of gravity of the vessel
3670: On a passenger vessel with stateroom accommodations, which space would NOT be required to be checked by the patrol between 10 pm and 6 am?

    a. galley
    b. public spaces with an automatic fire detection system
    c. pilothouse
    d. weather decks
3671: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard center column below the waterline. Pumping from tanks 2S and 9S is not sufficient to prevent increasing starboard list. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.

    a. 2P
    b. 9P
    c. C2BS
    d. C2BP
3672: Which item of the listed survival craft equipment would be the most suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon?

    a. A red parachute flare
    b. A red handheld flare
    c. An orange smoke flare
    d. A flashlight
3673: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the port center column below the waterline. Pumping from tanks 2P and 9P is not sufficient to prevent increasing port list. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.

    a. 2S
    b. 9S
    c. C2BS
    d. C2BP
3674: Which condition represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?

    a. At one hour intervals
    b. At half hour intervals
    c. Only when there is a chance of their being seen by rescue vessels
    d. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel
3675: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the port forward column below the waterline. Pumping from tank 2P and 3P is not sufficient to prevent increasing port list and bow down trim. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.

    a. 2S
    b. 9S
    c. C2BS
    d. 10S
3676: You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should __________.

    a. switch the EPIRB to the homing signal mode
    b. use the voice transmission capability of the EPIRB to guide the aircraft to your raft
    c. turn on the strobe light on the top of the EPIRB
    d. use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB
3677: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard aft column below the waterline. Pumping from tanks 8S and 9S is not sufficient to prevent increasing starboard list and stern down trim. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.

    a. 1S
    b. 1P
    c. C2BP
    d. 10P
3678: When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute?

    a. 4
    b. 8
    c. 12
    d. 20
3679: You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest compressions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence?

    a. 5 compressions then 1 inflation
    b. 15 compressions then 2 inflations
    c. 20 compressions then 3 inflations
    d. 30 compressions then 4 inflations
3680: When administering artificial respiration to an adult, the breathing cycle should be repeated about __________.

    a. 12 to 15 times per minute
    b. 18 to 20 times per minute
    c. 20 to 25 times per minute
    d. as fast as possible
3681: The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the port aft column below the waterline. Pumping from tank 8P and 9P is not sufficient to prevent increasing port list and stern down trim. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.

    a. 1S
    b. 1P
    c. C2BS
    d. 10S
3682: At what rate would you render mouth to mouth or mouth to nose artificial respiration to an adult?

    a. 4 to 6 times per minute
    b. 12 to 15 times per minute
    c. 20 to 30 times per minute
    d. At least 30 times per minute
3683: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected starboard and aft inclination. The wind and waves are light. What might have caused the inclination?

    a. Mooring lines 6 and 7 have failed.
    b. The drilling crew has dumped the mud.
    c. The drill string has broken.
    d. Ballast tanks have equalized into tank 10S.
3684: The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.

    a. cupping a hand around the patient's mouth
    b. keeping the head elevated
    c. applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth
    d. holding the jaw down firmly
3685: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers an unexpected but slowly increasing starboard and aft inclination. The wind and waves are light. This inclination could have been caused by __________.

    a. the failure of mooring lines 6 and 7
    b. the drilling crew dumping the mud
    c. the drill string breaking
    d. ballast tanks equalizing into tank 10S
3686: When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should be depressed about __________.

    a. 1/2 inch or less
    b. 1/2 to 1 inch
    c. 1 to 1-1/2 inches
    d. 1-1/2 to 2 inches
3687: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers an unexpected but slowly increasing port and aft inclination. The wind and waves are light. This inclination could have been caused by __________.

    a. the failure of mooring lines 2 and 3
    b. the drilling crew dumping the mud
    c. the drill string breaking
    d. ballast tanks equalizing into tank 10P
3688: You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?

    a. Lower half of the sternum
    b. Tip of the sternum
    c. Top half of the sternum
    d. Left chest over the heart
3689: Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done __________.

    a. without losing the rhythm of respiration
    b. only with the help of two other people
    c. by not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes
    d. at ten-minute intervals
3690: The MOST important element in administering CPR is __________.

    a. having the proper equipment for the process
    b. starting the treatment quickly
    c. administering of oxygen
    d. treating for traumatic shock
3691: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers an unexpected but slowly increasing port and forward inclination. The wind and waves are light. This inclination could have been caused by __________.

    a. the failure of mooring lines 5 and 6
    b. the drilling crew dumping the mud
    c. the drill string breaking
    d. ballast tanks equalizing into tank 1P
3692: Before CPR is started, you should __________.

    a. establish an open airway
    b. treat any bleeding wounds
    c. insure the victim is conscious
    d. make the victim comfortable
3693: While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers an unexpected but slowly increasing starboard and forward inclination. The wind and waves are light. This inclination could have been caused by __________.

    a. the failure of mooring lines 7 and 8
    b. the drilling crew dumping the mud
    c. the drill string breaking
    d. ballast tanks equalizing into tank 1S
3694: When administering artificial respiration, it is MOST important to __________.

    a. monitor blood pressure
    b. clear airways
    c. use the rhythmic pressure method
    d. know all approved methods
3695: In storm conditions, when the environmental conditions are such that the DEEP DRILLER has disconnected the marine riser, the two leeward mooring lines should be __________.

    a. tightened
    b. slacked slightly
    c. completely slacked
    d. adjusted to give the same line tensions as the windward lines
3696: The equipment required to remove an on-deck oil spill on a barge transferring oil must either be carried on board or __________.

    a. on a tug standing by
    b. available by contract with the shore facility
    c. kept at the shoreside hose connection during transfer
    d. kept in a protected shoreside location readily accessible
3697: In storm conditions, when slacking the leeward mooring lines of the DEEP DRILLER, maintain in the chain locker at least __________.

    a. 500 feet
    b. 350 feet
    c. 200 feet
    d. 100 feet
3698: You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his mouth it is apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What should you do?

    a. Blow harder to force the air past the tongue.
    b. Raise the victim's head higher than his feet.
    c. Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow out any obstruction.
    d. Re-tip the head and try again.
3700: Sign(s) of respiratory arrest requiring artificial respiration is(are) __________.

    a. vomiting
    b. blue color and lack of breathing
    c. irregular breathing
    d. unconsciousness
3701: While loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), an estimated 250 long tons of snow and ice accumulates on the DEEP DRILLER at an estimated height of 127 feet. Assuming no corrective ballasting, what is the rise in the height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?

    a. 2.62 feet
    b. 2.20 feet
    c. 1.03 feet
    d. 0.71 foot
3702: You may have to give artificial respiration after an accidental __________.

    a. drowning
    b. electrocution
    c. poisoning
    d. All of the above
3703: While loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), an estimated 250 long tons of snow and ice accumulates on the DEEP DRILLER at an estimated height of 127 feet. Assuming no corrective ballasting, what is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?

    a. 58.78 feet
    b. 60.68 feet
    c. 61.53 feet
    d. 62.78 feet
3704: After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, he should be __________.

    a. walked around until he is back to normal
    b. given several shots of whiskey
    c. kept lying down and warm
    d. allowed to do as he wishes
3705: While loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), an estimated 250 long tons of snow and ice accumulates on the DEEP DRILLER at an estimated height of 127 feet. Assuming no corrective ballasting, what is the margin on maximum allowable KG?

    a. 1.55 feet
    b. 1.23 feet
    c. 0.50 foot
    d. -1.45 feet
3706: You are in charge of a fishing vessel with 18 individuals on board. You are required to conduct drills and give safety instruction at least once __________.

    a. every week
    b. every 15 days
    c. every month
    d. before you begin fishing
3707: While loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), an estimated 250 long tons of snow and ice accumulates on the DEEP DRILLER at an estimated height of 127 feet. Assuming no corrective ballasting, what is the new draft?

    a. 48'-06"
    b. 47'-03 1/2"
    c. 46'-09 3/4"
    d. 44'-06"
3708: If the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation, the rescuer should FIRST __________.

    a. ignore it and continue mouth-to-mouth ventilation
    b. pause for a moment until the patient appears quiet again, then resume ventilation mouth-to-mouth
    c. switch to mouth-to-nose ventilation
    d. turn the patient's body to the side, sweep out the mouth and resume mouth-to-mouth ventilation
3709: When starting CPR on a drowning victim, you should __________.

    a. start chest compressions before the victim is removed from the water
    b. drain water from the lungs before ventilating
    c. begin mouth-to-mouth ventilations as soon as possible
    d. do not tilt the head back since it may cause vomiting
3710: Which statement is CORRECT with respect to inserting an airway tube?

    a. Only a trained person should attempt to insert an airway tube.
    b. A size 2 airway tube is the correct size for an adult.
    c. The airway tube will not damage the victim's throat.
    d. Inserting the airway tube will prevent vomiting.
3711: Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done __________.

    a. without losing the rhythm of respiration
    b. only with the help of two other people
    c. by not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes
    d. at ten minute intervals
3712: The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth to mouth ventilation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.

    a. cupping a hand around the patient's mouth
    b. keeping the head elevated
    c. applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth
    d. holding the jaw down firmly
3713: The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival) when an unexpected slowly increasing starboard list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in 1S is found. By deballasting from ballast tanks 2S and 3S, the inclination slowly decreases. The increase in the transverse free surface corrections is __________.

    a. 1.25 feet
    b. 0.90 foot
    c. 0.84 foot
    d. 0.22 foot
3714: If someone suffers a heart attack and has ceased breathing, you should __________.

    a. immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary
    b. make the victim comfortable in a bunk
    c. immediately start CPR
    d. administer oxygen
3715: The necessity for administering artificial respiration may be recognized by the victim's __________.

    a. vomiting
    b. blue color and lack of breathing
    c. irregular breathing
    d. unconscious condition
3716: In order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim, __________.

    a. start chest compressions before the victim is removed from the water
    b. drain water from the lungs before ventilating
    c. begin mouth-to-mouth ventilations
    d. do not tilt the head back since it may cause vomiting
3717: During the passage of a severe storm, the DEEP DRILLER is at survival draft. Strong winds are blowing from the starboard. A careful load form calculation determined that, although the unit is level, the TCG is 2.0 feet to starboard. The value of the wind heeling moment is __________.

    a. 40,402 ft-long tons
    b. 32,099 ft-long tons
    c. 21,343 ft-long tons
    d. 19,982 ft-long tons
3718: Treatments of heat exhaustion consist of __________.

    a. moving to a shaded area and laying down
    b. bathing with rubbing alcohol
    c. placing the patient in a tub of cold water
    d. All of the above
3719: Symptoms of heat stroke are __________.

    a. cold and moist skin, high body temperature
    b. cold and dry skin, low body temperature
    c. hot and moist skin, high body temperature
    d. hot and dry skin, high body temperature
3723: A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should be __________.

    a. moved to a cool room and told to lie down
    b. kept standing and encouraged to walk slowly and continuously
    c. given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15 minutes of rest
    d. None of the above is correct.
3724: Physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water would __________.

    a. be the best thing to try if there was no rescue in sight
    b. increase survival time in the water
    c. increase the rate of heat loss from the body
    d. not affect the heat loss from the body
3725: A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet. You should __________.

    a. immerse the feet in warm water
    b. warm the feet with a heat lamp
    c. warm the feet at room temperature
    d. rub the feet
3726: Treatment of frostbite includes __________.

    a. rubbing affected area with ice or snow
    b. rubbing affected area briskly to restore circulation
    c. wrapping area tightly in warm cloths
    d. warming exposed parts rapidly
3727: The DEEP DRILLER is engaged in wire line logging. You have 10,000 feet of drill pipe and bottom hole assembly in the set back. Marine weather forecasts are predicting weather with winds in excess of 70 knots. Your first step to prepare for the storm should be to __________.

    a. suspend wire line operations and run the drill string into the hole
    b. continue wire line operations and bring the rig to a 45 foot draft
    c. suspend wire line operations and dump your mud pits overboard
    d. increase tension on all anchor chains to minimize movement of the rig
3728: A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of the right foot. Which is NOT an acceptable first aid measure?

    a. Rub the toes briskly.
    b. Elevate the foot slightly.
    c. Rewarm rapidly.
    d. Give aspirin or other medication for pain if necessary.
3729: A crew member suffering from hypothermia should be given __________.

    a. a small dose of alcohol
    b. treatment for shock
    c. a large meal
    d. a brisk rub down
3730: The symptoms of heat exhaustion are __________.

    a. slow and strong pulse
    b. flushed and dry skin
    c. slow and deep breathing
    d. pale and clammy skin
3731: If the DEEP DRILLER is damaged, the unit is designed to avoid downflooding in wind speeds up to __________.

    a. 50 knots
    b. 70 knots
    c. 90 knots
    d. 100 knots
3732: Heat exhaustion is caused by excessive __________.

    a. loss of body temperature
    b. loss of water and salt from the body
    c. gain in body temperature
    d. intake of water when working or exercising
3733: In the event of damage to the DEEP DRILLER which results in flooding to one of the lower-hull tanks, pump from __________.

    a. nearby damaged tanks
    b. nearby undamaged tanks containing ballast
    c. tanks on the opposite corner
    d. the opposite trim tank
3734: Which procedure should be followed when individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia?

    a. Give them brandy or other alcoholic stimulation to promote a return to an acceptable body temperature.
    b. Move them to a warm room to gradually raise their body temperature.
    c. Keep them moving to stimulate circulation to raise their body temperature.
    d. Warm them under an electric blanket to rapidly regain normal body temperature.
3735: Which procedure should be followed when individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia?

    a. Give them brandy or other alcoholic stimulation to promote a return to normal body temperature.
    b. Move them to a warm room to gradually raise their body temperature.
    c. Keep them moving to stimulate circulation to raise their body temperature.
    d. Immerse them in a hot bath to rapidly raise their body temperature.
3736: The most effective treatment for warming a crew member suffering from hypothermia is __________.

    a. running or jumping to increase circulation
    b. raising body temperature rapidly by placing hands and feet in hot water
    c. bundling the body in blankets to rewarm gradually
    d. laying prone under heat lamps to rewarm rapidly
3737: The most important consideration in the event the Deep Driller suffers damage is __________.

    a. preserve reserve buoyancy
    b. advise authorities
    c. pump from adjacent undamaged compartments
    d. counterflood on the opposite corner
3738: A crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed. You should __________.

    a. lay the crew member down with the head and shoulders slightly raised
    b. administer a liquid stimulant
    c. lay the crew member down with the head lower than the feet
    d. attempt to stand the crew member upright to restore consciousness
3739: Which procedure should NOT be done for a person who has fainted?

    a. Revive the person with smelling salts.
    b. Loosen the clothing.
    c. Lay the person horizontally.
    d. Give pain reliever.
3740: The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is __________.

    a. tea
    b. coffee
    c. whiskey and water
    d. ammonia inhalant
3741: Because of the presence of 75 knot winds, the DEEP DRILLER is at survival draft. KGT is 3.24 feet less than the maximum allowed. What is the value of GMT?

    a. 5.32 feet
    b. 5.17 feet
    c. 3.39 feet
    d. 3.24 feet
3742: A rescuer can most easily determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse by checking the pulse at the __________.

    a. carotid artery in the neck
    b. femoral artery in the groin
    c. brachial artery in the arm
    d. radial artery in the wrist
3743: An unconscious person should NOT be __________.

    a. placed in a position with the head lower than the body
    b. given an inhalation stimulant
    c. given something to drink
    d. treated for injuries until conscious
3744: Which should NOT be a treatment for a person who has received a head injury and is groggy or unconscious?

    a. Give a stimulant.
    b. Elevate his head.
    c. Stop severe bleeding.
    d. Treat for shock.
3745: In reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes, what would you AVOID doing?

    a. Giving stimulants
    b. Prompt removal of the patient from the suffocating atmosphere
    c. Applying artificial respiration and massage
    d. Keeping the patient warm and comfortable
3746: A conscious victim who has suffered a blow to the head has symptoms that indicate the possibility of concussion. If the patient feels no indication of neck or spine injury, recommended treatment would include __________.

    a. turning the victim's head to the side to keep his airway open
    b. positioning the victim so the head is lower than the body
    c. giving the victim water if he is thirsty, but no food
    d. elevating the head and shoulders slightly with a pillow
3747: A person who gets battery acid in an eye should IMMEDIATELY wash the eye with __________.

    a. boric acid solution
    b. water
    c. baking soda solution
    d. ammonia
3748: A victim is coughing and wheezing from a partial obstruction of the airway. An observer should __________.

    a. perform the Heimlich maneuver
    b. immediately start CPR
    c. give back blows and something to drink
    d. allow the person to continue coughing and dislodge the obstruction on his own
3749: If a person gets something in his or her eye and you see that it is not embedded, you can __________.

    a. get them to rub their eye until the object is gone
    b. remove it with a match or toothpick
    c. remove it with a piece of dry sterile cotton
    d. remove it with a moist, cotton-tipped applicator
3750: While providing assistance to a victim of an epileptic seizure, it is most important to __________.

    a. give artificial respiration
    b. prevent patient from hurting himself
    c. keep the patient awake and make him/her walk if necessary to keep him/her awake
    d. remove any soiled clothing and put the patient in a clean bed
3751: A shipmate chokes suddenly, cannot speak, and starts to turn blue. You should __________.

    a. perform the Heimlich maneuver
    b. make the victim lie down with the feet elevated to get blood to the brain
    c. immediately administer CPR
    d. do nothing until the victim becomes unconscious
3752: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.

    a. administer oxygen
    b. immediately check his pulse and start CPR
    c. make the victim comfortable in a bunk
    d. immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary
3753: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.

    a. immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary
    b. make the victim comfortable in a bunk
    c. administer oxygen
    d. immediately start CPR
3754: First aid means __________.

    a. medical treatment of accident
    b. setting of broken bones
    c. emergency treatment at the scene of the injury
    d. dosage of medications
3755: To reduce mild fever the MOST useful drug is __________.

    a. bicarbonate of soda
    b. paregoric
    c. aspirin
    d. aromatic spirits of ammonia
3756: Treatment of sunstroke consists principally of __________.

    a. cooling, removing to shaded area, and lying down
    b. bathing with rubbing alcohol
    c. drinking ice water
    d. All of the above
3757: What are the symptoms of sun stroke?

    a. Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid and feeble, skin is cold and clammy.
    b. Temperature is high, pulse is strong and rapid, skin is hot and dry.
    c. Temperature is high, pulse is slow and feeble, skin is clammy.
    d. Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid, skin is clammy.
3758: To treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion, you should __________.

    a. administer artificial respiration
    b. put him in a tub of ice water
    c. give him sips of cool water
    d. cover him with a light cloth
3759: Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect fluids in the __________.

    a. stomach
    b. lower intestines
    c. inner ear
    d. bladder
3760: Symptoms of sea sickness include __________.

    a. fever and thirst
    b. nausea and dizziness
    c. stomach cramps and diarrhea
    d. reddening of skin and hives
3761: Symptoms of sugar diabetes include __________.

    a. increased appetite and thirst
    b. decreased appetite and thirst
    c. gain in weight
    d. elevated temperature
3762: The symptoms of a fractured back are __________.

    a. leg cramps in the muscles in one or both legs
    b. pain and uncontrolled jerking of the legs and arms
    c. vomiting and involuntary urination or bowel movement
    d. pain at the site of the fracture and possible numbness or paralysis below the injury
3763: What is the procedure for checking for spinal cord damage in an unconscious patient?

    a. Beginning at the back of the neck, and proceeding to the buttocks, press the spine to find where it hurts
    b. Prick the skin of the hands and the soles of the feet with a sharp object to check for reaction
    c. Selectively raise each arm and each leg and watch patient's face to see if he registers pain
    d. Roll patient onto his stomach and prick along the length of his spine to check reaction
3764: What are symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix?

    a. Dilated pupils and shallow breathing
    b. Diarrhea and frequent urination
    c. Muscle tenseness in almost the entire abdomen
    d. Extreme sweating and reddening skin
3765: When administering first aid you should avoid __________.

    a. any conversation with the patient
    b. instructing bystanders
    c. unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainty
    d. touching the patient before washing your hands
3766: The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is __________.

    a. relieving the patient's pain by giving aspirin or stronger medication
    b. avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling
    c. preventing convulsions and muscle spasms caused by the pain
    d. providing enough fluids to prevent dehydration
3767: When whistle signals are used for launching lifeboats, one short blast means __________.

    a. "use the float-free method only"
    b. "lower all boats"
    c. "raise all boats"
    d. "drill is over, secure all boats"
3768: What is one of the FIRST actions you should take after abandoning and clearing away from a vessel?

    a. Identify the person in charge.
    b. Gather up useful floating objects.
    c. Prepare for arrival of rescue units.
    d. Arrange watches and duties.
3769: You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. Traditionally, this is the signal for __________.

    a. abandon ship
    b. dismissal from fire and emergency stations
    c. fire and emergency
    d. man overboard
3770: The abandon ship signal is __________.

    a. a continuous ringing of general alarm bells for at least 10 seconds
    b. a continuous ringing of the general alarm, and sounding of the ship's whistle
    c. more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast of the ship's whistle and the same signal on the general alarm bells
    d. a continuous sounding of the ship's whistle
3771: What is the decrease in longitudinal moments for the Deep Driller if 2.0 feet of ballast is transferred from 1S to 10P?

    a. 15,265 ft-tons
    b. 14,609 ft-tons
    c. 7,293 ft-tons
    d. 5,174 ft-tons
3772: The abandon ship signal sounded by the vessel's whistle is __________.

    a. 6 short blasts and 1 long blast
    b. more than 6 short blasts
    c. more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast
    d. 1 long blast of at least 10 seconds
3773: What is the ullage in P-Tank #4 of the DEEP DRILLER if the weight is 75.24 long tons?

    a. 4.0 feet
    b. 5.0 feet
    c. 10.2 feet
    d. 16.0 feet
3774: The signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats is __________.

    a. 3 short blasts of the ship's whistle
    b. 1 short blast of the ship's whistle
    c. 3 long blasts of the ship's whistle
    d. 1 long blast of the ship's whistle
3775: The sounding in fuel oil tank 4P on the DEEP DRILLER is 8.75 feet. What are the transverse moments for this amount of fuel?

    a. -17,416 ft-long tons
    b. -874 ft-long tons
    c. 3,992 ft-long tons
    d. 17,416 ft-long tons
3776: If you continue to wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning your vessel, it will __________.

    a. weigh you down
    b. preserve body heat
    c. reduce your body heat
    d. make it more difficult to breathe
3777: What is the weight of cement in P-tank #1 of the Deep Driller if the ullage is 3.4 feet?

    a. 11.5 long tons
    b. 16.6 long tons
    c. 54.2 long tons
    d. 78.2 long tons
3778: When a ship is abandoned and there are several liferafts in the water, one of the FIRST things to be done is __________.

    a. separate the rafts as much as possible to increase chances of detection
    b. transfer all supplies to one raft
    c. transfer all the injured to one raft
    d. secure the rafts together to keep them from drifting apart
3779: If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel has sunk, __________.

    a. each raft should go in a different direction in search of land
    b. the possibility of a search aircraft finding you is increased by spreading out
    c. reduce the number of liferafts by getting as many people as possible into as few rafts as possible
    d. tie each of the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
3780: One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to __________.

    a. stream the sea anchor
    b. take an anti-seasickness pill
    c. open the pressure relief valve
    d. drink at least one can of water
3781: What is the weight of barite in P-tank #4 of the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 3.4 feet?

    a. 11.5 long tons
    b. 16.6 long tons
    c. 54.2 long tons
    d. 78.2 long tons
3782: You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure should be used during a prolonged period in a liferaft?

    a. Wet clothes during the day to decrease perspiration.
    b. Get plenty of rest.
    c. Keep the entrance curtains open.
    d. All of the above
3783: What is the weight of bulk in P-tank #1 of the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 2.3 feet?

    a. 34.3 long tons
    b. 58.0 long tons
    c. 83.6 long tons
    d. 121.9 long tons
3785: What are the vertical moments for P-Tank #1 on the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 3.0 feet?

    a. 1,167 foot-tons
    b. 4,002 foot-tons
    c. 6,758 foot-tons
    d. 9,739 foot-tons
3786: When using the rainwater collection tubes of a liferaft, the FIRST collection should be __________.

    a. passed around so all can drink
    b. poured overboard because of salt washed off the canopy
    c. saved to be used at a later time
    d. used to boil food
3787: What is the VCG for the cement in P-Tank #1 on the DEEP DRILLER if the ullage is 6.4 feet?

    a. 116.24 feet
    b. 116.44 feet
    c. 119.81 feet
    d. 123.06 feet
3788: When you hear three short blasts on the ship's whistle and the same signal on the general alarm bells, you __________.

    a. are required to be at your liferaft
    b. are dismissed from drills
    c. should point to the man overboard
    d. should start the fire pump
3789: The signal for a fire emergency on an OSV is __________.

    a. a 30 second on 30 second off alternating signal
    b. the continuous blast of the ships whistle for not less than 10 seconds supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds
    c. an intermittent ringing of the general alarm for not less than ten seconds
    d. announced over the PA system
3790: While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and three short rings on the general alarm bell bells" is the signal for __________.

    a. abandon ship
    b. dismissal from fire and emergency stations
    c. fire and emergency
    d. man overboard
3791: What is the VCG of the additional load if P-tank #4 in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #1 (Transit) is completely filled ?

    a. 113.90 feet
    b. 117.01 feet
    c. 121.03 feet
    d. 123.06 feet
3792: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD 08'-11.5", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard. ST-0147

    a. 3.10 feet
    b. 2.45 feet
    c. 2.00 feet
    d. 1.50 feet
3793: When the ullage is 6.4 feet in P-Tank #5 for the Deep Driller, what is the value of the longitudinal moment?

    a. -2,254 foot-tons
    b. -2,949 foot-tons
    c. -3,392 foot-tons
    d. -4,249 foot-tons
3794: During an abandonment or drill, the first person to arrive at the survival craft should __________.

    a. pass out food and water to personnel
    b. open the doors and start the sprinkler system
    c. activate the emergency release handle
    d. open the doors and prepare the craft for boarding
3795: When the ullage is 5.7 feet in P-Tank #6 for the Deep Driller, the transverse moment for P-Tank #6 is __________.

    a. 1,288 foot-tons
    b. 1,887 foot-tons
    c. 3,169 foot-tons
    d. 4,596 foot-tons

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