Navigation General 2



These pages contains all possible questions which might be thrown at you in the "Navigation General" module exam.  When you go in for your exam, your test questions will be selected from the list below.



1305: Complete information on weather broadcasts throughout the world is contained in __________.

    a. Selected Worldwide Marine Weather Broadcasts
    b. your local newspaper
    c. the Notice to Mariners
    d. the daily weather map
1306: What type of clouds are associated with a cold front?

    a. Altostratus and fracto-cumulus
    b. Altostratus and cirrus
    c. Cirrus and cirrostratus
    d. Cumulus and cumulonimbus
1307: What will be the velocity of the tidal current southwest of Hunts Point, NY, at 0932 EST (ZD +5) on 16 March 1983?

    a. 0.9 knot
    b. 1.5 knots
    c. 1.8 knots
    d. 2.3 knots
1308: On a voyage from Cape Town to London, the favorable ocean current off the coast of Africa is the __________.

    a. Canary Current
    b. Benguela Current
    c. Agulhas Current
    d. South Atlantic Current
1309: When recording the wind direction in the weather log, you would report the __________.

    a. direction the wind is blowing toward
    b. direction the wind is blowing from
    c. duration of the maximum gust of wind
    d. wind chill factor
1310: An urgent marine storm warning message would be broadcast on __________.

    a. 2670 KHz
    b. 156.80 MHz (VHF-FM Ch. 16)
    c. 157.10 MHz (VHF-FM Ch. 22A)
    d. None of the above
1311: What is the characteristic of a quick light?

    a. Shows groups of 2 or more flashes at regular intervals
    b. Durations of light and darkness are equal
    c. Shows not less than 60 flashes per minute
    d. Shows quick flashes for about 5 seconds followed by a 1 second dark period
1312: Which factor(s) is/are used to develop the charted information of a lighthouse?

    a. Height and intensity of the light
    b. Height of the light and the observer
    c. Height of the observer and the intensity of the light
    d. Height of the light only
1313: Variation in a compass is caused by __________.

    a. worn gears in the compass housing
    b. magnetism from the earth's magnetic field
    c. magnetism within the vessel
    d. lack of oil in the compass bearings
1314: The Illustration shows the symbols used on radio facsimile weather charts. Which of these symbols indicates hail? (D042NG )

    a. N
    b. H
    c. Q
    d. F
1315: What is a lighted safe water mark fitted with to aid in its identification?

    a. Red and white retroreflective material
    b. A sequential number
    c. A spherical topmark
    d. A red and white octagon
1316: When a warm air mass overtakes a cold air mass, the contact surface is called a __________.

    a. line squall
    b. water spout
    c. cold front
    d. warm front
1317: What will be the velocity and direction of the tidal current at Mobile River Entrance, AL, at 0915 CDT (ZD +5) on 13 May 1983?

    a. 0.1 knot at 333°T
    b. 0.3 knot at 333°T
    c. 0.7 knot at 151°T
    d. 1.8 knots at 025°T
1318: You are to sail from Elizabethport, N.J., on 17 November 1983 with a maximum draft of 27 feet. You will pass over an obstruction in the channel near Sandy Hook that has a charted depth of 25.5 feet. The steaming time from Elizabethport to the obstruction is 1h 50m. What is the earliest time (ZD +5) you can sail on 17 November and pass over the obstruction with 2 feet of clearance?

    a. 0059
    b. 0121
    c. 0159
    d. 0221
1319: The Sailing Directions (Planning Guide) contain information on all of the following EXCEPT __________.

    a. coastal features
    b. ocean basin environment
    c. ocean routes
    d. military operating areas
1320: You are enroute to Savannah, GA, from Recife, Brazil. There is a strong N'ly wind blowing. As you cross the axis of the Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter __________.

    a. steeper waves, closer together
    b. smoother seas and warmer water
    c. cirrus clouds
    d. long swells
1321: A lighthouse can be identified by its __________.

    a. painted color
    b. light color and phase characteristic
    c. type of structure
    d. All of the above
1322: What will be the velocity of the tidal current at Grant's Tomb, 123rd Street, NY, NY, at 1412 EST (ZD +5) on 22 March 1983?

    a. 0.5 knot
    b. 0.8 knot
    c. 1.1 knots
    d. 1.3 knots
1323: The magnetic compass error which changes with the geographical location of your vessel is called __________.

    a. deviation
    b. variation
    c. compensation
    d. differentiation
1324: When daylight savings time is kept, the time of tide and current calculations must be adjusted. One way of doing this is to __________.

    a. add one hour to the times listed under the reference stations
    b. subtract one hour from the time differences listed for the subordinate stations
    c. apply no correction as the times in the reference stations are adjusted for daylight savings time
    d. add 15° to the standard meridian when calculating the time difference
1325: You change course entering port and steady up on a range with the lights in line. After a few minutes you observe the range lights as shown. You should alter your heading to the __________. (D047NG )

    a. left, and when the range lights are in line again, resume your original heading
    b. right, and when the range lights are in line again, steer to keep them dead ahead
    c. left, and when the range lights are in line again, steer to keep them in line fine on the starboard bow
    d. right, and when the range lights are in line again, steer to keep them in line fine on the port bow
1326: A cloud sequence of cirrus, cirrostratus, and altostratus clouds followed by rain usually signifies the approach of a(n) __________.

    a. occluded front
    b. stationary front
    c. warm front
    d. cold front
1328: What will be the velocity of the tidal current in Bolivar Roads, Texas, at a point 0.5 mile north of Ft. Point, on 23 November 1983 at 0330 CST (ZD +6)?

    a. Slack water
    b. 0.8 kt
    c. 1.2 kts
    d. 3.4 kts
1329: Yesterday your chronometer read 03h 01m 56s at the 1500 GMT time tick. Today your chronometer read 03h 01m 54s at the 1500 GMT time tick. What is the chronometer rate?

    a. 1m 54s fast
    b. 2s fast
    c. -2s
    d. +2s
1330: You are located within a stationary high pressure area. Your aneroid barometer is falling very slowly. This indicates a(n) __________.

    a. wind shift of 180°
    b. large increase in wind velocity
    c. decrease in the pressure of the system
    d. increase in the intensity of the system
1331: When trying to sight a lighthouse you notice a glare from a town in the background. The range at which the light may be sighted due to this glare is __________.

    a. considerably reduced
    b. increased slightly due to extra lighting
    c. unchanged
    d. increased if the light is red or green due to contrast with the glare
1332: The longitude of the upper vertex of a great circle track is 169°E. What is the longitude of the lower vertex?

    a. 076°E
    b. 169°W
    c. 101°W
    d. 011°W
1333: If a magnetic compass is not affected by any magnetic field other than the Earth's, which statement is TRUE?

    a. Compass error and variation are equal.
    b. Compass north will be true north.
    c. Variation will equal deviation.
    d. There will be no compass error.
1333: If a magnetic compass is not affected by any magnetic field other than the Earth's, which statement is TRUE?

    a. Compass error and variation are equal.
    b. Compass north will be true north.
    c. Variation will equal deviation.
    d. There will be no compass error.
1334: The Illustration shows the symbols used on radio facsimile weather charts. The symbol indicated at letter "H" represents __________. (D042NG )

    a. ice
    b. snow
    c. rain
    d. hail
1335: Plain language is usually used on marine weather __________.

    a. forecasts
    b. observations
    c. analyses
    d. reports
1336: On the approach of a warm front, barometric pressure usually __________.

    a. falls
    b. is steady
    c. is uncertain
    d. rises
1337: What will be the time of maximum flood current at Sagamore Bridge on the Cape Cod Canal during the morning of 6 December 1983 (ZD +5)?

    a. 0708
    b. 0712
    c. 0716
    d. 1020
1338: Which type of cloud is indicated by the number 6? (D039NG )

    a. Altocumulus
    b. Stratocumulus
    c. Altostratus
    d. Cirrus
1339: You are on course 303°T. To check the speed of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing?

    a. 000°
    b. 090°
    c. 123°
    d. 213°
1340: The annual change in variation for an area can be found in __________.

    a. the handbook for Magnetic Compass Adjustment, Pub 226
    b. the center of the compass rose on a chart of the area
    c. the compass deviation table
    d. Variation does not change.
1341: The height of a light is measured from which reference plane?

    a. Mean low water
    b. Mean high water
    c. Average water level
    d. Geographical sea level
1342: An occluded front on a weather map is colored __________.

    a. blue line
    b. purple line
    c. dashed blue line
    d. alternate red and blue line
1343: Variation is a compass error that you __________.

    a. can correct by adjusting the compass card
    b. can correct by adjusting the compensating magnets
    c. can correct by changing the vessel's heading
    d. cannot correct
1344: Which of the buoy symbols shown indicates a safe water mark? (D032NG )

    a. D
    b. C
    c. B
    d. A
1345: A large automated navigational buoy, such as those that have replaced some lightships, would be shown on a chart by which symbol in illustration D015NG?

    a. D
    b. C
    c. B
    d. A
1346: Cirrus clouds followed by cirrostratus then altostratus, stratus, and occasionally nimbostratus indicate the approach of a(n) __________.

    a. cold front
    b. warm front
    c. tropical front
    d. occluded front
1347: What will be the velocity of the tidal current south of Doubling Point, ME, at 1357 EST (ZD +5) on 3 April 1983?

    a. 0.9 knot
    b. 1.3 knots
    c. 2.0 knots
    d. 2.6 knots
1348: Vessel required to have an Automatic Radar Plotting Aid must have a device to indicate the __________.

    a. speed of the vessel over the ground or through the water
    b. distance to the next port
    c. time of the next navigational satellite pass
    d. None of the above
1349: The symbols shown are used on radio facsimile weather charts. Which of these symbols indicates a severe squall line? (D042NG )

    a. F
    b. I
    c. G
    d. H
1350: You are running parallel to the coast and plotting running fixes using bearings of the same object. You are making more speed than assumed for the running fix. In relation to the position indicated by the fix you will be __________.

    a. closer to the coast
    b. farther from the coast
    c. on the track line ahead of the fix
    d. on the track line behind the fix
1351: Luminous range is the __________.

    a. maximum distance at which a light may be seen in clear weather
    b. maximum distance at which a light may be seen under existing visibility conditions
    c. maximum distance at which a light may be seen considering the height of the light and the height of the observer
    d. average distance of visibility of the light
1352: Weather observations provided by each weather station include all of the following except __________.

    a. temperature
    b. visibility
    c. predicted weather for the next twelve hours
    d. barometric pressure and change in the last three hours
1353: The difference in degrees between true north and magnetic north is called __________.

    a. variation
    b. deviation
    c. drift
    d. compass error
1354: A ship is in longitude 54°00'W on a true course of 090°. The ship's clocks are on the proper time zone. At what longitude should the clocks be changed to maintain the proper zone time?

    a. 45°00'W
    b. 52°30'W
    c. 60°00'W
    d. 67°30'W
1355: The parallax of the Moon is greatest when the Moon is __________.

    a. in the zenith at perigee
    b. on the horizon at apogee
    c. at its maximum altitude at apogee
    d. on the horizon at perigee
1356: The first indications a mariner will have of the approach of a warm front will be __________.

    a. large cumulonimbus (thunderclouds) building up
    b. high cirrus clouds gradually changing to cirrostratus and then to altostratus
    c. fog caused by the warm air passing over the cooler water
    d. low dark clouds accompanied by intermittent rain
1357: You will transit the Cape Cod Canal on 7 November 1983. If you arrive at the R R Bridge at 1655 EST (ZD +5), for what period of time during your transit will you have currents of not more than 0.5 knot?

    a. 1631 to 1719
    b. 1638 to 1655
    c. 1648 to 1702
    d. 1655 to 1709
1358: Despite weather predictions for continued good weather, a prudent mariner should be alert for all of the following, EXCEPT a sudden __________.

    a. drop in barometric pressure
    b. drop in temperature
    c. wind shift
    d. squall line
1359: The distance in longitude from the intersection of a great circle and the equator to the lower vertex is how many degrees of longitude?

    a. 45°
    b. 90°
    c. 135°
    d. 180°
1360: Which type of cloud is composed entirely of ice crystals and is found at very high altitudes?

    a. Cumulus
    b. Cirrus
    c. Stratus
    d. Nimbostratus
1361: The luminous range of a light takes into account the __________.

    a. glare from background lighting
    b. existing visibility conditions
    c. elevation of the light
    d. observer's height of eye
1362: Which type of cloud is indicated by the number 7 in illustration D039NG? (D039NG )

    a. Cirrostratus
    b. Altocumulus
    c. Cumulus
    d. Cumulonimbus
1363: True heading differs from magnetic heading by __________.

    a. deviation
    b. variation
    c. compass error
    d. northerly error
1364: The Sailing Directions are published in the Enroute format and the __________.

    a. Coastal editions
    b. World Port Index
    c. Pilot format
    d. Planning Guide
1365: The same side of the Moon is always toward the Earth, but more than half of its surface has been seen due to libration. Libration in latitude occurs because __________.

    a. the axis of rotation is tilted about 6.5° to the axis of revolution
    b. the speed of revolution varies, while the rotational speed is essentially constant
    c. of the rotational oscillation of the Moon with respect to its radius vector
    d. of augmentation
1366: Clouds appearing in the following order: cirrus, cirrostratus, altostratus, stratus, and nimbostratus usually indicate the approach of a(n) __________.

    a. warm front
    b. occluded front
    c. medium front
    d. cold front
1367: You want to transit Hell Gate, NY on 23 July 1983. What is the period of time around the AM (ZD +4) slack before ebb when the current will be less than 0.3 knot?

    a. 0939 to 0957
    b. 0943 to 0953
    c. 0844 to 0852
    d. 0348 to 0356
1368: What area of the earth cannot be shown on a standard Mercator chart?

    a. Equator
    b. Areas including both North and South latitudes
    c. North and South Poles
    d. A narrow band along the central meridian.
1369: Which of the following is the most useful factor for predicting weather?

    a. The present reading of the barometer
    b. The previous reading of the barometer
    c. The difference in the barometric readings within the past 24 hours
    d. The rate and direction of change of barometric readings
1370: Which type of cloud is indicated by the number 8? (D039NG )

    a. Cumulonimbus
    b. Altostratus
    c. Cirrostratus
    d. Nimbostratus
1372: You are enroute to Jacksonville, FL, from San Juan, P.R. There is a fresh N'ly wind blowing. As you cross the axis of the Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter __________.

    a. cirrus clouds
    b. long swells
    c. smoother seas and warmer water
    d. steeper waves, closer together
1373: The reaction of a gyrocompass to an applied force is known as __________.

    a. precession
    b. earth rate
    c. gyroscopic inertia
    d. gravity effect
1374: On a working copy of a weather map, a warm front is represented by what color line?

    a. Red
    b. Blue
    c. Alternating red and blue
    d. Purple
1375: The Moon rises earlier on succeeding days when the __________.

    a. retardation effect of the revolution of the Moon is greater than the effect due to change of declination
    b. effect due to change of declination is larger than that due to revolution
    c. the revolution effect and the declination effect act in the same direction
    d. the Moon is on the equator and the revolution effect is at a maximum
1376: What is typical of warm front weather conditions?

    a. An increase in pressure
    b. A wind shift from southwest to northwest
    c. Scattered cumulus clouds
    d. Steady precipitation
1377: What is the velocity of the tidal current at the east end of Pollock Rip Channel at 1700 DST (ZD +4) on 23 July 1983?

    a. 0.6 knot ebbing
    b. 0.8 knot flooding
    c. 1.5 knots flooding
    d. 1.9 knots flooding
1378: The latitude of the upper vertex of a great circle is 36°N. What is the latitude of the lower vertex?

    a. 36°N
    b. 0°
    c. 36°S
    d. Cannot be determined from the information given
1379: The lubber's line on a magnetic compass indicates __________.

    a. compass north
    b. the direction of the vessel's head
    c. magnetic north
    d. a relative bearing taken with an azimuth circle
1380: Which type of weather could you expect soon after seeing "hook" or "comma" shaped cirrus clouds?

    a. Rain with the approach of a warm front
    b. Clearing with the approach of a cold front
    c. Continuing fog and rain
    d. The formation of a tropical depression
1381: Geographic range is the maximum distance at which a light may be seen under __________.

    a. existing visibility conditions, limited only by the curvature of the Earth
    b. perfect visibility conditions, limited only by the curvature of the Earth
    c. existing visibility conditions, limited only by the intensity of the light
    d. perfect visibility conditions, limited only by interference from background lighting
1382: The chart indicates the variation was 3°45'W in 1988, and the annual change is increasing 6'. If you use the chart in 1991 how much variation should you apply?

    a. 3°27'W
    b. 3°27'E
    c. 4°03'W
    d. 4°03'E
1383: The spin axis of a gyroscope tends to remain fixed in space in the direction in which it is started. How does this gyroscope become north seeking so that it can be used as a compass?

    a. By mechanically or electrically applying forces to precess the gyroscope
    b. By starting the compass with the spin axis in a north/south position
    c. By taking advantage of the property of gyroscopic inertia
    d. The rotation of the Earth (Earth rate) automatically aligns the gyroscope with north, except for speed errors
1384: Which type of cloud is indicated by number 9? (D039NG )

    a. Cumulus
    b. Cumulonimbus
    c. Altostratus
    d. Stratocumulus
1385: What is the length of the lunar day?

    a. 24h 50m 00s
    b. 24h 00m 00s
    c. 23h 56m 04s
    d. 23h 03m 56s
1386: The FIRST indications a mariner will have of the approach of a warm front will be __________.

    a. large cumulonimbus clouds building up
    b. low dark clouds with intermittent rain
    c. fog caused by the warm air passing over the cooler water
    d. high clouds gradually followed by lower thicker clouds
1387: You will be entering the Mystic River in Connecticut. What is the current at the Highway Bridge at 1900 EST (ZD +5) on 24 January 1983?

    a. 2.2 knots flooding
    b. Slack water
    c. Slight ebb
    d. 2.5 knots ebbing
1388: If you observe a rapid fall of barometric pressure you should __________.

    a. call the Coast Guard to verify the change
    b. know the barometer is not working properly
    c. contact the NWS or a local radio station
    d. prepare for the onset of stormy weather with strong winds
1389: A boundary between two air masses is a(n) __________.

    a. lapse rate
    b. isobar
    c. front
    d. continent
1390: The fog most commonly encountered at sea is called __________.

    a. conduction fog
    b. radiation fog
    c. frontal fog
    d. advection fog
1391: When a light is first seen on the horizon it will disappear again if the height of eye is immediately lowered several feet. When the eye is raised to its former height the light will again be visible. This process is called __________.

    a. checking a light
    b. raising a light
    c. obscuring a light
    d. bobbing a light
1392: Cumulonimbus clouds are indicated by which number? (D039NG )

    a. 9
    b. 7
    c. 5
    d. 3
1393: The directive force of a gyrocompass __________.

    a. increases with latitude, being maximum at the geographic poles
    b. decreases with latitude, being maximum at the geographic equator
    c. is greatest when a vessel is near the Earth's magnetic equator
    d. remains the same at all latitudes
1394: A great circle crosses the equator at 17°W. It will also cross the equator at what other longitude?

    a. 173°W
    b. 117°W
    c. 163°E
    d. 17°E
1395: The lunar day is __________.

    a. longer than a solar day
    b. shorter than a solar day
    c. the same length as the solar day
    d. longer than a solar day during the summer months and shorter in winter months
1395: The lunar day is __________.

    a. longer than a solar day
    b. shorter than a solar day
    c. the same length as the solar day
    d. longer than a solar day during the summer months and shorter in winter months
1396: On the approach of a warm front the barometric pressure usually __________.

    a. falls
    b. rises
    c. is steady
    d. is unreliable
1397: What will be the velocity of the tidal current at Port Jefferson Harbor Entrance, NY, at 1600 EST (ZD +5) on 23 December 1983?

    a. 0.9 knot
    b. 1.1 knots
    c. 1.6 knots
    d. 2.0 knots
1398: Nimbostratus clouds are indicated by what number in illustration D039NG? (D039NG )

    a. 8
    b. 6
    c. 4
    d. 1
1399: You are bound for Baltimore via Cape Henry on a 15 knot ship. If the flood at Chesapeake Bay entrance begins at 1800 EST (ZD +5), at what time would you depart from the Chesapeake Bay entrance to have the most favorable current?

    a. 1700 hours
    b. 1800 hours
    c. 1900 hours
    d. 2030 hours
1400: Which type of cloud is among the most dependable for giving an indication of an approaching weather system?

    a. Cumulus
    b. Altostratus
    c. Cumulostratus
    d. Nimbus
1401: The maximum distance at which a light may be seen under existing visibility conditions is called __________.

    a. nominal range
    b. luminous range
    c. charted range
    d. geographic range
1402: As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass __________.

    a. first turns to starboard then counterclockwise to port
    b. also turns to starboard
    c. turns counterclockwise to port
    d. remains aligned with compass north
1403: Which statement about the gyrocompass is FALSE?

    a. Its accuracy remains the same at all latitudes.
    b. It seeks the true meridian.
    c. It can be used near the Earth's magnetic poles.
    d. If an error exists, it is the same on all headings.
1404: A great circle will intersect the equator at how many degrees of longitude apart?

    a. 0°
    b. 45°
    c. 90°
    d. 180°
1405: After Venus passes the point of greatest elongation east in its orbit, the first position in which the elongation will be zero is __________.

    a. superior conjunction
    b. inferior conjunction
    c. opposition
    d. None of the above; the elongation will never be zero
1406: What will act to dissipate fog?

    a. Upwelling cold water
    b. Advection of warm air over a colder surface
    c. Rain that is warmer than air
    d. Downslope motion of an air mass along a coast
1408: An occluded front is caused by a(n) __________.

    a. low pressure area
    b. high pressure area
    c. area of calm air
    d. cold front overtaking a warm front
1409: You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at 5.5 knots on course 033°T, and bears 284°T, 43 miles from you. What is the time to intercept if you make 16 knots?

    a. 2h 16m
    b. 2h 22m
    c. 2h 34m
    d. 2h 42m
1410: A white buoy marked with an orange rectangle indicates __________.

    a. a fish net area
    b. general information
    c. an anchorage
    d. mid-channel
1411: The nominal range of a light may be accurately defined as the maximum distance at which a light may be seen __________.

    a. under existing visibility conditions
    b. under perfect visibility
    c. with ten miles visibility
    d. with fifteen miles visibility
1412: The distance between the surface of the water and the tidal datum is the __________.

    a. actual water depth
    b. range of tide
    c. charted depth
    d. height of tide
1413: The gyrocompass error resulting from your vessel's movement in OTHER than an east-west direction is called __________.

    a. damping error
    b. ballistic deflection
    c. quadrantal error
    d. speed error
1414: You are planning a voyage from New York to Norway via the English Channel. Which publication contains information on the dangers to navigation in the English Channel?

    a. Channel Pilot's Guide
    b. World Port Index
    c. Coast Pilot
    d. Sailing Directions (Enroute)
1415: Planetary aberration is due, in part, to __________.

    a. refraction of light as it enters the Earth's atmosphere
    b. rotation of the Earth on it's axis
    c. the body's orbital motion during the time required for its light to reach Earth
    d. a false horizon
1416: Radiation fog __________.

    a. always forms over water
    b. is formed by a temperature inversion
    c. is thinnest at the surface
    d. dissipates during the evening
1417: Determine the first time after 1200 EST (ZD +5) when the velocity of the current will be 0.5 knot on 18 November 1983, at Marcus Hook, PA.

    a. 1221
    b. 1226
    c. 1239
    d. 1312
1418: Static on your AM radio may be __________.

    a. an indication of nearby thunderstorm activity
    b. an indication of "clearing" weather
    c. of no meteorological significance
    d. a sign of strong winds
1419: The MOST important feature of the material used for making the binnacle of a standard magnetic compass is that it is __________.

    a. nonmagnetic
    b. weatherproof
    c. corrosion resistant
    d. capable of being permanently affixed to the vessel
1420: the position labeled "E" was plotted because __________. (D051NG )

    a. the vessel's position was fixed at 1145
    b. a dead reckoning position is plotted within a half-hour of each course change
    c. the position is a running fix
    d. a dead reckoning position is plotted for each speed change
1421: What is the approximate geographic visibility of an object with a height above the water of 70 feet, for an observer with a height of eye of 65 feet?

    a. 16.8 nm
    b. 19.0 nm
    c. 20.6 nm
    d. 22.4 nm
1422: Cumulus clouds are indicated by what number in illustration D039NG? (D039NG )

    a. 3
    b. 5
    c. 6
    d. 7
1423: Quadrantal error in a gyrocompass has its GREATEST effect __________.

    a. in high latitudes
    b. near the equator
    c. on north or south headings
    d. on intercardinal headings
1424: Except for N-S courses, and E-W courses on the equator, a great circle track between two points, when compared to a rhumb line track between the same two points, will __________.

    a. always be nearer to the equator
    b. always be nearer to the elevated pole
    c. be nearer to the pole in the Northern Hemisphere and nearer to the equator in the Southern Hemisphere
    d. be nearer to the pole or the equator depending on the latitudes of the arrival and departure positions
1425: Which is an inferior planet?

    a. Mars
    b. Venus
    c. Neptune
    d. Pluto
1426: Fog is most commonly associated with a(n) __________.

    a. warm front at night
    b. low pressure area
    c. anticyclone
    d. cold front in the spring
1427: Determine the duration of the first PM slack water on 3 March 1983, east of the Statue of Liberty, when the current is less than 0.1 knot?

    a. 10 minutes
    b. 13 minutes
    c. 16 minutes
    d. 19 minutes
1428: The speed of sound in water is approximately __________.

    a. 1.5 times its speed in air
    b. 2.5 times its speed in air
    c. 3.5 times its speed in air
    d. 4.5 times its speed in air
1429: A celestial body will cross the prime vertical circle when the latitude is numerically __________.

    a. greater than the declination and both are of the same name
    b. less than the declination and both are of the same name
    c. greater than the declination and both are of contrary name
    d. less than the declination and both are of contrary name
1430: The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 14 miles and is 42 feet high (12.8 meters). If the visibility is 6 miles and your height of eye is 20 feet (6.1 meters), at what approximate distance will you sight the light?

    a. 20.1 miles
    b. 10.0 miles
    c. 7.6 miles
    d. 6.0 miles
1431: A lighthouse is 120 feet (36.6 meters) high and the light has a nominal range of 18 miles. Your height of eye is 42 feet (12.8). If the visibility is 11 miles, approximately how far off the light will you be when the light becomes visible?

    a. 12.5 miles
    b. 16.0 miles
    c. 19.0 miles
    d. 23.5 miles
1432: What benefit is a weather bulletin to a mariner?

    a. It provides a legal reason to cancel a projected voyage.
    b. It allows the mariner to make long term weather forecasts.
    c. It is of little benefit since the weather changes frequently and rapidly.
    d. It gives the mariner time to prepare for weather changes.
1433: A system of reservoirs and connecting tubes in a gyro compass is called a __________.

    a. spider element
    b. mercury ballistic
    c. gyrotron
    d. rotor
1434: What is NOT a characteristic of cardinal marks?

    a. Yellow and black bands
    b. White lights
    c. Square or triangular topmarks
    d. Directional orientation to a hazard
1435: Inferior conjunction is possible for __________.

    a. Mars
    b. Venus
    c. Saturn
    d. Jupiter
1436: Fog forms when the air __________.

    a. is 50% water saturated
    b. is 90% water saturated
    c. temperature is greater than the dew point temperature
    d. temperature is equal to, or below the dew point temperature
1437: Determine the time after 0300 CST (ZD +6) when the velocity of the tidal current will be 0.5 knot on 16 April 1983, at Port Arthur Canal Entrance, TX.

    a. 0436
    b. 0507
    c. 0538
    d. 0554
1438: In the Northern Hemisphere you are caught in the dangerous semicircle of a storm with plenty of sea room available. The best course of action is to bring the wind on the __________.

    a. port quarter and make as much headway as possible
    b. starboard quarter and make as much headway as possible
    c. starboard bow and make as much headway as possible
    d. port bow and make as much headway as possible
1439: The symbols shown are used on radio facsimile weather charts. The symbol indicated at letter "G" represents a __________. (D042NG )

    a. weather boundary
    b. thunderstorm
    c. wide spread sandstorm
    d. severe, line squall
1440: A mercurial barometer at sea is subject to rapid variations in height ("pumping") due to the pitch and roll of the vessel. To avoid this error, measurements of atmospheric pressure at sea are usually measured with a(n) __________.

    a. syphon barometer
    b. cistern barometer
    c. aneroid barometer
    d. fortin barometer
1441: Your height of eye is 40 feet (12.2 meters). What is the approximate geographical distance at which Ambrose Light, NY, could be visible? Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST PILOTS".

    a. 18.3 nm
    b. 19.5 nm
    c. 21.0 nm
    d. 22.8 nm
1442: A great circle track provides the maximum saving in distance on __________.

    a. easterly courses in high latitudes
    b. southerly courses in high latitudes
    c. westerly courses in low latitudes
    d. easterly courses in low latitudes that cross the equator
1443: At the master gyrocompass, the compass card is attached to the __________.

    a. spider element
    b. sensitive element
    c. link arm
    d. pickup transformer
1444: Stratocumulus clouds are indicated by which number? (D039NG )

    a. 1
    b. 4
    c. 6
    d. 7
1445: The planet Mars will have its greatest magnitude when at __________.

    a. conjunction
    b. opposition
    c. east quadrature
    d. west quadrature
1446: When compared to air temperature, which factor is most useful in predicting fog?

    a. Vapor pressure
    b. Dew point
    c. Barometric pressure
    d. Absolute humidity
1447: What will be the velocity of the tidal current 6 miles south of Shoal Point, NY, at 1850 DST (ZD +4) on 9 July 1983?

    a. 0.2 knot ebb
    b. 0.2 knot flood
    c. 1.2 knot ebb
    d. 1.4 knot flood
1448: Spring tides occur when the __________.

    a. Moon is in its first quarter or third quarter phase
    b. Sun and Moon are in quadrature
    c. Moon's declination is maximum and opposite to that of the Sun
    d. Moon is new or full
1449: The presence of stratus clouds and a dying wind will usually result in __________.

    a. heavy rain
    b. heavy snow
    c. thick fog
    d. clearing skies
1450: The distance between the surface of the water and the tidal datum is the __________.

    a. range of tide
    b. charted depth
    c. height of tide
    d. actual water depth
1450: The distance between the surface of the water and the tidal datum is the __________.

    a. range of tide
    b. charted depth
    c. height of tide
    d. actual water depth
1452: When is the rhumb line distance the same as the great circle distance?

    a. Course 090°T in high latitudes
    b. Course 180°T when you cross the equator
    c. Course 045°T in low latitudes
    d. The rhumb line distance is always longer than the great circle distance.
1453: Indications of the master gyrocompass are sent to remote repeaters by the __________.

    a. follow-up system
    b. transmitter
    c. phantom element
    d. azimuth motor
1454: Atmospheric pressure may be measured with a(n) __________.

    a. barograph
    b. aneroid barometer
    c. mercurial barometer
    d. All of the above
1455: Inferior conjunction is possible for __________.

    a. Mercury
    b. Saturn
    c. Mars
    d. Jupiter
1456: The fog produced by warm moist air passing over a cold surface is called __________.

    a. conduction fog
    b. radiation fog
    c. frontal fog
    d. advection fog
1457: What is the period of time from around 1008 DST (ZD +4) at Canapitsit Channel, MA, on 7 August 1983, in which the current does not exceed 0.4 knot?

    a. 0945 to 1031
    b. 0950 to 1026
    c. 0955 to 1021
    d. 1000 to 1024
1458: When navigating coastwise and hurricane warnings are received, you should __________.

    a. call the Coast Guard to request further information
    b. call the NWS for further information
    c. just begin to react and make plans
    d. have battened down and be heading for the nearest port of refuge
1459: In a tropical cyclone, in the Northern Hemisphere, a vessel hove to with the wind shifting counterclockwise is __________.

    a. ahead of the storm center
    b. in the dangerous semicircle
    c. in the navigable semicircle
    d. directly in the approach path of the storm
1460: What is the major advantage of a rhumb line track?

    a. The vessel can steam on a constant heading (disregarding wind, current, etc.).
    b. The rhumb line is the shortest distance between the arrival and departure points.
    c. It is easily plotted on a gnomonic chart for comparison with a great circle course.
    d. It approximates a great circle on east-west courses in high latitudes.
1461: The chart indicates the variation was 3°45'W in 1988, and the annual change is decreasing 6'. If you use the chart in 1991 how much variation should you apply?

    a. 3°27'W
    b. 3°27'E
    c. 4°03'W
    d. 4°03'E
1462: Altocumulus clouds are indicated by which number? (D039NG )

    a. 1
    b. 3
    c. 4
    d. 5
1463: If the gyrocompass error is east, what describes the error and the correction to be made to gyrocompass headings to obtain true headings?

    a. The readings are too low (small numerically) and the amount of the error must be added to the compass to obtain true
    b. The readings are too low and the amount of the error must be subtracted from the compass to obtain true
    c. The readings are too high (large numerically) and the amount of the error must be added to the compass to obtain true
    d. The readings are too high and the amount of the error must be subtracted from the compass to obtain true
1464: A line of position derived from a loran reading is a section of a(n) __________.

    a. straight line
    b. arc
    c. parabola
    d. hyperbola
1465: The planet Venus can be observed in the morning before sunrise if it is well to the __________.

    a. west of and higher than the Sun
    b. west of and lower than the Sun
    c. east of and higher than the Sun
    d. east of and lower than the Sun
1466: Advection fog is most commonly caused by __________.

    a. air being warmed above the dew point
    b. saturation of cold air by rain
    c. a rapid cooling of the air near the surface of the Earth at night
    d. warm moist air being blown over a colder surface
1467: Determine the time after 0730 EST (ZD +5) when the velocity of the current will be 2.1 knots on 26 March 1983, at Fort Pulaski, GA.

    a. 0802
    b. 0812
    c. 0821
    d. 0840
1468: What is NOT an advantage of the rhumb line track over a great circle track?

    a. Easily plotted on a Mercator chart
    b. Negligible increase in distance on east-west courses near the equator
    c. Does not require constant course changes
    d. Plots as a straight line on Lambert conformal charts
1469: The charted channel depth at Eastport, ME, is 28 feet. You are drawing 31.5 feet and wish 2 feet clearance under the keel. What is the earliest time after 1700 (ZD +4) on 6 September 1983 that you can enter the channel?

    a. 1825
    b. 1903
    c. 1915
    d. 2003
1470: The Illustration shows the symbols used on radio facsimile weather charts. Which symbol indicates a hurricane? (D042NG )

    a. M
    b. I
    c. L
    d. K
1471: A mountain peak charted at 700 feet breaks the horizon, and your height of eye is 12 feet. What is your approximate distance off (choose closest answer)?

    a. 34.7 nm
    b. 40.3 nm
    c. 55.3 nm
    d. 61.6 nm
1473: Which statement about gyrocompass error is TRUE?

    a. The amount of the error and the sign will generally be the same on all headings.
    b. The sign (E or W) of the error will change with different headings of the ship.
    c. Any error will remain constant unless the compass is stopped and restarted.
    d. Any error shown by a gyro repeater will be the same as the error of the master compass.
1474: You are on course 061°T. To check the longitude of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing?

    a. 090°
    b. 180°
    c. 241°
    d. 061°
1475: Which type of cloud is the classic "thunderhead"?

    a. Cumulonimbus
    b. Stratus
    c. Cirrus
    d. Altostratus
1476: When warm moist air blows over a colder surface and is cooled below its dew point, the result is __________.

    a. radiation fog
    b. ice fog
    c. advection fog
    d. frost smoke
1477: The wind in the vicinity of Nantucket Shoals Light has been southerly at an average speed of 23 knots. The predicted set and drift of the rotary tidal current are 225° at 0.8 knot. What are the set and drift of the current you can expect at Nantucket Shoals Light?

    a. 025° at 1.8 knots
    b. 218° at 1.1 knots
    c. 235° at 0.5 knot
    d. 247° at 0.7 knot
1478: Altostratus clouds are indicated by which number? (D039NG )

    a. 1
    b. 4
    c. 7
    d. 8
1479: A microbarograph is a precision instrument that provides a __________.

    a. charted record of atmospheric temperature over time
    b. charted record of atmospheric pressure over time
    c. graphic record of combustible gases measured in an atmosphere
    d. graphic record of vapor pressure from a flammable/combustible liquid
1480: What is the definition of height of tide?

    a. The vertical difference between the heights of low and high water
    b. The vertical difference between a datum plane and the ocean bottom
    c. The vertical distance from the surface of the water to the ocean floor
    d. The vertical distance from the tidal datum to the level of the water at any time
1481: What is the approximate geographic range of Fenwick Island Light, Delaware, if your height of eye is 42 feet (12.8 meters)? Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST PILOTS".

    a. 18.3 nm
    b. 15.4 nm
    c. 13.1 nm
    d. 10.3 nm
1482: Which statement concerning current is TRUE?

    a. Current can be determined by measuring the direction and distance between simultaneous EP and DR positions.
    b. The drift of the current should be averaged out on a one hour basis.
    c. After the current is determined, it should not be used for further plotting because it is an unknown variable.
    d. The distance between a simultaneous DR position and fix is equal to the drift of the current.
1483: The most accurate method of determining gyrocompass error while underway is by __________.

    a. comparing the gyro azimuth of a celestial body with the computed azimuth of the body
    b. comparing the gyro heading with the magnetic compass heading
    c. determining from the chart the course made good between celestial fixes
    d. It cannot be determined accurately at sea due to drift of unknown currents.
1484: You should plot your dead reckoning position at __________.

    a. every fix or running fix
    b. every course change
    c. every speed change
    d. All of the above are correct.
1485: The safest and most prudent procedure to follow while navigating in the vicinity of a tropical cyclone is to __________.

    a. take positive steps to avoid it if possible
    b. batten down and prepare to ride out the storm
    c. continue to navigate farther from the coast
    d. always navigate towards the coast by the most direct route
1486: Which condition would most likely result in fog?

    a. Warm moist air blowing over cold water
    b. Airborne dust particles
    c. Warm moist air blowing over warm water
    d. Dew point falling below the air temperature
1487: At the approaches to Savannah, GA, with the wind coming out of the west, the wind-driven current will be flowing approximately __________.

    a. 080°
    b. 100°
    c. 260°
    d. 280°
1488: What defines a great circle?

    a. A curved line drawn on a Mercator Chart
    b. A course line that inscribes a loxodromic curve
    c. The shortest distance between any two points on the earth
    d. The smallest circle that can be drawn on the face of a sphere
1489: Cumulonimbus clouds can produce __________.

    a. dense fog and high humidity
    b. gusty winds, thunder, rain or hail, and lightning
    c. clear skies with the approach of a cold front
    d. a rapid drop in barometric pressure followed by darkness
1490: In the IALA Buoyage System, preferred-channel-to-port or preferred-channel-to-starboard buoys, when fitted with lights, will show a __________.

    a. quick flashing light
    b. long flashing light
    c. composite group flashing (2 + 1) light
    d. group flashing
1491: You are on course 138°T. To check the latitude of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing?

    a. 138°
    b. 270°
    c. 318°
    d. 000°
1492: You are planning a voyage from San Francisco to Japan. Which publication contains information on the ocean routes?

    a. Coast Pilot
    b. Sailing Directions (Planning Guide)
    c. Sailing Directions (Enroute)
    d. World Port Index
1493: You are running parallel to the coast and estimate that the current is against you. In plotting a running fix using bearings from the same object on the coast, the greatest safety margin from inshore dangers will result if what speed is used to determine the fix?

    a. Minimum speed estimate
    b. Maximum speed estimate
    c. Average speed estimate
    d. A running fix should not be used under these conditions.
1494: Cirrocumulus clouds are indicated by which number? (D039NG )

    a. 7
    b. 5
    c. 3
    d. 1
1495: A great circle crosses the equator at 157°W. It will also cross the equator at what other longitude?

    a. 157°E
    b. 57°E
    c. 23°E
    d. 57°W
1496: In a microbarograph, the pen should be checked and the inkwell filled __________.

    a. each time the chart is changed
    b. once per month
    c. once per week
    d. daily
1497: When drawing a weather map and an isobar crosses a front, the isobar is drawn __________.

    a. perpendicular to the front
    b. kinked and pointing away from the low
    c. kinked and pointing towards the low
    d. kinked and pointing towards the high for a warm front only
1498: A true bearing of a charted object, when plotted on a chart, will establish a __________.

    a. fix
    b. line of position
    c. relative bearing
    d. range
1499: You are scanning the radar screen for a buoy fitted with racon. How should this signal appear on the PPI display?

    a. Starting with a dash and extending radially outward from the target
    b. As a broken line from center of PPI to the target
    c. Starting with a dot and extending radially inward from the target
    d. Starting with a dash and extending to the right of the target
1500: In what order should the following sextant adjustments be made? I. Make telescope parallel to frame of sextant. II. Set horizon glass perpendicular to frame of sextant. III. Make index mirror and horizon glass parallel when index arm is set at zero. IV. Set index mirror perpendicular to frame of sextant.

    a. I, II, III, IV
    b. I, IV, II, III
    c. III, II, IV, I
    d. IV, II, III, I
1500: In what order should the following sextant adjustments be made? I. Make telescope parallel to frame of sextant. II. Set horizon glass perpendicular to frame of sextant. III. Make index mirror and horizon glass parallel when index arm is set at zero. IV. Set index mirror perpendicular to frame of sextant.

    a. I, II, III, IV
    b. I, IV, II, III
    c. III, II, IV, I
    d. IV, II, III, I
1501: What is the distance from the bottom of a wave trough to the top of a wave crest?

    a. Wave length
    b. Wave height
    c. Wave breadth
    d. Wave depth
1502: You are running parallel to the coast and take a running fix using bearings of the same object. If you are making less speed than used for the running fix, in relation to the position indicated by the fix, you will be __________.

    a. closer to the coast
    b. farther from the coast
    c. on the track line ahead of the fix
    d. on the track line behind the fix
1503: A radar range to a small, charted object such as a light will provide a line of position in which form?

    a. Straight line
    b. Arc
    c. Parabola
    d. Hyperbola
1503: A radar range to a small, charted object such as a light will provide a line of position in which form?

    a. Straight line
    b. Arc
    c. Parabola
    d. Hyperbola
1504: The time meridian used when computing the height of tide for Pensacola Bay, FL, is __________.

    a. 75°00'W
    b. 82°30'W
    c. 90°00'W
    d. 97°30'W
1505: At 0000 you fix your position and change course to 090°T. At 0030 you again fix your position and it is 0.5 mile east of your DR. Which statement is TRUE?

    a. The current is easterly.
    b. The drift is 0.5 knot.
    c. You should alter course to the right to regain the track line.
    d. The current is perpendicular to your track line.
1506: You are steaming southward along the west coast of the United States when you sight a buoy showing a flashing green light. How should you pass this buoy?

    a. Leave it to your port.
    b. Leave it to your starboard.
    c. Pass it close aboard on either side.
    d. Pass it on either side but well clear of it.
1506: You are steaming southward along the west coast of the United States when you sight a buoy showing a flashing green light. How should you pass this buoy?

    a. Leave it to your port.
    b. Leave it to your starboard.
    c. Pass it close aboard on either side.
    d. Pass it on either side but well clear of it.
1507: When you are steering on a pair of range lights and find the upper light is above the lower light you should __________.

    a. come right
    b. come left
    c. wait until the lights are no longer in a vertical line
    d. continue on the present course
1508: A line of position is __________.

    a. a line connecting two charted objects
    b. a line on some point of which the vessel may be presumed to be located
    c. the position of your vessel
    d. not used in a running fix
1508: A line of position is __________.

    a. a line connecting two charted objects
    b. a line on some point of which the vessel may be presumed to be located
    c. the position of your vessel
    d. not used in a running fix
1509: Your facsimile prognostic chart indicates that you will cross the cold front of a low pressure system in about 24 hours. You should __________.

    a. expect to see cirrus clouds followed by altostratus and nimbostratus clouds
    b. alter course to remain in the navigable semicircle
    c. prepare for gusty winds, thunderstorms, and a sudden wind shift
    d. expect clear weather, with steady winds and pressure, until the front passes
1510: During daylight savings time the meridian used for determining the time is located farther __________.

    a. west
    b. east
    c. east in west longitude and west in east longitude
    d. west in west longitude and east in east longitude
1511: When within 300 miles of a named tropical storm or hurricane, it is standard practice to send weather reports every __________.

    a. 8 hours
    b. 6 hours
    c. 3 hours
    d. hour
1512: You are plotting a running fix. The LOP to be run forward is an arc from a radar range, what technique should be used?

    a. The arc should be converted into a straight line using offsets and then run forward.
    b. An arc should never be run forward.
    c. The position of the object observed should be advanced to the new time and a new arc swung using the radius of the old arc.
    d. The distance between LOP's should be added to the radar range and a new arc swung.
1513: Scales on aneroid barometers are usually graduated in inches of mercury in the general range of __________.

    a. 26 to 29 inches
    b. 28 to 31 inches
    c. 30 to 33 inches
    d. 32 to 35 inches
1514: The compass error of a magnetic compass that has no deviation is __________.

    a. zero
    b. equal to variation
    c. eliminated by adjusting the compass
    d. constant at any geographical location
1515: An aneroid barometer on a boat should always be __________.

    a. located in an air-conditioned area
    b. mounted in the passenger compartment
    c. protected by a collision bulkhead
    d. permanently mounted
1516: Which correction(s) must be applied to an aneroid barometer?

    a. Instrument error and height error
    b. Instrument error only
    c. Height error only
    d. Instrument error and latitude correction
1517: When determining compass error by an azimuth of Polaris, you enter the Nautical Almanac with the __________.

    a. GHA Aries
    b. LHA Aries
    c. LHA Polaris
    d. GHA Polaris
1518: Which publication requires infrequent corrections?

    a. List of Lights
    b. Coast Pilot
    c. Sailing Directions (Planning Guide)
    d. Radio Navigational Aids
1519: You are preparing a weather report form, WS Form B-80. Your position is LAT 10°38'S, LONG 00°14'E. How would this be encoded? (D041NG )

    a. LAT 10.6°S, LONG 00.2°E
    b. L106S, 30002
    c. 10385, 0014E
    d. 99106, 30002
1520: The diurnal inequality of the tides is caused by __________.

    a. the declination of the Moon
    b. changing weather conditions
    c. the Moon being at apogee
    d. the Moon being at perigee
1521: To avoid error you should read the scale of an aneroid barometer with your eye placed __________.

    a. to the right of the pointer
    b. to the left of the pointer
    c. directly in front of the pointer
    d. slightly above the meniscus
1522: The pressure-sensitive element of an aneroid barometer is called a __________.

    a. pressure bellows
    b. sylphon cell
    c. column of mercury
    d. constant pressure capsule
1523: Which is a characteristic of the weather preceding an approaching warm front?

    a. Gusty winds
    b. Steadily falling barometric pressure
    c. Decreasing relative humidity
    d. Clearing skies
1524: A barometric pressure reading of 29.92 inches of mercury is equivalent to __________.

    a. 1013.25 millibars
    b. 29.92 feet of water
    c. 766 millimeters of mercury
    d. 76 centimeters of water
1526: A single barometric pressure reading of 28.60 indicates __________.

    a. rapidly improving weather
    b. deteriorating weather
    c. a severe low pressure system
    d. fair weather and calm
1527: Your vessel is on course 270°T, speed 10 knots. The apparent wind is from 10° off the port bow, speed 30 knots. From which direction is the true wind?

    a. 345°T
    b. 255°T
    c. 165°T
    d. 075°T
1528: Cirrostratus clouds are indicated by which number? (D039NG )

    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 8
    d. 9
1529: Widely spaced isobars on a weather map indicate __________.

    a. high winds
    b. gentle breezes
    c. ice, snow or frozen rain
    d. probability of tornados
1530: In shallow water, waves that are too steep to be stable, causing the crests to move forward faster than the rest of the wave, are called __________.

    a. rollers
    b. breakers
    c. white caps
    d. surfers
1532: The position labeled "E" was plotted because __________. (D051NG )

    a. a dead reckoning position is plotted for each speed change
    b. a dead reckoning position is plotted within a half-hour of each course change
    c. the position is a running fix
    d. the vessel's position was fixed at 1145
1533: Lighted information markers show __________.

    a. white lights
    b. green lights
    c. yellow lights
    d. red lights
1534: You are preparing a weather report form, WS Form B-80. Your position is LAT 22°31'S, LONG 138°19'W. How would this be encoded? (D041NG )

    a. LAT 22.5°S, LONG 138.3°W
    b. 99225, 51383
    c. L2231, 53819
    d. 2231S, 5383W
1535: When observing a rapid rise in barometric pressure, you may expect __________.

    a. clear weather with no wind, but the possibility of rain or snow within 24 hours
    b. deteriorating weather with rain or snow
    c. heavy rain or severe thundershowers
    d. clearing weather, possibly accompanied by high winds
1536: What will NOT induce errors into a Doppler sonar log?

    a. Increased draft
    b. Pitch
    c. Roll
    d. Change in trim
1537: Which sextant in illustration D043NG reads 29°47.5'? (D043NG )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
1538: The winds of the "roaring forties" are strongest near __________.

    a. 40°N
    b. 50°N
    c. 40°S
    d. 50°S
1539: You are steaming in the open ocean of the North Pacific between the Aleutian Chain and Hawaii. A warning broadcast indicates that an earthquake has occurred in the Aleutians and has generated a tsunami that is predicted to hit Hawaii. What action is necessary for the ship's safety?

    a. Calculate the tsunami's ETA at your position and turn to a course that will head into the Tsunami.
    b. Securely stow all loose gear, check deck lashings, and prepare for extreme rolls.
    c. No special action as tsunamis are inconspicuous in the open ocean
    d. Prepare for sudden, high-velocity wind gusts from rapidly changing directions.
1540: You are sailing south on the Intracoastal Waterway (ICW) when you sight a green can buoy with a yellow square painted on it. Which of the following is TRUE?

    a. You should pass the buoy close aboard on either side.
    b. The buoy marks the end of the ICW in that area.
    c. You should leave the buoy to port.
    d. The yellow square is retroreflective material used to assist in sighting the buoy at night.
1541: You are preparing a weather report form, WS Form B-80. Your position is LAT 49°35'N, LONG 162°49'E. How would this be encoded? (D041NG )

    a. 99496, 11628
    b. 94935, 96249
    c. L4935, 16249
    d. L496N, 1628E
1542: To find a magnetic course from a true course you must apply __________.

    a. magnetic anomalies (local disturbances)
    b. deviation
    c. variation
    d. deviation and variation
1543: The distance between the surface of the water and the tidal datum is the __________.

    a. height of tide
    b. charted depth
    c. actual water depth
    d. range of tide
1544: The height of a tide can be increased by __________.

    a. a storm surge
    b. a high pressure area
    c. the jet stream
    d. a cold front
1545: The change in the length of day becomes greater as latitude increases because of the __________.

    a. inclination of the diurnal circle to the equator
    b. decreasing distance between the terrestrial meridians
    c. increased obliquity of the celestial sphere
    d. changing distance between the earth and the sun
1546: You are sailing south on the Intracoastal Waterway (ICW) when you sight a red nun buoy with a yellow triangle painted on it. Which statement is TRUE?

    a. Geometric symbols such as squares and triangles replace letters and numbers on ICW aids to navigation.
    b. The ICW and another waterway coincide in this geographical area.
    c. The yellow triangle identifies a sharp turn (over 60°) in the channel.
    d. This is an information or regulatory buoy that also has lateral significance.
1547: Which light combination does NOT indicate a navigational channel passing under a fixed bridge?

    a. Red lights on the LDB and green lights on the RDB
    b. Three white lights in a vertical line
    c. Two green lights in a range under the span
    d. A fixed red light on each pier at the channel edge
1548: The Illustration shows the symbols used on radio facsimile weather charts. The symbol indicated at letter "K" represents a __________. (D042NG )

    a. hurricane
    b. thunderstorm
    c. convergence zone
    d. convergence line
1550: Cirrus clouds are indicated by which number? (D039NG )

    a. 1
    b. 4
    c. 5
    d. 7
1551: In order to get the maximum benefit from the Gulf Stream, on a voyage between Houston and Philadelphia, you should navigate __________.

    a. about 75 miles east of Ormond Beach, FL
    b. close inshore between Jupiter Inlet and Fowey Rocks, FL
    c. along the 50-fathom curve while off the east coast of Florida
    d. about 10 miles east of Cape Canaveral, FL
1552: Which sextant in illustration D043NG reads 30°42.5'? (D043NG )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
1554: A slow rise in the barometric pressure forecasts __________.

    a. rainy weather for the next 48 hours
    b. high seas
    c. improving weather conditions
    d. deteriorating weather conditions
1555: Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System, a yellow buoy is a __________.

    a. safe water buoy
    b. junction buoy
    c. cardinal mark
    d. special purpose mark
1556: The vertical distance from the tidal datum to the level of the water is the __________.

    a. range of tide
    b. charted depth
    c. height of tide
    d. actual water depth
1557: A Doppler log in the volume reverberation mode indicates __________.

    a. speed being made good
    b. speed through the water
    c. the set of the current
    d. the depth of the water
1558: As a high pressure system approaches, the barometer reading __________.

    a. stays the same
    b. falls
    c. rises
    d. falls rapidly
1559: You are underway in the North Sea on course 216°T when you sight a buoy bearing 021° relative. Under the IALA Buoyage System, you are in the best navigable water if the buoy __________.

    a. has a light characteristic of Q(6) + L Fl 15s
    b. is horizontally banded yellow, black, yellow
    c. has a double cone topmark with both points up
    d. has a continuous very quick light
1560: Under the IALA-A and B Buoyage Systems, a buoy with alternating red and white vertical stripes indicates __________.

    a. that there is navigable water all around
    b. an isolated danger exists
    c. that the preferred channel is to port
    d. that the preferred channel is to starboard
1561: You are sailing south on the Intracoastal Waterway (ICW) when you sight a red nun buoy with a yellow square painted on it. Which statement is TRUE?

    a. The buoy is off station and should be ignored as a navigational mark.
    b. The waterway in that area has shoaled and the available depth of water is less than the project depth.
    c. ICW traffic should not proceed beyond the buoy unless the crossing waterway is clear of all traffic.
    d. You should leave the buoy to port.
1563: Neap tides occur only __________.

    a. at a new or full Moon
    b. when the Sun, Moon, and Earth are in line
    c. at approximately 28-day intervals
    d. when the Moon is at quadrature
1564: What is a characteristic of cardinal marks?

    a. Light rhythms indicating directional orientation
    b. Vertical stripes
    c. Square or triangular topmarks
    d. Number-letter combinations for identification
1565: Determine the approximate geographic visibility of an object, with a height above the water of 85 feet (25.9 meters), for an observer with a height of eye of 60 feet (18.3 meters).

    a. 18.4 nm
    b. 19.9 nm
    c. 20.8 nm
    d. 21.5 nm
1566: The illustration shows the symbols used on radio facsimile weather charts. Which of these symbols indicates thunderstorms? (D042NG )

    a. I
    b. K
    c. L
    d. M
1567: Buoys and day beacons exhibiting a yellow triangle or square painted on them are used __________.

    a. in minor harbors where the controlling depth is 10 feet (3 meters) or less
    b. on isolated stretches of the ICW to mark undredged areas
    c. where the ICW and other waterways coincide
    d. at particularly hazardous turns of the channel
1568: You are approaching a vertical lift bridge. You know the span is fully open when __________.

    a. three white lights in a vertical line are lit
    b. a red light starts to flash at about 60 times a minute
    c. a yellow light is illuminated on the bridge pier
    d. there is a range of green lights under the lift span
1569: Three or four feet of the total height of a storm surge in a hurricane can be attributed to __________.

    a. an increase in temperature
    b. an increase in the wave period
    c. the wind velocity
    d. the decrease in atmospheric pressure
1570: The navigational triangle uses parts of two systems of coordinates, one of which is the horizon system and the other is the __________.

    a. terrestrial system
    b. astronautical system
    c. celestial equator system
    d. ecliptic system
1571: Which sextant in illustration D043NG reads 29°42.7'? (D043NG )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
1572: Generally speaking, in the Northern Hemisphere, when winds are blowing from between SE and SW the barometric reading __________.

    a. makes no change at all
    b. is somewhat lower than it would be for winds from a northern quadrant
    c. is uncertain and may fluctuate by increasing and decreasing
    d. is somewhat higher than it would be for winds from the northern quadrant
1574: Information about currents around Pacific Coast ports of the U.S. is found in the __________.

    a. Nautical Almanac
    b. Tide Tables
    c. Tidal Current Tables
    d. Ocean Current Tables
1576: You are entering an east coast port and see a buoy with a yellow triangle painted on it. This indicates __________.

    a. you are in the vicinity of the ICW
    b. the buoy is a special mark
    c. the buoy is off station
    d. the buoy designates a sharp turn in the channel
1577: Yesterday your chronometer read 11h 59m 59s at 1200 GMT time tick. Today the chronometer reads 12h 00m 01s at the 1200 GMT tick. What is the chronometer rate?

    a. -1s
    b. +1s
    c. -2s
    d. +2s
1578: The LMT of sunrise on the standard meridian is 0552. Your longitude is 99°15'E. What is your ZT of sunrise?

    a. 0512
    b. 0529
    c. 0552
    d. 0615
1579: You get underway from the oil terminal at Marcus Hook, PA, at 0815 ZT (ZD +5) on 20 February 1983, enroute to sea. You will be turning for 11 knots. What is the approximate current when you are abreast Reedy Island?

    a. Slack
    b. 2.0 knots ebbing
    c. 1.5 knots flooding
    d. 0.5 knot flooding
1581: Shown are the symbols used on radio facsimile weather charts. The symbol indicated at letter "I" represents __________. (D042NG )

    a. rain showers
    b. thunderstorms
    c. snow storms
    d. sand storms
1582: Sextant C in illustration D043NG reads __________. (D043NG )

    a. 30°45.9'
    b. 29°56.0'
    c. 29°52.0'
    d. 29°47.5'
1583: The angle measured from the observer's meridian, clockwise or counterclockwise up to 180°, to the vertical circle of the body is the __________.

    a. local hour angle
    b. azimuth angle
    c. meridian angle
    d. observer's longitude
1584: A decrease in barometric pressure is associated with all of the following except __________.

    a. rising warm air
    b. proximity to a low pressure area
    c. inward spiraling circulation
    d. clear dry weather
1585: The sidereal day begins when the __________.

    a. first point of Aries is over the upper branch of the reference meridian
    b. Sun is over the lower branch of the reference meridian
    c. Sun is over the upper branch of the reference meridian
    d. first point of Aries is over the lower branch of the reference meridian
1586: A green buoy has a yellow triangle on it. This is a(n) __________.

    a. information or regulatory buoy that has lateral significance
    b. buoy that is off-station and is marked to warn mariners of its wrong position
    c. dual purpose marking used where the ICW and other waterways coincide
    d. buoy that was set in error and will be replaced with a red nun buoy
1587: In general, the most effective period for observing stars and planets occurs during the darker limit of __________.

    a. sunset
    b. civil twilight
    c. nautical twilight
    d. astronomical twilight
1588: The letter D in illustration D006NG represents the __________.

    a. geometrical horizon
    b. geoidal horizon
    c. celestial horizon
    d. visible horizon
1589: You are enroute to Savannah, GA, from Recife, Brazil. There is a strong N'ly wind blowing. As you cross the axis of the Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter __________.

    a. smoother seas and warmer water
    b. steeper waves, closer together
    c. long swells
    d. cirrus clouds
1590: Civil twilight starts at 1812 zone time on 26 August 1981, Your DR position at that time is LAT 21°06'S, LONG 14°56' W. Which statement concerning the planets available for evening sights is TRUE?

    a. Mars will be near the prime vertical in the eastern sky.
    b. Venus may be identified from Saturn and Jupiter because it is the brightest.
    c. Sights of Venus, Jupiter, and Saturn will yield a good three line fix.
    d. A sight of either Jupiter, Saturn, or Venus will give a latitude line.
1592: A white buoy marked with an orange rectangle indicates __________.

    a. an anchorage
    b. a fish net area
    c. mid-channel
    d. general information
1593: Apparent altitude is sextant altitude corrected for __________.

    a. parallax and personal error
    b. inaccuracies in the reading and reference level
    c. visibility and magnitude
    d. All of the above are correct
1594: The Illustration shows the symbols used on radio facsimile weather charts. The symbol indicated at letter "P" represents __________. (D042NG )

    a. snow
    b. hail
    c. freezing rain
    d. sleet
1595: The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 8 miles and is 48 feet(14.6 meters) high. If the visibility is 6 miles and your height of eye is 35 feet(10.7 meters), at what approximate distance will you sight the light?

    a. 15.0 nm
    b. 12.4 nm
    c. 8.0 nm
    d. 5.9 nm
1596: You are sailing south on the Intracoastal Waterway (ICW) when you sight a red nun buoy with a yellow square painted on it. Which of the following is TRUE?

    a. You should leave the buoy on your port hand.
    b. This buoy marks the end of the ICW in that geographic area.
    c. The yellow is retroreflective material used to assist in sighting the buoy at night.
    d. The yellow square is in error and it should be a yellow triangle.
1597: The dense black cumulonimbus clouds surrounding the eye of a hurricane are called __________.

    a. spiral rainbands
    b. cloud walls
    c. funnel clouds
    d. cyclonic spirals
1598: A slow, gradual fall of the barometer indicates approaching __________.

    a. gale force winds within 12 hours
    b. blizzard conditions
    c. deteriorating or unsettled weather
    d. heavy, wind driven rain
1599: The time interval between successive wave crests is called the __________.

    a. trough
    b. period
    c. frequency
    d. epoch
1600: Zenith distance is equal to __________.

    a. 90° - Ho
    b. 90° - d
    c. Ho° + d
    d. 90° - z
1601: Sextant B in illustration D043NG reads __________. (D043NG )

    a. 30°51.0'
    b. 30°42.5'
    c. 30°47.5'
    d. 31°00.0'
1602: Most modern Loran-C receivers automatically detect secondary station blink which __________.

    a. indicates the station is transmitting normally
    b. automatically shuts down the receiver
    c. triggers alarm indicators to warn the operator
    d. causes the receiver to shift automatically to another Loran chain
1603: A position that is obtained by using two or more intersecting lines of position, taken at nearly the same time, is a(n) __________.

    a. estimated position
    b. fix
    c. running fix
    d. dead-reckoning position
1604: The Illustration shows the symbols used on radio facsimile weather charts. Which of these symbols indicates freezing rain? (D042NG )

    a. M
    b. N
    c. O
    d. P
1606: Aids to navigation marking the intracoastal waterway can be identified by __________.

    a. the letters ICW after the aid's number or letter
    b. yellow stripes, squares, or triangles marked on them
    c. white retroreflective material
    d. the light characteristic and color for lighted aids
1607: When your barometer reading changes from 30.25 to 30.05 in a 12-hour period it indicates __________.

    a. rapidly changing weather
    b. improving weather
    c. high winds within the next six hours
    d. little or no immediate change
1608: When using a buoy as an aid to navigation which of the following should be considered?

    a. If the light is flashing the buoy should be considered to be in the charted location.
    b. The buoy may not be in the charted position.
    c. The buoy should be considered to be in the charted position if it has been freshly painted.
    d. The buoy should be considered to always be in the charted position.
1609: A rapid rise or fall of the barometer indicates __________.

    a. heavy rain within six hours
    b. a decrease in wind velocity
    c. a change in the present weather conditions
    d. that fog will soon set in
1610: When the navigational channel passes under a fixed bridge, the edges of the channel are marked on the bridge with what lights?

    a. Red lights
    b. Three white lights in a vertical line
    c. Red lights on the LDB and green lights on the RDB
    d. Yellow lights
1611: What indicates a dual purpose buoy?

    a. Red buoy with a horizontal yellow band
    b. Red and white vertically-striped buoy with a vertical yellow stripe
    c. Red and white vertically-striped buoy with a red spherical topmark
    d. Green buoy with a yellow square
1612: The strongest winds and heaviest rains in a hurricane are found in the __________.

    a. outer bands
    b. eye
    c. cloud walls
    d. spiral rainbands
1613: Where would you find information concerning the duration of slack water?

    a. Tide Tables
    b. Tidal Current Tables
    c. American Practical Navigator
    d. Sailing Directions
1614: Hot air can hold __________.

    a. less moisture than cold air
    b. more moisture than cold air
    c. the same amount of moisture as cold air
    d. moisture independent of air temperature
1615: The Illustration shows the symbols used on radio facsimile weather charts. Which symbol indicates snow? (D042NG )

    a. G
    b. H
    c. M
    d. N
1616: Which picture in illustration D034NG shows a Morse (A) light? (D034NG )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
1617: The inner cloud bands of a hurricane, when viewed from a distance, form a mass of dense, black cumulonimbus clouds called the __________.

    a. bar of the storm
    b. eye of the storm
    c. funnel
    d. front
1618: The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 14 miles and is 26 feet high. If the visibility is 4 miles and your height of eye is 20 feet, at what approximate distance will you sight the light?

    a. 7.5 miles
    b. 9.6 miles
    c. 11.2 miles
    d. 14.0 miles
1619: Sextant A reads __________. (D043NG )

    a. 29°42.7'
    b. 29°45.7'
    c. 29°51.8'
    d. 30°47.2'
1620: You are at anchor in the anchorage at the entrance to Delaware Bay. If you weigh anchor at 1445 DST (ZD +4) on 24 July 1983 and proceed northbound enroute to Philadelphia at a speed of 10 knots, you will have __________.

    a. a flood current the entire trip
    b. a flood current from Ship John Shoal Lt. to Philadelphia
    c. an ebb current north of New Castle, DE
    d. a weak flood between Reedy Island and Edgemoor
1623: Which of the following statements is FALSE?

    a. An anemometer measures wind speed.
    b. A barometer measures atmospheric pressure.
    c. A thermometer measures temperature.
    d. A psychrometer measures wind pressure.
1624: A psychrometer has two thermometers that provide dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures. By comparing these two temperature readings with a set of tables you can determine the __________.

    a. atmospheric pressure
    b. wind speed
    c. relative humidity and dew point
    d. wind chill factor
1625: A sling psychrometer is used to measure __________.

    a. seawater temperature
    b. engine temperature
    c. dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures
    d. barometric pressure
1626: Which instrument is used to measure the relative humidity of the air?

    a. A hydrometer
    b. A hygrometer
    c. A spectrometer
    d. A barograph
1627: An instrument that maintains a continuous record of humidity changes is called a __________.

    a. thermometer
    b. barometer
    c. hygrograph
    d. thermograph
1628: As the temperature of the air reaches the dew point, __________.

    a. rain must develop
    b. fog may form
    c. it begins to snow
    d. water freezes
1629: Air temperature varies with __________.

    a. the altitude above sea level
    b. the season of the year
    c. the latitude or distance from the equator
    d. All of the above
1631: Which picture shows an occulting light? (D034NG )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
1632: Lighted white and orange buoys must show which color light?

    a. Orange
    b. Red
    c. White
    d. Alternating yellow and white
1633: To find a magnetic compass course from a true course you must apply __________.

    a. deviation and variation
    b. deviation
    c. variation
    d. magnetic anomalies (local disturbances)
1634: A lighted buoy to be left to starboard, when entering a U.S. port from seaward, shall have a __________.

    a. red light
    b. white light
    c. green light
    d. light characteristic of Morse (A)
1634: A lighted buoy to be left to starboard, when entering a U.S. port from seaward, shall have a __________.

    a. red light
    b. white light
    c. green light
    d. light characteristic of Morse (A)
1635: An isotherm is __________.

    a. a line on a weather map connecting equal points of both temperature and pressure
    b. an instrument that measures the climatological effects of temperature
    c. a line connecting points of equal barometric pressure on a weather map
    d. a line connecting points of equal temperature on a weather map
1636: A type of precipitation that occurs only in thunderstorms with strong convection currents that convey raindrops above and below the freezing level is known as __________.

    a. sleet
    b. hail
    c. freezing rain
    d. rime
1637: Which of the following is NOT a form of precipitation?

    a. rain
    b. frost
    c. sleet
    d. snow
1638: Clouds form __________.

    a. as a mass of warm, humid air rises into the atmosphere and cools, condensing moisture into small droplets
    b. as winds blow across bodies of water, the sun causes the moisture to be absorbed and move upward forming clouds
    c. dry air compresses moisture from the atmosphere into clouds
    d. when the relative humidity of the atmosphere is low
1639: Sextant D reads __________. (D043NG )

    a. 30°47.5'
    b. 29°47.5'
    c. 29°42.5'
    d. 29°41.6'
1640: Clouds with the prefix "nimbo" in their name __________.

    a. are sheet or layer clouds
    b. have undergone great vertical development
    c. are middle or high altitude clouds
    d. are rain clouds
1641: The low, dark, sheet-like cloud which is associated with continuous precipitation for many hours is a __________.

    a. cirrus cloud
    b. cumulus cloud
    c. cumulonimbus cloud
    d. nimbostratus cloud
1642: Which type of cloud formation should be of immediate concern to small craft operators?

    a. cirrus
    b. altostratus
    c. nimbostratus
    d. cumulonimbus
1643: Cumulus clouds that have undergone vertical development and have become cumulonimbus in form, indicate __________.

    a. clearing weather
    b. that a warm front has passed
    c. probable thunderstorm activity
    d. an approaching hurricane or typhoon
1644: Which scale is used to estimate wind speed by observing sea conditions __________.

    a. Metric scale
    b. Wind scale
    c. Coriolis scale
    d. Beaufort scale
1646: Which picture in illustration D034NG shows a flashing light? (D034NG )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
1647: Cumulonimbus clouds are formed by __________.

    a. vertical air movements
    b. heavy rainstorms
    c. horizontal air movements
    d. any movement of moist air
1648: A sign of thunderstorm development is a cumulus cloud __________.

    a. darkening, growing in size and forming an anvil top
    b. that shows extensive vertical development
    c. creating cold downdrafts that are felt on the ground
    d. All of the above
1649: If you count 20 seconds between seeing lightning and hearing the thunder, how far is the storm away from you?

    a. 2 miles
    b. 4 miles
    c. 6 miles
    d. 8 miles
1651: From which type of cloud can a tornado or waterspout develop?

    a. Nimbostratus
    b. Altostratus
    c. Cumulonimbus
    d. Cirrus
1652: Small, visible mound-like protuberances on the bottom of cumulonimbus clouds, that are potential breeding grounds for waterspouts and tornadoes, are called __________.

    a. thunderheads
    b. mamma
    c. rime
    d. ice prisms
1653: In a weather report, the term "visibility" expresses __________.

    a. how far you can see with the "naked eye"
    b. how far you can see with a telescope or binoculars
    c. how well you can identify an object at night
    d. the distance in miles at which prominent objects are identifiable
1654: Which weather element cannot be measured accurately while on board a moving vessel?

    a. Visibility
    b. Temperature
    c. Wind direction
    d. Atmospheric pressure
1655: Yesterday your chronometer read 11h 59m 59s at the 1200 GMT time tick. Today the chronometer reads 11h 59m 57s at the 1200 time tick. What is the chronometer rate?

    a. +2s
    b. -2s
    c. -3s
    d. +3s
1656: Which instrument is most useful in forecasting fog?

    a. A barometer
    b. An anemometer
    c. A sling psychrometer
    d. A pyrometer
1657: Fog is formed when __________.

    a. the moisture in the air is condensed into small droplets
    b. air is cooled to its dew point
    c. the base of a cloud is on the ground
    d. All of the above
1658: Fog forms when the air temperature is at or below __________.

    a. 32° F
    b. the wet bulb temperature
    c. the dew point
    d. the dry bulb temperature
1659: The type of fog that occurs on clear nights with very light breezes and forms when the earth cools rapidly by radiation is known as __________.

    a. radiation fog
    b. frontal fog
    c. convection fog
    d. advection fog
1660: Which of the following is TRUE of advection fog?

    a. It commonly occurs on coastal waters during cold seasons.
    b. It moves in a bank or dense cloud.
    c. It is caused by warmer air moving to a cooler location.
    d. All of the above
1661: Advection fog may be formed by warm moist air passing over a __________.

    a. warmer sea surface
    b. cooler sea surface
    c. dry coastal plain
    d. polar land mass
1662: Fog generally clears when the __________.

    a. wind speed increases
    b. wind direction changes
    c. temperature increases
    d. All of the above
1663: What is the primary source of the earth's weather?

    a. The oceans
    b. The moon
    c. The sun
    d. The solar system
1664: Ascending and descending air masses with different temperatures is part of an important heat transmitting process in our atmosphere called __________.

    a. conduction
    b. radiation
    c. convection
    d. barometric inversion
1665: Air circulation is caused or affected by __________.

    a. the rotation of the earth on its axis
    b. convection currents caused by differences in radiant heating between equatorial and polar regions
    c. mountain ranges
    d. All of the above
1666: The process by which the temperature and/or moisture characteristics of an air mass changes is called __________.

    a. sublimation or condensation
    b. modification
    c. consolidation
    d. association
1667: Air masses near the earth's surface __________.

    a. move from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure
    b. are deflected by the earth's rotation in both hemispheres
    c. are deflected by the "Coriolis effect"
    d. All of the above
1671: Cirrus clouds are composed primarily of __________.

    a. ice crystals
    b. water droplets
    c. snow crystals
    d. nitrogen
1672: Data relating to the direction and velocity of rotary tidal currents can be found in the __________.

    a. Mariner's Guide
    b. Tidal Current Tables
    c. Nautical Almanac
    d. Tide Tables
1673: Information about currents on the Pacific Coast of the U. S. is found in the __________.

    a. Nautical Almanac
    b. Tidal Current Tables
    c. Ocean Current Tables
    d. Tide Tables
1674: The letter D in illustration D006NG represents the __________.

    a. visible horizon
    b. geometrical horizon
    c. celestial horizon
    d. geoidal horizon
1675: You are entering port and have been instructed to anchor, as your berth is not yet available. You are on a SW'ly heading, preparing to drop anchor, when you observe the range lights as shown on your starboard beam. You should __________. (D047NG )

    a. NOT drop the anchor until the lights are in line
    b. ensure your ship will NOT block the channel or obstruct the range while at anchor
    c. drop the anchor immediately as the range lights mark an area free of obstructions
    d. drop the anchor immediately as a change in the position of the range lights will always be an indication of dragging anchor
1676: Lighted information markers show __________.

    a. green lights
    b. white lights
    c. yellow lights
    d. red lights
1677: The position labeled "E" was plotted because __________. (D051NG )

    a. a dead reckoning position is plotted within a half-hour of each course change
    b. a dead reckoning position is plotted for each speed change
    c. the position is a running fix 1125
    d. the vessel's position was fixed at 1145
1678: Which information is NOT provided in broadcasts by the National Institute of Standards and Technology?

    a. Storm Warnings
    b. Time Announcements
    c. GPS Information
    d. NAVAREA Warnings
1680: A weather front exists when __________.

    a. air masses of the same temperature meet
    b. air masses of different temperatures meet
    c. many clouds create a differential in air density
    d. two lows are separated by a ridge of higher pressure
1681: You can expect frontal activity when two air masses collide and __________.

    a. their barometric pressures and temperatures are the same
    b. there are differences in how they track along the jet stream
    c. there are no significant differences between their temperatures and moisture content
    d. there are significant differences between the temperature of each air mass
1682: Which of the listed properties does warm air possess?

    a. It rises above cooler air and cools as it rises.
    b. Atmospheric pressure drops as warm air rises.
    c. Moisture in warm air condenses as the air is cooled.
    d. All of the above
1683: As it approaches, a typical warm front will bring __________.

    a. rising temperatures and falling barometric pressure
    b. falling temperature and pressure
    c. falling temperatures and rising pressure
    d. rising barometric pressure and temperatures
1684: Which type of frontal passage is associated with a relatively narrow band of precipitation?

    a. A cold front
    b. A warm front
    c. A stationary front
    d. None of the above
1685: Squall lines with an almost unbroken line of threatening dark clouds and sharp changes in wind direction, generally precede a(n) __________.

    a. slow-moving warm front
    b. fast-moving cold front
    c. stationary front
    d. occluded front
1686: Which of the following statements concerning frontal movements is TRUE?

    a. The temperature rises after a cold front passes.
    b. The barometric pressure rises when a warm front passes.
    c. A cold front generally passes faster than a warm front.
    d. A warm front usually has more violent weather associated with it than a cold front.
1687: Which statement is TRUE when comparing cold and warm fronts?

    a. Cold fronts are more violent and of shorter duration.
    b. Cold fronts are milder and last longer.
    c. They are very similar with the exception of wind direction.
    d. Warm fronts are more violent and of longer duration.
1688: Which type of front forms when a cold front overtakes and forces a warm front upwards?

    a. A cold front
    b. An occluded front
    c. A warm front
    d. A stationary front
1689: The "horse latitudes" are regions of __________.

    a. brisk prevailing winds
    b. light airs and calms
    c. abundant blue sea grass vegetation
    d. None of the above
1690: In regions near the poles, the winds are generally described as __________.

    a. westerlies
    b. easterlies
    c. northerlies
    d. southerlies
1691: Which of the following is associated with consistently high barometric pressure?

    a. The horse latitudes
    b. The doldrums
    c. The prevailing westerlies
    d. The trade winds
1692: The force resulting from the earth's rotation that causes winds to deflect to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere is called __________.

    a. pressure gradient
    b. Coriolis effect
    c. aurora borealis
    d. ballistic deflection
1693: A phenomenon where the atmospheric pressure is higher than that of other surrounding regions is called __________.

    a. the "trade winds"
    b. a low front or an occluded front
    c. a high pressure area; an anticyclone; or a "high"
    d. the "doldrums"
1694: In the Southern Hemisphere the wind circulation in a high pressure system rotates __________.

    a. clockwise and inward
    b. clockwise and outward
    c. counterclockwise and outward
    d. counterclockwise and inward
1695: Compared to a low pressure system, generally the air in a high is __________.

    a. warmer, less dense, and less stable
    b. cool, more dense, and drier
    c. muggy and cloudy
    d. extremely moist with high relative humidity
1696: Two well-developed high pressure areas may be separated by a __________.

    a. hill of low pressure
    b. trough of low pressure
    c. valley of low pressure
    d. ridge of low pressure
1697: In the Northern Hemisphere, if the center of a high pressure area is due west of you, what wind direction would you expect?

    a. South to west
    b. South to east
    c. North to west
    d. North to east
1698: When a high pressure system is centered north of your vessel in the Northern Hemisphere __________.

    a. you should experience hot, moist, clear weather
    b. the wind direction is generally easterly
    c. the winds should be from the southwest at your location
    d. the winds should be brisk
1699: In the Northern Hemisphere, when the center of a high pressure system is due east of your position, you can expect winds from the __________.

    a. south to west
    b. south to east
    c. north to west
    d. north to east
1700: Generally speaking, you should expect to find low atmospheric pressure prevailing in the earth's __________.

    a. equatorial area
    b. polar regions
    c. mid-latitudes
    d. All of the above
1701: Which general weather conditions should you expect to find in a low pressure system?

    a. Fair weather
    b. Precipitation and cloudiness
    c. Scattered clouds at high elevations
    d. Gradual clearing and cooler temperatures
1702: In a cyclone the lowest pressure is found in the __________.

    a. center
    b. outer edge
    c. warm front
    d. cold front
1703: In the Northern Hemisphere, when the wind at your location is northerly, the low pressure center causing the wind is located to your __________.

    a. NNW
    b. WSW
    c. ESE
    d. SSW
1704: If the center of low pressure is due west of you in the Northern Hemisphere, which wind direction should you expect?

    a. South to west
    b. South to east
    c. West to north
    d. North to east
1705: Two well-developed low pressure areas may be separated by a __________.

    a. trough of higher pressure
    b. hill of higher pressure
    c. ridge of higher pressure
    d. valley of higher pressure
1706: In the Northern Hemisphere a wind is said to veer when the wind __________.

    a. changes direction clockwise, as from north to east, etc.
    b. changes direction violently and erratically
    c. remains constant in direction and speed
    d. changes direction counterclockwise, as from south to east, etc.
1707: "Surface circulation" is another term for __________.

    a. cyclones
    b. air in motion at all levels of the atmosphere
    c. wind in the lower troposphere
    d. ocean currents
1708: What generally occurs when the land is cooler than the nearby water?

    a. A land breeze
    b. A sea breeze
    c. A norther
    d. A prevailing westerly
1709: The Beaufort scale is used to estimate the __________.

    a. wind direction
    b. percentage of cloud cover
    c. wind speed
    d. barometric pressure
1710: A gale is characterized by a wind speed of __________.

    a. 10 to 20 knots
    b. 34 to 47 knots
    c. 48 to 63 knots
    d. 64 to 83 knots
1711: An instrument that indicates wind direction is known as a(n) __________.

    a. weather vane, wind vane or wind sock
    b. hydrometer
    c. hygrometer
    d. sling psychrometer
1712: Tornados are often associated with __________.

    a. winds in the warm sector ahead of a cold front and travel from southwest towards the east or northeast
    b. squall lines and very heavy thunderstorm activity
    c. winds that may be in excess of 200 knots and destructive funnel clouds
    d. All of the above
1713: When a tornado moves over the water from land it is called a __________.

    a. tornado
    b. waterspout
    c. hurricane
    d. cyclone
1714: Which statement concerning storm surges on the Great Lakes is FALSE?

    a. They are common along the deeper areas of the lakes.
    b. They cause rapid differences in levels between one end of the lake and the other.
    c. The greatest water level difference occurs when the wind is blowing along the longitudinal axis of the lake.
    d. If the wind subsides rapidly, a seiche effect will most likely occur.
1715: The hurricane season generally occurs from __________.

    a. August to January
    b. July to December
    c. June to November
    d. January to June
1716: The hurricane season in the North Atlantic Ocean reaches its peak during the month of __________.

    a. June
    b. September
    c. November
    d. July
1717: A tropical storm is a tropical cyclone that generates winds of __________.

    a. between 20 and 33 knots
    b. between 34 and 63 knots
    c. over 63 knots
    d. None of the above
1718: A hurricane is characterized by winds of __________.

    a. up to 33 knots
    b. 34 to 47 knots
    c. 48 to 63 knots
    d. 64 knots or greater
1719: What is the direction of rotation of tropical cyclones, tropical storms and hurricanes in the Northern Hemisphere?

    a. Clockwise and outward
    b. Counterclockwise and inward
    c. Counterclockwise and outward
    d. Clockwise and inward
1720: In the Southern Hemisphere winds in a low pressure system rotate in a __________.

    a. clockwise direction
    b. northeasterly direction
    c. northerly direction
    d. counterclockwise direction
1721: A storm's track is characterized by all of the following except __________.

    a. the direction the storm has come from
    b. the direction in which the storm is moving
    c. the speed at which the storm is moving
    d. the path taken by the storm
1722: Hurricanes may move in any direction. However, it is rare and generally of short duration when a hurricane in the Northern Hemisphere moves toward the __________.

    a. west or northwest
    b. northeast
    c. southeast
    d. north
1723: The intensity of a hurricane as it reaches higher latitudes and cooler waters __________.

    a. Increases
    b. remains the same
    c. decreases
    d. None of the above
1724: What is the first visible indication of the presence of a tropical cyclone or hurricane?

    a. Stratocumulus clouds or strange birds
    b. Rain and increasing winds
    c. An exceptionally long swell
    d. Dark clouds and the "bar" of the storm
1725: Your present weather is sunny with a steady barometer. A low swell approaches your vessel from the south with crests passing at relatively long periods of about four per minute. This usually indicates __________.

    a. a warm front from the south
    b. a tropical cyclone south of your vessel
    c. a hurricane about 100 miles south of your vessel and heading in your direction
    d. an extra-tropical cyclone
1726: How can you estimate the position of a tropical storm's center?

    a. With a radio weather bulletin or weather fax
    b. using shipboard radar
    c. observe the wind direction and apply Buys Ballot's law
    d. All of the above
1727: What enables you to estimate the bearing of a storm's center?

    a. Buys Ballot's Law
    b. An educated guess
    c. Pascal's Law
    d. The left-hand rule
1728: If a hurricane several hundred miles away is moving in your general direction your barometer would __________.

    a. start to rise rapidly
    b. start to fall gradually
    c. rise slowly, begin "pumping" and then start a slow, steady fall
    d. remain steady
1729: The first cloud formations you can use to indicate the bearing of the center of a hurricane or tropical storm are __________.

    a. the point of convergence of the cirrus clouds
    b. the direction of movement of thunderstorms on radar
    c. the darkest point of the clouds in the "bar" of the storm
    d. the point of origin of the altostratus clouds
1730: If you observe the point of cloud convergence shifting to the right and the "bar" of the storm appears to move along the horizon __________.

    a. the center of the storm will by-pass you
    b. the storm will strike you on the starboard side
    c. you are in the direct path of the storm and should take immediate steps to batten down loose gear
    d. the storm is starting to break up
1731: When your vessel is on or near the path of an approaching tropical storm the __________.

    a. wind direction remains steady
    b. wind speed increases
    c. barometer falls
    d. All of the above
1732: The eye of a hurricane is surrounded by dense black cumulonimbus clouds which are called the __________.

    a. wall cloud
    b. nimbostratus cloud
    c. bar
    d. funnel
1733: An instrument which maintains a continuous record of temperature changes is called a __________.

    a. thermometer
    b. barometer
    c. thermograph
    d. hygrograph
1734: The eye of the hurricane has __________.

    a. very high barometric pressure
    b. average barometric pressure
    c. the lowest barometric pressure
    d. no change in barometric pressure
1735: A vessel entering the eye of a hurricane should expect __________.

    a. moderating winds and heavy confused seas to strike his vessel from all directions
    b. the winds to increase to hurricane force and strike from a different direction as the eye passes
    c. the barometer to reach the lowest point
    d. All of the above
1736: Which statement is FALSE concerning the dangerous semicircle of a hurricane?

    a. The actual wind speed is increased by the forward movement of the storm along its track
    b. the direction of the wind and the sea might carry a vessel directly into the storm's path
    c. The seas are higher
    d. The rain is heavier
1737: You can determine if your vessel's position is in the dangerous or navigable semicircle of a hurricane by __________.

    a. observing whether the wind is veering or backing
    b. plotting two or more recent storm positions from weather bulletins
    c. Both A and B
    d. Neither A nor B
1738: In the Northern Hemisphere, the right half of the storm is known as the dangerous semicircle because __________.

    a. The wind speed is greater here since the wind is traveling in the same general direction as the storm's track
    b. the direction of the wind and seas might carry a vessel into the path of the storm
    c. the seas are higher because of greater wind speed
    d. All of the above
1739: Which condition indicates that you are in a hurricane's dangerous semicircle in the Northern hemisphere?

    a. A backing wind
    b. A veering wind
    c. A norther
    d. A strong, gusty wind
1740: If you are in the dangerous semicircle of a hurricane you can expect all of the following except __________.

    a. backing winds
    b. high seas
    c. high winds
    d. veering winds
1741: The left half of the storm is called the navigable semicircle because __________.

    a. the wind speed is decreased by the storm's forward motion
    b. the wind tends to blow vessels away from the storms track
    c. Both A and B
    d. Neither A nor B
1742: In the Northern hemisphere which semicircle of a hurricane is the navigable semicircle?

    a. Left
    b. Right
    c. Front
    d. Back
1743: In the Northern Hemisphere, if your vessel is in a hurricane's navigable semicircle it should be positioned with the wind on the __________.

    a. starboard quarter, hold course and make as much speed as possible
    b. port bow, hold course and make as much speed as possible until the hurricane has passed
    c. port quarter, maintain course and make as much speed as possible
    d. starboard bow and heave to until the hurricane has passed
1744: Which condition suggests that your present position lies in the navigable semicircle of a tropical storm?

    a. A backing wind
    b. A veering wind
    c. Sustained gale force winds
    d. A strong wind that maintains a constant speed and direction
1745: When your vessel is on the storm track but behind the storm's center the __________.

    a. wind direction remains steady
    b. wind speed decreases
    c. barometer rises
    d. All of the above
1746: Swells that have outrun the storm are produced in the __________.

    a. left front quadrant
    b. right front quadrant
    c. rear
    d. directly ahead on the storms projected track
1749: If the current and wind are in opposite directions, the sea surface represents __________.

    a. a greatly reduced wind speed
    b. a higher wind speed than what really exists
    c. a lower wind speed than what really exists
    d. more turbulent winds
1750: Clearance gauges at bridges indicate __________.

    a. the height of the tide
    b. depth of water under the bridge
    c. charted vertical clearance at mean low water
    d. distance from the water to low steel of the bridge
1751: A tsunami is caused by a(n) __________.

    a. tidal wave
    b. storm surge caused by a hurricane or tropical storm
    c. earthquake on the ocean's floor
    d. tornado
1752: What is the major limitation in using the Sight Reduction Tables for Air Navigation Volume I (Pub. No. 249) for star sights?

    a. More accuracy is needed for celestial observations on board ship than what is tabulated.
    b. Sights must be made at even time increments to benefit from the tables.
    c. Only certain stars are included and sights must be limited to those stars.
    d. Only first magnitude stars are tabulated.
1753: On a weather map, a large letter "H" means __________.

    a. a high pressure area with cool, dry air, and fair weather
    b. a high pressure area with warm, moist air, and inclement weather
    c. horse latitudes, with rough seas and strong winds
    d. a heavy squall line near the "H"
1754: The dumping of refuse in a lock is permitted __________.

    a. when approved by the lockmaster
    b. when locking downbound
    c. at no time
    d. during high water only
1755: Which weather system produces strong cold winds called "Northers" during the winter months in the Gulf of Mexico?

    a. An anticyclone
    b. A high pressure system
    c. A cyclone
    d. Both A and B
1756: Where would you expect to find climatological and meteorological tables for the Gulf Coast area?

    a. In the publication entitled Radio Aids to Navigation
    b. In the back of Coast Pilot #5
    c. In any Coast Pilot volume
    d. Only at the National Weather Service office
1757: Where would you obtain data on currents for areas of the world not covered by the U.S. National Ocean Service?

    a. In the Coast Pilot
    b. In the Nautical Almanac
    c. In the List of Lights
    d. In the Sailing Directions
1758: The climate of the eastern Gulf coast __________.

    a. is humid and subtropical throughout the year
    b. has an east coast marine type of climate
    c. has a Mediterranean type of climate
    d. varies from warm to subtropical
1759: Which magnetic compass corrector(s) can be set while the vessel is on a heading of magnetic north or magnetic south?

    a. Quadrantal spheres
    b. Heeling magnets
    c. Flinders bar
    d. Fore-and-aft magnets
1760: A Doppler log in the bottom return mode indicates the __________.

    a. velocity of the current
    b. bottom characteristics
    c. depth of the water
    d. speed over the ground
1761: Chart legends which indicate a conspicuous landmark are printed in __________.

    a. italics
    b. underlined letters
    c. capital letters
    d. boldfaced print
1762: In high latitudes, celestial observations can be made over a horizon covered with pack ice by bringing the sun tangent to the ice and __________.

    a. adding 30° of arc to the sight
    b. using a dip correction based on the height of eye above the ice
    c. doubling the semidiameter correction
    d. using a dip correction from table 22 in Bowditch Vol. II
1763: Weather patterns in the Gulf Coast area of the United States are __________.

    a. those of a transition zone between tropical and a temperate area
    b. those of a tropical region
    c. extremely hot in summer
    d. tropical over Florida and subtropical over the rest of the Gulf Coast area
1764: What natural feature is responsible for the rather even climate found on the Florida peninsula throughout the year?

    a. Strong masses of continental air
    b. The Gulf Stream
    c. The Bermuda high
    d. The cool waters of the Sargasso sea
1765: Which meteorological feature controls the climate of the Gulf and the Gulf Coast area during late spring and summer?

    a. The Bermuda High
    b. The doldrums
    c. The horse latitudes
    d. Tropical cyclones
1766: You are approaching a lock and see a flashing amber light located on the lock wall. You should __________.

    a. stand clear of the lock entrance
    b. approach the lock under full control
    c. enter the lock as quickly as possible
    d. hang off your tow on the lock wall
1767: Which statement describes the prevailing wind direction in mid-winter in the Gulf Coast area?

    a. 30% to 40% of mid-winter winds are from a northern quadrant.
    b. 40% to 50% of mid-winter winds are from a southern quadrant.
    c. the winds are variable in speed, but strongest in March.
    d. None of the above
1768: A flashing red light displayed at a single lock means that the lock __________.

    a. is ready to use but vessels must stand clear
    b. is ready to use and vessels may approach
    c. cannot be made ready immediately and vessels shall stand clear
    d. cannot be made ready immediately but vessels may approach
1769: Under the numbering system used by NGA (NIMA), a three digit number may be used for __________.

    a. a small scale chart depicting a major portion of an ocean basin or a position plotting sheet
    b. non-navigational materials such as radar plotting sheets
    c. products issued periodically such as the Notice to Mariners
    d. large scale charts of areas that are infrequently used for navigation such as the headwaters of rivers
1770: A Doppler speed log indicates speed over ground __________.

    a. at all times
    b. in the bottom return mode
    c. in the volume reverberation mode
    d. only when there is no current
1771: Which type of precipitation is a product of the violent convection found in thunderstorms?

    a. Snow
    b. Freezing Rain
    c. Hail
    d. Sleet
1772: The GP of a body for a high altitude sight is determined from the declination and the __________.

    a. Greenwich hour angle
    b. azimuth
    c. zenith distance
    d. right ascension
1772: The GP of a body for a high altitude sight is determined from the declination and the __________.

    a. Greenwich hour angle
    b. azimuth
    c. zenith distance
    d. right ascension
1773: A "Norther" in the Gulf of Mexico is __________.

    a. a wind shift to the north accompanied by a drop in temperature
    b. a forcible northerly wind of at least 20 knots
    c. a strong northerly wind that generally occurs between November and March
    d. All of the above
1774: Restricted areas at locks and dams are indicated by __________.

    a. flashing red lights upstream and fixed red lights downstream
    b. yellow unlighted buoys
    c. signs and/or flashing red lights
    d. red daymarks upstream and green daymarks downstream
1775: The letter A in illustration D006NG represents the __________.

    a. celestial horizon
    b. geoidal horizon
    c. sensible horizon
    d. visible horizon
1776: A vessel operating on the Great Lakes, and whose position is southeast of an eastward-moving storm center, would NOT experience __________.

    a. a falling barometer
    b. lowering clouds and drizzle
    c. a northeast wind
    d. rain or snow
1777: If the current and wind are in the same direction, the sea surface represents a wind speed __________.

    a. lower than actually exists
    b. higher than actually exists
    c. that actually exists
    d. that has no proportional relationship
1778: Illustration D037NG represents a movable dam. If the wickets are down and there are open weirs due to high water, what light(s) will be shown at A if the lock walls and piers are not awash? (D037NG )

    a. One red light
    b. Two red lights
    c. Three red lights
    d. One green light
1779: The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 14 miles and is 26 feet high. If the visibility is 14 miles and your height of eye is 20 feet, at which approximate distance will you sight the light?

    a. 7.5 miles
    b. 11.2 miles
    c. 14.0 miles
    d. 18.1 miles
1780: While in port, you can follow the approach of a dangerous cyclonic storm by inspecting __________.

    a. the Coast Pilot or Sailing Directions
    b. the National Weather Service Observing Handbook No.1, Marine Surface Observations
    c. a newspaper
    d. the sky overhead
1781: While in port, you can follow the approach of a dangerous cyclonic storm by inspecting __________.

    a. the sky overhead
    b. the National Weather Service Observing Handbook No.1, Marine Surface Observations
    c. the Coast Pilot or Sailing Directions
    d. a weather map
1782: You are on course 027°T and take a relative bearing to a lighthouse of 220°. What is the true bearing to the lighthouse?

    a. 113°
    b. 193°
    c. 247°
    d. 279°
1783: You can follow the approach of a dangerous cyclonic storm by inspecting __________.

    a. the National Weather Service Observing Handbook No.1, Marine Surface Observations
    b. a weather fax
    c. the Coast Pilot or Sailing Directions
    d. the sky overhead
1784: If your vessel were proceeding down river (descending), a green square marker with a green reflector border on the right bank would be a __________.

    a. mile board
    b. dredging mark
    c. passing daymark
    d. crossing daymark
1785: Which factor(s) is/are used to develop the charted information of a lighthouse?

    a. Height of the light and the observer
    b. Height and brightness of the light
    c. Brightness of the light and height of the observer
    d. Height of the light only
1786: You are downbound approaching a lock and see 3 green lights in a vertical line. This indicates __________.

    a. that the lock chamber is open and ready to receive your tow
    b. that you should hold up until the signal changes to 2 green lights
    c. the upstream end of the river wall
    d. the upstream end of the land wall
1787: What indicates that a tropical cyclone may be within 500 to 1,000 miles of your position?

    a. A pumping of the barometer up and down a few millibars
    b. A sudden wind shift from southwest to northwest followed by steadily increasing winds
    c. The normal swell pattern becoming confused, with the length of the swell increasing
    d. An overcast sky with steadily increasing rain from nimbostratus clouds
1788: You can follow the approach of a dangerous cyclonic storm by inspecting __________.

    a. the Coast Pilot or Sailing Directions
    b. the National Weather Service Observing Handbook No.1, Marine Surface Observations
    c. a weather forecast
    d. the sky overhead
1789: The Illustration represents a fixed C of E lock and dam. What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the position indicated by the letter F in the illustration? (D036NG )

    a. One red light
    b. Two green lights
    c. Three green lights
    d. No light(s)
1790: A Doppler speed log indicates speed through the water __________.

    a. at all times
    b. in the bottom return mode
    c. in the volume reverberation mode
    d. only when there is no current
1791: The accuracy of an azimuth circle can be checked by __________.

    a. sighting a terrestrial range in line and comparing the observed bearing against the charted bearing
    b. aligning the relative bearing markings so that 000° is on the lubber's line and the line of sight passes over the center of the compass
    c. ensuring that the alignment marks on the inner face of the circle are in line with those on the repeater on relative bearings of 000° and 090°
    d. comparing observed azimuths at different altitudes with computed values at the times of observation to see if the difference is constant
1793: Which weather element cannot be measured accurately while on board a moving vessel?

    a. relative humidity
    b. temperature
    c. true wind speed
    d. atmospheric pressure
1794: Why are low altitude sun sights not generally used?

    a. Errors due to unusual refraction may exist.
    b. Sextants may have large errors at small angles of elevation.
    c. Modern sight reduction tables are not complete for low altitudes below 5°.
    d. The glare on the horizon causes irradiation errors.
1795: Which weather element cannot be measured accurately while on board a moving vessel?

    a. Relative humidity
    b. Cloud base height
    c. Temperature
    d. Atmospheric pressure
1796: Which weather element cannot be measured accurately while on board a moving vessel?

    a. Relative humidity
    b. Atmospheric pressure
    c. Temperature
    d. Wave period
1797: A phenomenon where the atmospheric pressure is higher than that of other surrounding regions is called __________.

    a. a high pressure area
    b. a low front or an occluded front
    c. the "trade winds"
    d. the "doldrums"
1798: The climate of the northern Gulf coast __________.

    a. is humid and subtropical throughout the year
    b. has an east coast marine type of climate
    c. is a warm marine type of climate
    d. varies from warm to subtropical
1799: The letter D in illustration D006NG represents the __________.

    a. celestial horizon
    b. visible horizon
    c. geometrical horizon
    d. geoidal horizon
1800: In order to insure that a RACON signal is displayed on the radar, you should __________.

    a. increase the brilliance of the PPI scope
    b. turn off the interference controls on the radar
    c. use the maximum available range setting
    d. increase the radar signal output
1801: A phenomenon where the atmospheric pressure is higher than that of other surrounding regions is called __________.

    a. the "trade winds"
    b. an anticyclone
    c. a low front or an occluded front
    d. the "doldrums"
1802: What is the major advantage of high altitude observations?

    a. Errors due to unusual parallax are eliminated.
    b. The same body can be used for a fix from observations separated by several minutes.
    c. The declination is the only information needed from the almanac.
    d. The semidiameter correction of the sextant altitude is eliminated.
1802: What is the major advantage of high altitude observations?

    a. Errors due to unusual parallax are eliminated.
    b. The same body can be used for a fix from observations separated by several minutes.
    c. The declination is the only information needed from the almanac.
    d. The semidiameter correction of the sextant altitude is eliminated.
1803: The difference between the DR position and a fix, both of which have the same time, is caused by __________.

    a. variation
    b. deviation
    c. current
    d. leeway
1804: Magnetic information on a chart may be __________.

    a. found in the center(s) of the compass rose(s)
    b. indicated by isogonic lines
    c. found in a note on the chart
    d. All of the above
1805: A phenomenon where the atmospheric pressure is higher than that of other surrounding regions is called __________.

    a. the "trade winds"
    b. a low front or an occluded front
    c. the doldrums
    d. a "high"
1806: Sometimes foreign charts are reproduced by NGA (NIMA). On such a chart a wire dragged (swept) area may be shown in purple or __________.

    a. green
    b. red
    c. magenta
    d. yellow
1807: Which weather system produces strong cold winds called "Northers" during the winter months in the Gulf of Mexico?

    a. A polar maritime air mass
    b. A high pressure system
    c. A cyclone
    d. A low pressure system
1808: A white buoy with an open-faced orange diamond on it indicates __________.

    a. danger
    b. vessels are excluded from the area
    c. the buoy is a mooring buoy
    d. operating restrictions are in effect
1809: What occurs when rising air cools to the dew point?

    a. Advection fog forms
    b. Humidity decreases
    c. Winds increase
    d. Clouds form
1810: Where will you find information about the duration of slack water?

    a. Tide Tables
    b. Sailing Directions
    c. Tidal Current Tables
    d. American Practical Navigator
1811: To find a magnetic compass course from a true course you must apply __________.

    a. deviation
    b. deviation and variation
    c. variation
    d. magnetic anomalies (local disturbances)
1812: The line of position should be plotted as a circle around the GP of the body when the Ho exceeds what minimum value?

    a. 80°
    b. 83°
    c. 85°
    d. 87°
1815: Which weather system produces strong cold winds called "Northers" during the winter months in the Gulf of Mexico?

    a. An anticyclone
    b. A polar maritime air mass
    c. A cyclone
    d. A low pressure system
1816: A white buoy with an orange circle marked on it indicates __________.

    a. danger
    b. vessels are excluded from the area
    c. a mooring buoy
    d. operating restrictions are in effect
1818: In order to utilize the capacity of a lock to its maximum, pleasure craft are locked through with all of the following EXCEPT __________.

    a. coal barges
    b. oil barges
    c. sand barges
    d. cement barges
1820: Information on the operating times and characteristics of foreign radio beacons can be found in which publication?

    a. List of Lights
    b. Coast Pilot
    c. Sailing Directions
    d. List of Radio beacons
1822: What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the port bow?

    a. 315°
    b. 330°
    c. 345°
    d. 360°
1824: The illustration represents a fixed C of E lock and dam. What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the position indicated by the letter C in the illustration? (DO36NG )

    a. One red light
    b. Two green lights
    c. Three green lights
    d. No light
1826: The illustration represents a fixed C of E lock and dam. What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the position indicated by the letter D in the illustration? (D036NG )

    a. One red light
    b. Two green lights
    c. Three green lights
    d. No light
1827: The position labeled "D" was plotted because __________. (D051NG )

    a. a dead reckoning position is plotted within 30 minutes of a running fix
    b. a dead reckoning position is plotted for each course change
    c. the vessel's speed changed at 1125
    d. All of the above
1828: When entering from seaward, a buoy displaying a single-flashing red light indicates __________.

    a. a junction with the preferred channel to the left
    b. a wreck to be left on the vessel's port side
    c. a sharp turn in the channel to the right
    d. the starboard side of the channel
1829: The illustration represents a fixed C of E lock and dam. What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the position indicated by the letter E in the illustration? (D036NG )

    a. One red light
    b. Two green lights
    c. Three green lights
    d. No light
1829: The illustration represents a fixed C of E lock and dam. What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the position indicated by the letter E in the illustration? (D036NG )

    a. One red light
    b. Two green lights
    c. Three green lights
    d. No light
1830: A vessel heading NNW is on a course of __________.

    a. 274.5°
    b. 292.0°
    c. 315.5°
    d. 337.5°
1831: IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, the port side of a channel would be marked by a __________.

    a. red conical buoy
    b. black can buoy
    c. red can buoy
    d. black conical buoy
1832: Which magnetic compass corrector(s) can be set while the vessel is on a heading of magnetic northeast or magnetic southeast?

    a. Flinders bar
    b. Heeling magnets
    c. Fore-and-aft magnets
    d. Quadrantal spheres
1836: At evening stars, the first stars that should be observed are those with an azimuth in what quadrant?

    a. Southern
    b. Western
    c. Northern
    d. Eastern
1838: The Light List shows a lighted aid to navigation on the left bank. This means that the light can be seen on the starboard side of a vessel __________.

    a. ascending the river
    b. descending the river
    c. crossing the river
    d. proceeding towards sea
1840: A vessel heading NW is on a course of __________.

    a. 274.5°
    b. 292.5°
    c. 315.0°
    d. 337.5°
1841: The letter A as shown represents the __________. (D006NG )

    a. sensible horizon
    b. geoidal horizon
    c. visible horizon
    d. celestial horizon
1842: What is the major problem with taking high altitude observations?

    a. Possible errors due to unusual refraction may exist.
    b. The tables are not as accurate due to inherent errors in the spherical triangle at high altitudes.
    c. Rapidly changing altitudes make it difficult to get an accurate altitude.
    d. It is difficult to establish the point where the sextant is vertical to the horizon.
1844: What is the relative bearing of an object sighted dead ahead?

    a. 180°
    b. 090°
    c. 015°
    d. 000°
1848: The buoy symbol printed on your chart is leaning to the northeast. This indicates __________.

    a. you should stay to the north or east of the buoy
    b. you should stay to the west or south of the buoy
    c. the buoy is a major lighted buoy
    d. nothing special for navigational purposes
1850: A vessel heading WNW is on a course of __________.

    a. 270.0°
    b. 292.5°
    c. 315.0°
    d. 337.5°
1852: When plotting a circle of equal altitude for a high altitude sight, the radius of the circle is determined by the formula __________.

    a. 90° - Ho
    b. 180° - GHA
    c. GHA - LHA
    d. z - d
1858: A white buoy with an orange cross within a diamond marked on it indicates __________.

    a. danger
    b. vessels are excluded from the area
    c. an anchorage area
    d. operating restrictions are in effect
1859: While proceeding downriver (descending) you sight a red diamond-shaped panel with small, red reflector squares in each corner on the left bank. Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers this is a __________.

    a. special purpose signal
    b. passing daymark
    c. crossing daymark
    d. cable crossing
1860: A vessel heading WSW is on a course of __________.

    a. 202.5°
    b. 225.0°
    c. 247.5°
    d. 271.0°
1862: What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the starboard quarter?

    a. 090°
    b. 105°
    c. 135°
    d. 150°
1866: What term is used to describe a tank barge constructed with the structural framing inside the cargo tank and the side shell plating containing the cargo?

    a. Single hull
    b. Shell plated
    c. Hopper type
    d. Independent tank
1868: Illustration D036NG represents a fixed C of E lock and dam. What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the position indicated by the letter A in the illustration? (D036NG )

    a. One red light
    b. Two red lights
    c. Two green lights
    d. Three green lights
1869: The illustration represents a fixed C of E lock and dam. What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the position indicated by the letter B in the illustration? (D036NG )

    a. One red light
    b. Two green lights
    c. Three green lights
    d. No light
1870: A vessel heading SW is on a course of __________.

    a. 202.5°
    b. 225.0°
    c. 247.5°
    d. 270.0°
1871: A lighted buoy to be left to starboard, when entering a U.S. port from seaward, shall have a __________.

    a. green light
    b. white light
    c. red light
    d. light characteristic of Morse (A)
1872: To find a magnetic compass course from a true course you must apply __________.

    a. deviation
    b. variation
    c. deviation and variation
    d. magnetic anomalies (local disturbances)
1873: Lighted information markers show __________.

    a. green lights
    b. red lights
    c. yellow lights
    d. white lights
1874: Lighted white and orange buoys must show which color light?

    a. Orange
    b. Red
    c. Alternating yellow and white
    d. White
1875: The position labeled "E" was plotted because __________. (D051NG )

    a. a dead reckoning position is plotted within a half-hour of each course change
    b. the position is a running fix
    c. a dead reckoning position is plotted for each speed change
    d. the vessel's position was fixed at 1145
1879: A chart projection depicting the poles and a small area on either side of a connecting meridian, that is sometimes used for star charts, is the __________.

    a. azimuthal gnomonic projection
    b. Lambert conformal projection
    c. transverse Mercator projection
    d. polyconic projection
1880: A vessel heading SSW is on a course of __________.

    a. 202.5°
    b. 225.0°
    c. 247.5°
    d. 270.0°
1882: The GP of a body for a high altitude sight is determined from the Greenwich hour angle and the __________.

    a. circle of equal altitude
    b. zenith distance
    c. azimuth angle
    d. declination
1883: Pressure gradient is a measure of __________.

    a. a high-pressure area
    b. pressure difference over horizontal distance
    c. pressure difference over time
    d. vertical pressure variation
1884: If a sound signal is emitted from the oscillator of a fathometer, and two seconds elapse before the returning signal is picked up, what depth of water is indicated?

    a. 1648 fathoms
    b. 1248 fathoms
    c. 1048 fathoms
    d. 824 fathoms
1885: Under the Uniform State Waterway Marking System a mooring buoy is painted __________.

    a. white with a blue band
    b. yellow
    c. any color that does not conflict with the lateral system
    d. white with a green top
1886: What is the relative bearing of an object dead astern?

    a. 000°
    b. 090°
    c. 180°
    d. 270°
1887: The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 10 miles and is 11 feet high. If the visibility is 15 miles and your height of eye is 20 feet, at what approximate distance will you sight the light?

    a. 12.0 miles
    b. 11.0 miles
    c. 10.0 miles
    d. 9.0 miles
1888: What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the starboard bow?

    a. 030°
    b. 045°
    c. 060°
    d. 075°
1890: A vessel heading SSE is on a course of __________.

    a. 112.5°
    b. 135.0°
    c. 157.5°
    d. 180.0°
1892: The shoreline shown on nautical charts of areas affected by large tidal fluctuations is usually the line of mean __________.

    a. lower low water
    b. low water
    c. tide level
    d. high water
1898: The subregions of the United States Gulf and East Coasts are numbered 11, 12 and 13 within the chart numbering system. Which chart number indicates a chart for either the Gulf or East coast?

    a. 14312
    b. 25134
    c. 21105
    d. 11032
1899: What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the starboard beam?

    a. 045°
    b. 060°
    c. 075°
    d. 090°
1900: A parallax correction is NOT applied to observations of the __________.

    a. stars
    b. Moon
    c. Sun
    d. Planets
1902: Under the numbering system used by NGA (NIMA), a four digit number is used for __________.

    a. large scale charts of infrequently navigated areas such as the polar regions
    b. charts of rivers or canal systems such as the Ohio River or Erie Canal
    c. non-navigational materials, such as a chart correction template or maneuvering board
    d. foreign charts reproduced by NGA (NIMA)
1904: In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to the parallels of declination of the celestial equator system?

    a. Vertical circles
    b. Parallels of altitude
    c. Zenith distance
    d. Azimuth angle
1905: In order to insure that the racon signal is visible on your 3 cm radar, the __________.

    a. 10 cm radar should be placed on standby or turned off
    b. gain control should be turned to maximum
    c. radar should be stabilized, head up
    d. rain clutter control should be off but, if necessary, may be on low
1906: In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to latitude on the Earth?

    a. Altitude
    b. Zenith
    c. Declination
    d. Zenith distance
1907: Information about direction and velocity of rotary tidal currents is found in the __________.

    a. Tide Tables
    b. Nautical Almanac
    c. Tidal Current Tables
    d. Mariner's Guide
1908: What is the brightest navigational planet?

    a. Saturn
    b. Jupiter
    c. Mars
    d. Venus
1909: In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to the equator on the Earth?

    a. Prime vertical circle
    b. Principal vertical circle
    c. Parallels of altitude
    d. Horizon
1910: What sextant correction corrects the apparent altitude to the equivalent reading at the center of the Earth?

    a. Phase
    b. Parallax
    c. Semidiameter
    d. Augmentation
1914: In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to longitude on the Earth?

    a. Altitude
    b. Azimuth angle
    c. Horizon
    d. Zenith distance
1916: The prime vertical is the reference point from which the angle of which type of observation is measured?

    a. Sextant angle
    b. Azimuth
    c. Amplitude
    d. Local apparent noon
1918: The Moon appears larger in diameter at the zenith than when near the horizon. What is this called?

    a. Parallax in altitude
    b. Augmentation
    c. Horizontal parallax
    d. Libration
1919: The nadir is the point on the celestial sphere that is __________.

    a. 90° away from the zenith
    b. over Greenwich
    c. on the western horizon
    d. directly below the observer
1920: Because the actual center of some planets may differ from the observed center, the navigator applies a correction known as the __________.

    a. phase correction
    b. refraction correction
    c. semidiameter correction
    d. augmentation correction
1922: In the North Sea area, you sight a buoy showing a quick white light with 9 flashes every 15 seconds. Which of the four topmarks shown would be fitted to the buoy? (D030NG )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
1923: Little or no change in the barometric reading over a twelve hour period indicates __________.

    a. stormy weather is imminent
    b. that present weather conditions will continue
    c. a defect in the barometer
    d. increasing wind strength
1924: The point on the celestial sphere that is directly below an observer is the __________.

    a. pole
    b. nadir
    c. node
    d. zenith
1925: Above-normal tides near the center of a hurricane may be caused by the __________.

    a. high barometric pressure
    b. jet stream
    c. storm surge
    d. torrential rains
1926: The prime vertical is the great circle on the celestial sphere that passes through the __________.

    a. celestial poles and the zenith
    b. zenith, nadir and the east point of the horizon
    c. celestial poles and the celestial body
    d. zenith, nadir and celestial body
1928: "Rotation" is the __________.

    a. wobbling of the Earth about its axis
    b. motion of bodies in the solar system relative to the stars
    c. motion of a celestial body in its orbit
    d. spinning of a celestial body about its axis
1930: The phase correction should be applied to sights of Venus and Mars __________.

    a. during day time observations only
    b. during twilight observations only
    c. at all times
    d. when observed at altitudes of less than 25°
1932: The zenith is the point on the celestial sphere that is __________.

    a. 90° away from the poles
    b. directly over the observer
    c. on the eastern horizon
    d. over Greenwich
1934: The great circle of the celestial sphere that passes through the zenith, nadir, and the eastern point of the horizon is the __________.

    a. principal vertical
    b. hour circle
    c. celestial meridian
    d. prime vertical
1936: The parallel of latitude at 66°33'N is the __________.

    a. Tropic of Cancer
    b. Tropic of Capricorn
    c. Arctic Circle
    d. ecliptic
1940: The diameter of the Sun and Moon as seen from the Earth varies slightly but averages about __________.

    a. 1'
    b. 52'
    c. 32'
    d. 15.5'
1941: IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, the starboard side of a channel would be marked by a __________.

    a. red can buoy
    b. red conical buoy
    c. green can buoy
    d. green conical buoy
1942: In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to the declination of the equator system?

    a. Nadir
    b. Azimuth angle
    c. Altitude
    d. Zenith distance
1944: In the horizon system of coordinates what is the equivalent to the celestial equator of the celestial equator system?

    a. Horizon
    b. Prime vertical circle
    c. Prime meridian
    d. Principal vertical circle
1946: When making landfall at night, you can determine if a light is a major light or an offshore buoy by __________.

    a. the intensity of the light
    b. checking the period and characteristics against the Light List
    c. the color, because the buoy will have only a red or a green light
    d. Any of the above can be used to identify the light.
1948: "Space motion" is the __________.

    a. action causing precession of the equinoxes
    b. motion of a body in the solar system relative to the stars
    c. motion of a celestial body in its orbit
    d. irregularity in the motion of the Earth caused by other celestial bodies
1949: "Revolution" is the __________.

    a. wobbling of the Earth about its axis
    b. motion of bodies in the solar system relative to the stars
    c. motion of a celestial body in its orbit
    d. spinning of a celestial body about its axis
1949: "Revolution" is the __________.

    a. wobbling of the Earth about its axis
    b. motion of bodies in the solar system relative to the stars
    c. motion of a celestial body in its orbit
    d. spinning of a celestial body about its axis
1950: The error in a sextant altitude caused by refraction is greatest when the celestial body is __________.

    a. high in the sky
    b. near the horizon
    c. rising
    d. at or near transit
1951: Spring tides occur __________.

    a. when the moon is new or full
    b. when the moon and sun have declination of the same name
    c. only when the moon and sun are on the same sides of the earth
    d. at the beginning of spring when the sun is over the equator
1952: The Moon is subject to four types of libration. Which of the following is NOT one of these types of libration?

    a. Libration in longitude
    b. Geocentric libration
    c. Diurnal libration
    d. Physical libration
1954: In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to the poles on the Earth?

    a. Celestial poles
    b. Zenith, nadir
    c. Ecliptic poles
    d. Nodes
1955: The letter A in illustration D006NG represents the __________.

    a. geoidal horizon
    b. sensible horizon
    c. celestial horizon
    d. visible horizon
1956: In the North Sea area, you sight a buoy showing a quick white light with 6 flashes, followed by one long flash at 15 second intervals. Which of the four topmarks shown would be fitted to this buoy? (D030NG )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
1958: The spinning of a celestial body about its axis is known as __________.

    a. rotation
    b. revolution
    c. space motion
    d. nutation
1960: Astronomical refraction causes a celestial body to appear __________.

    a. to the left of its position in the Northern Hemisphere and to the right in the Southern Hemisphere
    b. to the right of its position in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere
    c. higher than its actual position
    d. lower than its actual position
1961: What kind of pressure systems travel in tropical waves?

    a. Subsurface pressure
    b. Terrastatic pressure
    c. High pressure
    d. Low pressure
1962: When outbound from a U.S. port, a buoy displaying a flashing red light indicates __________.

    a. the port side of the channel
    b. a sharp turn in the channel to the right
    c. a junction with the preferred channel to the left
    d. a wreck to be left on the vessel's starboard side
1964: The great circle on the celestial sphere that passes through the zenith and the north and south poles is the __________.

    a. hour circle
    b. prime vertical
    c. principal vertical
    d. ecliptic
1968: The Earth has the shape of a(n) __________.

    a. sphere
    b. oblate spheroid
    c. spheroid of revolution
    d. oblate eggoid
1969: The precession of the equinoxes of the Earth is __________.

    a. the gradual increase in the period of rotation caused by the effects of the Moon
    b. the irregularity of the Earth's orbit caused by influences of the Sun and Moon
    c. caused by the elliptical shape of the Earth's orbit
    d. similar to a top spinning with its axis tilted
1970: The azimuth angle of a sun sight is always measured from the __________.

    a. Greenwich meridian
    b. prime vertical circle
    c. principal vertical circle
    d. first point of Aries
1972: The point on the celestial sphere that is directly over the observer is the __________.

    a. node
    b. pole
    c. zenith
    d. nadir
1974: Ocean currents are well defined and __________.

    a. create large waves in the direction of the current
    b. change direction 360° during a 24 hour period
    c. remain fairly constant in direction and velocity throughout the year
    d. are characterized by a light green color
1976: The Moon is nearest to the Earth at __________.

    a. perigee
    b. the vernal equinox
    c. the new Moon
    d. the full Moon
1978: A celestial body's complete orbit around another body is __________.

    a. a rotation
    b. a revolution
    c. space motion
    d. nutation
1979: The principal vertical circle is that great circle on the celestial sphere that passes through the __________.

    a. zenith and the celestial body
    b. zenith and the north and south poles
    c. poles and Greenwich
    d. zenith and is parallel to the horizon
1982: In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to the Greenwich hour angle of the celestial equator system?

    a. Zenith distance
    b. Coaltitude
    c. Altitude
    d. Azimuth
1984: When a dual purpose marking is used, the mariner following the Intracoastal Waterway should be guided by the __________.

    a. color of the aid
    b. shape of the aid
    c. color of the top band
    d. shape of the yellow mark
1986: The Moon is farthest from the Earth at __________.

    a. the full Moon
    b. apogee
    c. the lunar solstice
    d. quadrature
1987: An instrument useful in predicting fog is the __________.

    a. sling psychrometer
    b. microbarograph
    c. anemometer
    d. aneroid barometer
1988: The parallel of latitude at 23°27'N is the __________.

    a. Tropic of Cancer
    b. Tropic of Capricorn
    c. Arctic Circle
    d. ecliptic
1989: In the horizon system of coordinates what is the equivalent to the meridians on the Earth?

    a. Horizon
    b. Hour circle
    c. Vertical circles
    d. Celestial meridians
1990: The navigational triangle uses parts of two systems of coordinates, one of which is the celestial equator system, the other system is the __________.

    a. terrestrial system
    b. horizon system
    c. astronomical system
    d. ecliptic system
1992: The parallel of latitude at 23°27'S is the __________.

    a. Tropic of Cancer
    b. Tropic of Capricorn
    c. Arctic Circle
    d. ecliptic
1994: Fomalhaut is found in what constellation?

    a. Leo
    b. Taurus
    c. Pisces
    d. Canis Major
1996: When approaching a lock entrance, the visual signal displayed when a single lock is ready for entrance is a flashing __________.

    a. red light
    b. green light
    c. amber light
    d. white light
2000: A vessel heading SE is on a course of __________.

    a. 112.5°
    b. 135.0°
    c. 157.5°
    d. 180.0°
2001: You have changed course and steadied up on a range. Your heading is 285°T, same as the charted range, and it appears as in illustration D048NG. After several minutes the range appears as in illustration D047NG and your heading is still 285°T. This indicates a __________. (D047NG )

    a. south-setting current
    b. north-setting current
    c. leeway caused by a NE'ly wind
    d. course made good to the left of the DR track
2002: What term is used to describe a river barge designed to carry coal or any similar cargo not requiring weather protection?

    a. Single skin
    b. Double skin
    c. Open hopper
    d. Deck barge
2004: The velocity of the wind, its steady direction, and the amount of time it has blown determines a wind driven current's __________.

    a. temperature
    b. density
    c. deflection
    d. speed
2006: What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the port beam?

    a. 315°
    b. 300°
    c. 270°
    d. 235°
2007: Information about the direction and velocity of rotary tidal currents is found in the __________.

    a. Mariner's Guide
    b. Tidal Current Tables
    c. Nautical Almanac
    d. Tide Tables
2008: What term is used to describe a tank barge constructed with the structural framing outside the cargo tank and the cargo tank plating separated from the shell plating?

    a. Shell plated
    b. Double hull
    c. Hopper type
    d. Independent tank
2010: A vessel heading ESE is on a course of __________.

    a. 112.5°
    b. 135.0°
    c. 157.5°
    d. 180.0°
2014: Which stock number indicates an NGA (NIMA) chart designed for navigation outside of outlying reefs and shoals?

    a. 19BCO19243
    b. WOPGN530
    c. LCORR5873
    d. 14XCO14902
2016: Which statement about the Flinders bar of the magnetic compass is CORRECT?

    a. It compensates for the error caused by the vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field.
    b. It compensates for error caused by the heeling of a vessel.
    c. It compensates for quadrantal deviation.
    d. It is only needed in equatorial waters.
2018: Which magnetic compass corrector(s) can be set while the vessel is on a heading of magnetic east or magnetic west?

    a. Quadrantal spheres
    b. Heeling magnet
    c. Flinders bar
    d. Athwartships magnets
2019: At evening stars, the last stars that should be observed are those with an azimuth in what quadrant?

    a. Southern
    b. Western
    c. Northern
    d. Eastern
2020: A vessel heading ENE is on a course of __________.

    a. 022.5°
    b. 045.0°
    c. 067.5°
    d. 090.0°
2021: While on watch, you notice that the air temperature is dropping and is approaching the dew point. Which type of weather should be forecasted?

    a. Hail
    b. Heavy rain
    c. Sleet
    d. Fog
2022: The GP of a body for a high altitude sight is determined from the declination and the __________.

    a. right ascension
    b. sidereal hour angle
    c. Greenwich hour angle
    d. observed altitude
2024: In the North Sea area, you sight a buoy with a quick light showing 3 flashes every 10 seconds. Which topmark in illustration D030NG would be fitted to this buoy under the IALA Buoyage Systems? (D030NG )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
2028: Which stock number indicates an NGA (NIMA) chart designed for navigation and anchorage in a small waterway?

    a. WOAZC17
    b. LCORR5876
    c. 15XHA15883
    d. PILOT55
2030: A vessel heading NE is on a course of __________.

    a. 022.5°
    b. 045.0°
    c. 067.5°
    d. 090.0°
2040: A vessel heading NNE is on a course of __________.

    a. 022.5°
    b. 045.0°
    c. 067.5°
    d. 090.0°
2042: At morning stars, the last stars that should be observed are those with an azimuth in which quadrant?

    a. Eastern
    b. Southern
    c. Western
    d. Northern
2043: Stormy weather is usually associated with regions of __________.

    a. changing barometric pressure
    b. high barometric pressure
    c. steady barometric pressure
    d. low barometric pressure
2044: What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the port quarter?

    a. 195°
    b. 225°
    c. 240°
    d. 265°
2048: You are upbound approaching a lock and dam and see two green lights in a vertical line. This indicates __________.

    a. the downstream end of an intermediate wall
    b. that a double lockage is in progress
    c. the downstream end of the land wall
    d. the navigable pass of a fixed weir dam
2049: At morning stars, the first stars that should be observed are those with an azimuth in which quadrant?

    a. Eastern
    b. Southern
    c. Western
    d. Northern
2050: The point where the vertical rise or fall of tide has stopped is referred to as __________.

    a. slack water
    b. the rip tide
    c. the stand of the tide
    d. the reverse of the tide
2052: Under the chart numbering system used by NGA (NIMA), the first digit of a multi-digit number indicates __________.

    a. the general geographic area
    b. the general scale of the chart
    c. whether it is a major or minor chart
    d. the projection used to construct the chart
2053: When outbound from a U.S. port, a buoy displaying a flashing red light indicates __________.

    a. a sharp turn in the channel to the right
    b. the port side of the channel
    c. a junction with the preferred channel to the left
    d. a wreck to be left on the vessel's starboard side
2054: The diagram is of a fixed C of E lock and dam. What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the position indicated by the letter B? (D038NG )

    a. One red light
    b. Two green lights
    c. Three green lights
    d. No lights
2056: This illustration represents a fixed C of E lock and dam. What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the position indicated by the letter C? (D038NG )

    a. One red light
    b. Two green lights
    c. Three green lights
    d. No lights
2058: Illustration D038NG represents a fixed C of E lock and dam. What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the position indicated by the letter D in the illustration? (D038NG )

    a. One red light
    b. Two green lights
    c. Three green lights
    d. No lights
2059: Illustration D038NG represents a fixed C of E lock and dam. What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the position indicated by the letter E in the illustration? (D038NG )

    a. One red light
    b. Two red lights
    c. Two green lights
    d. Three green lights
2060: What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the starboard quarter?

    a. 045°
    b. 090°
    c. 135°
    d. 225°
2061: Fog is likely to occur when there is little difference between the dew point and the __________.

    a. relative humidity
    b. air temperature
    c. barometric pressure
    d. absolute humidity
2062: The Illustration represents a fixed C of E lock and dam. What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the position indicated by the letter F in the illustration? (D038NG )

    a. One red light
    b. Two red lights
    c. Two green lights
    d. Three green lights
2066: Diagram number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is high water and the wickets are down so that there is an unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s) will be shown at B if the lock walls and piers are not awash?

    a. One red light
    b. Two red lights
    c. Three red lights
    d. No lights
2067: The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 10 miles and is 11 feet high. If the visibility is 5 miles and your height of eye is 20 feet, at what approximate distance will you sight the light?

    a. 6.3 miles
    b. 7.4 miles
    c. 8.4 miles
    d. 9.0 miles
2068: The illustration represents a movable dam. If there is high water and the wickets are down so that there is an unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s) will be shown at D if the lock walls and piers are not awash? (D037NG )

    a. One red light
    b. Two red lights
    c. Three red lights
    d. One amber light
2069: Illustration D037NG represents a moveable dam. If a bear trap is open what will be displayed at the lock to indicate this condition? (D037NG )

    a. A flashing amber light
    b. A white circular disc
    c. A red diamond
    d. Two amber lights
2070: What is the relative bearing of an object on the port beam?

    a. 045°
    b. 090°
    c. 180°
    d. 270°
2072: The Illustration represents a movable dam. If a bear trap is open what will be displayed at the lock to indicate this condition? (D037NG )

    a. An amber light under a red light
    b. A white square
    c. A green triangle
    d. A yellow pentagon
2073: Chart legends printed in capital letters show that the associated landmark is __________.

    a. a radio transmitter
    b. a government facility or station
    c. inconspicuous
    d. conspicuous
2074: When approaching a lock and at a distance of not more than a mile, vessels desiring a single lockage shall sound which signal?

    a. One long blast followed by one short blast
    b. One short blast followed by one long blast
    c. Two short blasts
    d. Two long blasts
2075: Information about major breakdowns, repairs, or other emergency operations with regard to weirs and (or) wicket dams, on the western rivers, may be obtained by consulting the __________.

    a. Light List Vol. V
    b. U.S. Coast Pilot
    c. Broadcast Notice to Mariners
    d. Sailing Directions
2076: You should plot your dead reckoning position __________.

    a. from every fix or running fix
    b. from every estimated position
    c. every three minutes in pilotage waters
    d. only in pilotage waters
2078: If a towboat requires a double lockage it shall give which sound signal at a distance of not more than one mile from the lock?

    a. One short blast followed by two long blasts
    b. One long blast followed by one short blast
    c. Two long blasts followed by one short blast
    d. One long blast followed by two short blasts
2079: Permission to enter the riverward chamber of twin locks is given by the lockmaster and consists of which sound signal?

    a. One short blast
    b. Two short blasts
    c. One long blast
    d. Two long blasts
2080: You are on course 030°T. The relative bearing of a lighthouse is 45°. What is the true bearing?

    a. 015°
    b. 075°
    c. 255°
    d. 345°
2081: You are taking bearings on two known objects ashore. The BEST fix is obtained when the angle between the lines of position is __________.

    a. 30°
    b. 45°
    c. 60°
    d. 90°
2082: You are holding position above Gallipolis Lock and Dam when you hear two long blasts of the horn from the lock. This indicates that you should __________.

    a. enter the riverward lock
    b. hold position until two more upbound tows have locked through
    c. enter the landward lock
    d. hold position until the lower gates are closed
2083: Information about major breakdowns, repairs, or other emergency operations with regard to weirs and (or) wicket dams, on the western rivers, may be obtained by consulting the __________.

    a. U.S. Coast Pilot
    b. Broadcast Notice to Mariners
    c. Sailing Directions
    d. Light List Vol. V
2084: You are approaching Gallipolis Lock and Dam. The traffic signal light is flashing red. You should __________.

    a. hold your position and not attempt to enter the lock
    b. approach the lock slowly under full control
    c. proceed at normal speed to enter the lock
    d. None of the above
2085: Information about major breakdowns, repairs, or other emergency operations with regard to weirs and (or) wicket dams, on the western rivers, may be obtained from the __________.

    a. Broadcast Notice to Mariners
    b. Light List Vol. V
    c. U.S. Coast Pilot
    d. Sailing Directions
2086: You are downbound on the Ohio River locking through Greenup. The chamber has been emptied and the lower gates are open. You hear one short blast of the whistle from the lock. You should __________.

    a. leave the lock
    b. hold up until another tow enters the adjacent lock
    c. tie off to the guide wall until the river is clear of traffic
    d. hold in the lock chamber due to a malfunction with the gate
2087: The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 20 miles and is 52 feet (16 meters) high. If the visibility is 20 miles and your height of eye is 20 feet (6 meters), at what approximate distance will you sight the light?

    a. 33.0 nm
    b. 20.0 nm
    c. 13.5 nm
    d. 8.5 nm
2088: Information about major breakdowns, repairs, or other emergency operations with regard to weirs and (or) wicket dams, on the western rivers, may be obtained by consulting the __________.

    a. Sailing Directions
    b. Light List Vol. V
    c. U.S. Coast Pilot
    d. Broadcast Notice to Mariners
2089: Permission to leave the riverward chamber of twin locks is given by the lockmaster and consists of which sound signal?

    a. One short blast
    b. Two short blasts
    c. One long blast
    d. Two long blasts
2090: You are underway in an area where the charted depth is 8 fathoms. You compute the height of tide to be -4.0 feet. The draft of your vessel is 5.0 feet (1.52 meters). You determine the depth of the water beneath your keel to be __________.

    a. 39 feet (11.9 meters)
    b. 43 feet (13.1 meters)
    c. 47 feet (14.3 meters)
    d. 57 feet (17.4 meters)
2091: The velocity of the current in large coastal harbors is __________.

    a. unpredictable
    b. generally constant
    c. generally too weak to be of concern
    d. predicted in Tidal Current Tables
2092: Descending boats, while awaiting their turn to enter a lock, shall NOT block traffic from the lock. They shall be above the lock by at LEAST __________.

    a. 100 feet
    b. 200 feet
    c. 300 feet
    d. 400 feet
2093: Information about major breakdowns, repairs, or other emergency operations with regard to weirs and (or) wicket dams, on the western rivers, may be obtained from the __________.

    a. Light List Vol. V
    b. List of Lights
    c. Broadcast Notice to Mariners
    d. Sailing Directions
2097: Information about major breakdowns, repairs, or other emergency operations with regard to weirs and (or) wicket dams, on the western rivers, may be obtained by consulting the __________.

    a. Sailing Directions
    b. Broadcast Notice to Mariners
    c. Light List Vol. V
    d. None of the above
2098: Which magnetic compass corrector(s) can be set while the vessel is on a heading of magnetic east or magnetic west?

    a. Quadrantal spheres
    b. Heeling magnets
    c. Fore-and-aft magnets
    d. Athwartships magnets
2099: You are inbound in a channel marked by a range. The range line is 309°T. You are steering 306°T. The range appears as shown and is closing. Which action should you take? (D047NG )

    a. Continue on the present heading until the range is in line, then alter course to the left.
    b. Continue on course until the range is closed, then alter course to the right.
    c. Immediately alter course to the right to bring the range in line.
    d. Immediately alter course to 309°T.
2100: You are underway in a vessel with a draft of 7.0 feet (2.1 meters). The charted depth for your position is 9 fathoms. You compute the height of tide to be +3.0 feet (0.9 meters). You determine the depth of the water beneath your keel to be __________.

    a. 32 feet (9.8 meters)
    b. 41 feet (12.6 meters)
    c. 50 feet (15.3 meters)
    d. 64 feet (19.6 meters)
2101: Information about major breakdowns, repairs, or other emergency operations with regard to weirs and (or) wicket dams, on the western rivers, may be obtained by consulting the __________.

    a. Broadcast Notice to Mariners
    b. Light List Vol. V
    c. U.S. Coast Pilot
    d. All of the above
2102: The subregions of the United States Gulf and East Coasts are numbered 11, 12 and 13 within the chart numbering system. Which chart number indicates a chart for either the Gulf or East Coast?

    a. 21214
    b. 11314
    c. 14313
    d. 14114
2103: The description "Racon" beside an illustration on a chart would mean a __________.

    a. radar calibration beacon
    b. circular radio beacon
    c. radar conspicuous beacon
    d. radar transponder beacon
2104: A white buoy marked with an orange rectangle indicates __________.

    a. mid-channel
    b. a fish net area
    c. general information
    d. an anchorage
2110: You are underway in a vessel with a draft of 6.0 feet. You are in an area where the charted depth of the water is 4 fathoms. You would expect the depth of water beneath your keel to be approximately __________.

    a. 12 feet
    b. 18 feet
    c. 24 feet
    d. 30 feet
2111: Vessels regularly navigating Ohio and Mississippi rivers above Cairo, Illinois, and their tributaries, shall at all times have on board a copy of __________.

    a. Tide Tables
    b. U.S. Coast Pilot
    c. U.S. Army Corps of Engineers Navigation Regulations (Blue Book)
    d. Sailing Directions
2112: Vessels regularly navigating rivers above Cairo, Illinois, shall at all times have on board a copy of __________.

    a. U.S. Coast Pilot
    b. U.S. Army Corps of Engineers Regulations (Blue Book)
    c. Nautical Almanac for the year
    d. Light List Vol. V
2113: Vessels regularly navigating rivers above Cairo, Illinois, shall at all times have on board a copy of __________.

    a. U.S. Army Corps of Engineers Regulations (Blue Book)
    b. Nautical Almanac for the year
    c. Sailing Directions
    d. Light List Vol. V
2114: Vessels regularly navigating rivers above Cairo, Illinois, shall at all times have on board a copy of __________.

    a. Sailing Directions
    b. Nautical Almanac for the year
    c. U.S. Coast Pilot
    d. U.S. Army Corps of Engineers Regulations (Blue Book)
2115: Vessels regularly navigating rivers above Cairo, Illinois, shall at all times have on board a copy of __________.

    a. U.S. Army Corps of Engineers Regulations (Blue Book)
    b. Light List Vol. V
    c. U.S. Coast Pilot
    d. None of the above
2116: Vessels regularly navigating rivers above Cairo, Illinois, shall at all times have on board a copy of the __________.

    a. Nautical Almanac for the year
    b. U.S. Army Corps of Engineers Regulations (Blue Book)
    c. Sailing Directions
    d. All of the above
2119: Which stock number indicates an NGA (NIMA) chart designed for fixing positions at sea and DR plotting while on a long voyage?

    a. WOAGN520
    b. PILOT16
    c. 16BCO16212
    d. WOPZC5245
2120: If a chart indicates the depth of water to be 6 fathoms and your draft is 6.0 feet, what is the depth of the water under your keel? (Assume the actual depth and charted depth to be the same)

    a. 6.0 feet
    b. 26.5 feet
    c. 30.0 feet
    d. 56.5 feet
2121: In plotting a running fix, how many fixed objects are needed to take your lines of position from?

    a. Three
    b. Two
    c. One
    d. None
2122: A position that is obtained by using two or more intersecting lines of position taken at nearly the same time, is a(n) __________.

    a. fix
    b. running fix
    c. estimated position
    d. dead-reckoning position
2124: You must draw a plotting sheet covering latitudes 45°N to 49°N and longitudes 179°E to 178°W. If the distance between latitude 45°N to 49°N is 20 inches, what is the distance between the meridians of 1° of longitude?

    a. 2.9 inches
    b. 3.2 inches
    c. 3.4 inches
    d. 3.7 inches
2125: On charts of U.S. waters, a magenta marking is NOT used for marking a __________.

    a. radio beacon
    b. lighted buoy
    c. 5-fathom curve
    d. prohibited area
2126: Your chart indicates that there is an isolated rock and names the rock using vertical letters. This indicates the __________.

    a. rock is visible at low water springs only
    b. rock is a hazard to deep draft vessels only
    c. rock is dry at high water
    d. exact position of the rock is doubtful
2127: Diagram number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is high water and the wickets are down so that there is an unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s) will be shown at B if the lock walls and piers are not awash?

    a. No lights
    b. One red light
    c. Two red lights
    d. Three red lights
2128: Diagram number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is high water and the wickets are down so that there is an unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s) will be shown at B if the lock walls and piers are not awash?

    a. Three red lights
    b. Two red lights
    c. One red lights
    d. No lights
2129: Diagram number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is high water and the wickets are down so that there is an unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s) will be shown at B if the lock walls and piers are not awash?

    a. No lights
    b. Three red lights
    c. Two red lights
    d. One red light
2130: You are underway and pass by a lighthouse. Its light, which was white since you first sighted it, changes to red. This means __________.

    a. the light is characterized as alternately flashing
    b. the lighthouse has lost power and has switched to emergency lighting
    c. it is the identifying light characteristic of the lighthouse
    d. you have entered an area of shoal water or other hazard
2131: The white lights in a vertical line on a multiple-span bridge indicate __________.

    a. the main channel
    b. the draw span is inoperable
    c. the river is obstructed under that span
    d. scaffolding under the span is reducing the vertical clearance
2132: What is the definition of height of tide?

    a. The vertical difference between the heights of low and high water
    b. The vertical difference between a datum plane and the ocean bottom
    c. The vertical distance from the tidal datum to the level of the water at any time
    d. The vertical distance from the surface of the water to the ocean floor
2134: The Moon and Sun are in line over your meridian. Tomorrow when the Sun is over your meridian, the Moon will be __________.

    a. over the meridian too
    b. about 12°East of the meridian
    c. about 6°West of the meridian
    d. about 11° west of the meridian
2140: The visible range marked on charts for lights is the __________.

    a. minimum distance at which the light may be seen with infinite visibility
    b. minimum distance at which the light may be seen based on a 12 mile distance to visible horizon
    c. maximum distance the light may be seen restricted by the height of the light and the curvature of the earth
    d. maximum distance at which a light may be seen in clear weather with 10 miles visibility
2141: What lights would you see on the Illinois water way when any wickets of the dam or bear traps are open, or partially open, which may cause a set in the current conditions in the upper lock approach?

    a. Red over green
    b. Green over red
    c. Red over amber (yellow)
    d. Green over amber (yellow)
2141: What lights would you see on the Illinois water way when any wickets of the dam or bear traps are open, or partially open, which may cause a set in the current conditions in the upper lock approach?

    a. Red over green
    b. Green over red
    c. Red over amber (yellow)
    d. Green over amber (yellow)
2142: Which lights would you see on the Illinois waterway when any wickets of the dam or bear traps are open, or partially open, which may cause a set in the current conditions in the upper lock approach?

    a. Green over amber (yellow)
    b. Red over amber (yellow)
    c. Red over blue
    d. Green over red
2143: What lights would you see on the Illinois water way when any wickets of the dam or bear traps are open, or partially open, which may cause a set in the current conditions in the upper lock approach?

    a. Red over amber (yellow)
    b. Green over amber (yellow)
    c. Red over Green
    d. Green over Red
2144: Yesterday your chronometer read 02h 59m 58s at the 1500 GMT time tick. Today the chronometer reads 03h 00m 02s at the 1500 GMT time tick. What is the chronometer error?

    a. 02s fast
    b. 03h 00m 02s fast
    c. +3s
    d. -3s
2145: What lights would you see on the Illinois water way when any wickets of the dam or bear traps are open, or partially open, which may cause a set in the current conditions in the upper lock approach?

    a. Green over red
    b. Red over blue
    c. Green over amber (yellow)
    d. Red over amber (yellow)
2146: What lights would you see on the Illinois water way when any wickets of the dam or bear traps are open, or partially open, which may cause a set in the current conditions in the upper lock approach?

    a. Green over red
    b. Red over blue
    c. Red over amber (yellow)
    d. None of the above
2146: What lights would you see on the Illinois water way when any wickets of the dam or bear traps are open, or partially open, which may cause a set in the current conditions in the upper lock approach?

    a. Green over red
    b. Red over blue
    c. Red over amber (yellow)
    d. None of the above
2147: What lights would you see on the Illinois waterway when any wickets of the dam or bear traps are open, or partially open, which may cause a set in the current conditions in the upper lock approach?

    a. Green over blue
    b. Red over amber (yellow)
    c. Red over green
    d. None of the above
2150: On a Mercator chart, 1 nautical mile is equal to __________.

    a. 1 minute of longitude
    b. 1 degree of longitude
    c. 1 minute of latitude
    d. 1 degree of latitude
2152: Permanent magnetism is found in __________.

    a. hard iron
    b. soft iron
    c. vertical iron only
    d. horizontal iron only
2158: Permanent magnetism is caused by __________.

    a. operation of electrical equipment and generators on board ship
    b. the earth's magnetic field affecting the ship's hard iron during construction
    c. the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field acting on the horizontal soft iron
    d. the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field acting on the vertical soft iron
2159: Induced magnetism is found in __________.

    a. hard iron
    b. soft iron
    c. vertical iron only
    d. horizontal iron only
2160: Information for updating nautical charts is primarily found in the __________.

    a. Notice to Mariners
    b. Coast Pilots
    c. nautical chart catalogs
    d. Sailing Directions
2161: Yesterday your chronometer read 03h 01m 56s at the 1500 GMT time tick. Today your chronometer read 03h 01m 58s at the 1500 GMT time tick. What is the chronometer error?

    a. 03h 01m 58s fast
    b. 01m 58s fast
    c. +2s
    d. -2s
2162: The new Moon cannot be seen because the Moon is __________.

    a. in the opposite direction of the Sun
    b. below the horizon
    c. between the Earth and the Sun
    d. at quadrature
2163: The letter C in illustration D006NG represents the __________.

    a. visible horizon
    b. geoidal horizon
    c. celestial horizon
    d. sensible horizon
2164: The line connecting the points of the earth's surface where there is no dip is the __________.

    a. agonic line
    b. magnetic equator
    c. isodynamic
    d. isopor
2164: The line connecting the points of the earth's surface where there is no dip is the __________.

    a. agonic line
    b. magnetic equator
    c. isodynamic
    d. isopor
2165: The illustration represents a movable dam. If there is high water and the wickets are down so that there is an unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s) will be shown at B if the lock walls and piers are not awash? (D037NG )

    a. Three red lights
    b. Two red lights
    c. One red light
    d. One amber light
2166: Diagram number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is high water and the wickets are down so that there is an unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s) will be shown at B if the lock walls and piers are not awash?

    a. One amber light
    b. Three red lights
    c. Two red lights
    d. One red light
2167: Diagram number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is high water and the wickets are down so that there is an unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s) will be shown at B if the lock walls and piers are not awash?

    a. One red light
    b. Two red lights
    c. Three red lights
    d. One amber light
2168: By convention, the north pole of a magnet is painted __________.

    a. red
    b. blue
    c. white
    d. black
2169: To make sure of getting the full advantage of a favorable current, you should reach an entrance or strait at what time in relation to the predicted time of the favorable current?

    a. 30 minutes before the predicted time
    b. One hour after the predicted time
    c. At the predicted time
    d. 30 minutes before flood, one hour after ebb
2170: The temperature at which the air is saturated with water vapor and below which condensation of water vapor will occur is referred to as the __________.

    a. precipitation point
    b. vapor point
    c. dew point
    d. absolute humidity
2171: Diagram number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is high water and the wickets are down so that there is an unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s) will be shown at B if the lock walls and piers are not awash?

    a. One amber light
    b. One red light
    c. Two red lights
    d. Three red lights
2174: By convention, the Earth's north magnetic pole is colored __________.

    a. red
    b. white
    c. blue
    d. black
2175: Diagram Number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is high water and the wickets are down so that there is an unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, which light(s) will be shown at D if the lock walls and piers are not awash?

    a. One amber light
    b. One red light
    c. Two red lights
    d. Three red lights
2176: The illustration represents a movable dam. If there is high water and the wickets are down so that there is an unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s) will be shown at D if the lock walls and piers are not awash? (D037NG )

    a. Three red lights
    b. Two red lights
    c. One red light
    d. One amber light
2177: This diagram represents a movable dam. If there is high water and the wickets are down so that there is an unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s) will be shown at D if the lock walls and piers are not awash? (D037NG )

    a. One amber light
    b. Three red lights
    c. Two red lights
    d. One red light
2178: The Flinders bar and the quadrantal spheres should be tested for permanent magnetism at what interval?

    a. They are not subject to permanent magnetism; no check is necessary.
    b. Semiannually
    c. Annually
    d. Every five years
2179: A vessel is heading magnetic northwest and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 312°. The quadrantal spheres are arranged athwartships. What action should be taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?

    a. If the quadrantal spheres are all of the way in, replace them with larger ones.
    b. If the quadrantal spheres are all of the way out, remove one of the spheres.
    c. If the quadrantal spheres are all of the way out, move the spheres in.
    d. If the quadrantal spheres are all of the way out, replace them with smaller spheres.
2180: Relative humidity is defined as __________.

    a. the maximum vapor content the air is capable of holding
    b. the minimum vapor content the air is capable of holding
    c. the ratio of the actual vapor content at the current temperature to the air's vapor holding capability
    d. the relation of the moisture content of the air to barometric pressure
2181: Diagram Number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is high water and the wickets are down so that there is an unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s) will be shown at D if the lock walls and piers are not awash?

    a. One red light
    b. Two red lights
    c. Three red lights
    d. No lights
2182: Diagram Number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is high water and the wickets are down so that there is an unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s) will be shown at D if the lock walls and piers are not awash?

    a. No lights
    b. One red light
    c. Two red lights
    d. Three red lights
2183: Diagram number D037NG represents a movable dam. If there is high water and the wickets are down so that there is an unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s) will be shown at D if the lock walls and piers are not awash?

    a. Three red lights
    b. Two red lights
    c. One red light
    d. No light
2184: By convention, the south seeking ends of a compass' magnets are colored __________.

    a. blue
    b. red
    c. white
    d. black
2186: You have completed the magnetic compass adjustments on magnetic east and magnetic south. The vessel is now steady on magnetic west but the compass reads 266°. What action should be taken?

    a. Adjust the compass with the athwartships magnets until the compass reads 268°.
    b. Adjust the compass with the fore-and-aft magnets until the compass reads 270°.
    c. Adjust the compass with the quadrantal spheres until the compass reads 274°.
    d. Adjust the compass with the fore-and-aft magnets until the compass reads 268°.
2187: The diagram represents a movable dam. If there is high water and the wickets are down so that there is an unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s) will be shown at D if the lock walls and piers are not awash? (D037NG )

    a. No lights
    b. Three red lights
    c. Two red lights
    d. One red lights
2188: A vessel is heading magnetic north and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 003°. What action should be taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?

    a. If the red ends are to starboard the athwartships magnets should be lowered.
    b. If the blue ends are forward the fore-and-aft magnets should be raised.
    c. If the red ends are to starboard and the tray is at the top add some athwartships magnets.
    d. If the blue ends are aft the fore-and-aft magnets should be raised.
2188: A vessel is heading magnetic north and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 003°. What action should be taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?

    a. If the red ends are to starboard the athwartships magnets should be lowered.
    b. If the blue ends are forward the fore-and-aft magnets should be raised.
    c. If the red ends are to starboard and the tray is at the top add some athwartships magnets.
    d. If the blue ends are aft the fore-and-aft magnets should be raised.
2189: A vessel is heading magnetic north and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 003°. What action should be taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?

    a. If the blue ends are to port and the athwartships tray is at the bottom, you should add some more magnets.
    b. If the blue ends are to port and the athwartships tray is at the top, you should add some more magnets.
    c. If the red ends are to port, you should lower the athwartships tray.
    d. If the red ends are to port and the tray is at the bottom, you should raise the tray.
2190: Clouds are classified according to their __________.

    a. size
    b. moisture content
    c. altitude and how they were formed
    d. location in a front
2191: The chart indicates the variation was 3°45'E in 1988, and the annual change is increasing 6'. If you use the chart in 1991 how much variation should you apply?

    a. 3°27'E
    b. 3°27'W
    c. 3°45'E
    d. 4°03'E
2192: Off Fire Island, NY, with winds from the southwest, the average wind-driven current flows in a direction of __________.

    a. 256°
    b. 170°
    c. 076°
    d. 014°
2194: A vessel is heading magnetic north and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 003°. What action should be taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?

    a. If the red ends of the magnets are forward you should lower the fore-and-aft magnets.
    b. If the blue ends of the magnets are forward you should lower the fore-and-aft magnets.
    c. If the blue ends of the magnets are to port and the athwartships tray is at the bottom you should reverse the magnets.
    d. If the blue ends of the magnets are to port and the athwartships tray is at the top you should add some magnets.
2196: A vessel is heading magnetic northwest and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 312°. What action should be taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?

    a. If the quadrantal spheres are all the way out, replace them with smaller spheres.
    b. If the quadrantal spheres are all the way in, replace them with larger spheres.
    c. If the quadrantal spheres are all of the way out, move the spheres in.
    d. If the quadrantal spheres are all the way out, replace them with larger spheres.
2198: Opposition occurs when __________.

    a. the Sun, Earth, and Moon are at right angles
    b. the Sun's declination is 0° and is moving south
    c. an inferior planet is at the maximum angle to the line of sight to the Sun
    d. the Earth is between a planet and the Sun
2199: Denebola is found in what constellation?

    a. Hydrus
    b. Leo
    c. Centaurus
    d. Aquila
2200: Cloud formations are minimal when the __________.

    a. surface temperature and temperature aloft are equal
    b. surface temperature and temperature aloft differ greatly
    c. barometric pressure is very low
    d. relative humidity is very high
2202: You have completed the magnetic compass adjustments on magnetic east and magnetic south. The vessel is now steady on magnetic west but the compass reads 276°. What action should be taken?

    a. Adjust the compass with the athwartships magnets until the compass reads 264°.
    b. Adjust the compass with the fore-and-aft magnets until the compass reads 273°.
    c. Adjust the compass with the quadrantal spheres until the compass reads 270°.
    d. Adjust the compass with the athwartships magnets until the compass reads 273°.
2202: You have completed the magnetic compass adjustments on magnetic east and magnetic south. The vessel is now steady on magnetic west but the compass reads 276°. What action should be taken?

    a. Adjust the compass with the athwartships magnets until the compass reads 264°.
    b. Adjust the compass with the fore-and-aft magnets until the compass reads 273°.
    c. Adjust the compass with the quadrantal spheres until the compass reads 270°.
    d. Adjust the compass with the athwartships magnets until the compass reads 273°.
2203: You get underway from the shipyard in Chester, PA, at 1515 DST (ZD +4) on 6 August 1983, enroute to sea. You will be turning for eight knots. What current can you expect at Fourteen Foot Bank Light?

    a. Slack
    b. 1.3 knots ebbing
    c. 1.7 knots ebbing
    d. 0.5 knot ebbing
2207: Yesterday your chronometer read 11h 59m 58s at the 1200 GMT time tick. Today your chronometer reads 12h 00m 00s at the 1200 time tick. What is the chronometer rate?

    a. Nil
    b. 12h
    c. +2s
    d. -2s
2209: You have completed the magnetic compass adjustments on magnetic east and magnetic south. The vessel is now steady on magnetic west but the compass reads 266°. You should now adjust the compass until it reads __________.

    a. 268°
    b. 270°
    c. 274°
    d. Do not adjust the compass, just record the error.
2210: A dead reckoning (DR) plot __________.

    a. ignores the effect of surface currents
    b. is most useful when in sight of land
    c. must be plotted using magnetic courses
    d. may be started at an assumed position
2211: What is the length of a nautical mile?

    a. 1,850 meters
    b. 6,076 feet
    c. 5,280 feet
    d. 2,000 yards
2212: Which information is found in the chart title?

    a. Number of the chart
    b. Edition date
    c. Variation information
    d. Survey information
2214: By convention, the Earth's south magnetic pole is colored __________.

    a. blue
    b. black
    c. white
    d. red
2215: You are required to enter a lock on your voyage. Information on the lock regulations, signals, and radio communications can be found in __________.

    a. the publication "Key to the Locks"
    b. Bowditch
    c. Corps of Engineers Information Bulletin
    d. Coast Pilot
2216: A vessel is heading magnetic northwest and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 317°. What action should be taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?

    a. Move the quadrantal spheres out.
    b. Move the quadrantal spheres in.
    c. If the spheres are in as far as possible replace them with smaller spheres.
    d. If the spheres are out as far as possible replace them with smaller spheres.
2219: A vessel is heading magnetic northwest and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 317°. What action should be taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?

    a. If the quadrantal spheres are in as far as possible replace them with larger spheres.
    b. If the quadrantal spheres are in as far as possible replace them with smaller spheres.
    c. If the quadrantal spheres are in as far as possible move the quadrantal spheres out.
    d. If the spheres are in as far as possible remove one of the spheres.
2220: A dead reckoning (DR) plot __________.

    a. must utilize magnetic courses
    b. must take set and drift into account
    c. should be replotted hourly
    d. should be started each time the vessel's position is fixed
2222: By convention, the south pole of a magnet is painted __________.

    a. red
    b. blue
    c. white
    d. black
2224: By convention, the north seeking ends of a compass' magnets are colored __________.

    a. black
    b. blue
    c. red
    d. white
2226: Upper limb observations of the Moon are used more frequently than those of the Sun because of the location of the Moon in the sky and the __________.

    a. lesser distance between the Earth and the Moon
    b. phase of the Moon
    c. rapid change in declination of the Moon
    d. effects of augmentation and horizontal parallax
2229: A vessel is heading magnetic north and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 003°. What action should be taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?

    a. If the red ends are to port the athwartships magnets should be raised.
    b. If the blue ends are to port the athwartships magnets should be raised.
    c. If the red ends are forward the fore-and-aft magnets should be lowered.
    d. If the blue ends are forward the fore-and-aft magnets should be raised.
2230: A nautical mile is a distance of approximately how much greater than or less than a statute mile?

    a. 1/4 less
    b. 1/7 less
    c. 1/4 greater
    d. 1/7 greater
2232: A vessel is heading magnetic north and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 003°. Which action should be taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?

    a. If the red ends are to starboard you should raise the athwartships tray.
    b. If the red ends are to starboard, and the athwartships tray is at the bottom, you should remove some magnets.
    c. If the red ends are to port, and the athwartships tray is at the top, you should reverse the magnets.
    d. If the red ends are to port, and the athwartships tray is at the top, you should lower the tray.
2234: A vessel is heading magnetic north and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 003°. What action should be taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?

    a. Move the quadrantal spheres closer to the compass
    b. Raise the heeling magnet if the red end is up
    c. Remove some of the Flinders bar
    d. Raise or lower the athwartship magnets
2236: Which is TRUE of a downbound power-driven vessel, when meeting an upbound vessel on the Western Rivers?

    a. She has the right of way.
    b. She shall propose the manner of passage.
    c. She shall initiate the maneuvering signals.
    d. All of the above
2237: A lighted buoy to be left to starboard, when entering a U.S. port from seaward, shall have a __________.

    a. light characteristic of Morse (A)
    b. white light
    c. green light
    d. red light
2238: A vessel is heading magnetic northwest and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 312°. What action should be taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?

    a. If the quadrantal spheres are all of the way out replace them with larger spheres.
    b. If the quadrantal spheres are all of the way in replace them with larger spheres.
    c. If the quadrantal spheres are all of the way in, move the spheres out.
    d. If the quadrantal spheres are all of the way out, move the spheres in.
2239: A flashing green light displayed at a single lock means that the lock is __________.

    a. ready for entrance
    b. ready for entrance, but gates cannot be closed completely
    c. being made ready for entrance
    d. not ready for entrance
2240: If you observe a buoy off station you should __________.

    a. fill out and mail CG Form 2692 to the nearest Coast Guard office
    b. appear in person at the nearest Coast Guard office
    c. notify Coast Guard Headquarters in Washington, DC
    d. immediately contact the nearest Coast Guard office by radiotelephone
2241: The letter C in illustration D006NG represents the __________.

    a. visible horizon
    b. geoidal horizon
    c. sensible horizon
    d. celestial horizon
2242: A vessel is heading magnetic north and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 356°. Which action should be taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?

    a. If the red ends of the magnets are to port you should lower the athwartships tray.
    b. If the red ends of the magnets are aft you should raise the fore-and-aft tray.
    c. If the blue ends of the magnets are to port, and the athwartships tray is at the top, you should remove some of the magnets.
    d. If the blue ends of the magnets are aft you should raise the fore-and-aft tray.
2243: Which aid is NOT marked on a chart with a magenta circle?

    a. Radar station
    b. Radar transponder beacon
    c. Aero light
    d. Radio beacon
2244: Capella is found in what constellation?

    a. Gemini
    b. Auriga
    c. Libra
    d. Crab
2246: The speed of an ocean current is dependent on __________.

    a. the density of the water
    b. the air temperature
    c. the presence of a high pressure area near it
    d. underwater soil conditions
2248: A vessel is heading magnetic north and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 356°. What action should be taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?

    a. If the red ends of the magnets are to port you should raise the athwartships tray.
    b. If the red ends of the magnets are to port, and the athwartships tray is at the top, you should add some more magnets.
    c. If the red ends of the magnets are to starboard you should lower the athwartships tray.
    d. If the red ends of the magnets are to starboard, and the athwartships tray is at the top, you should add some more magnets.
2250: The most important information to be obtained from a barometer is the __________.

    a. difference between the reading of the two pointers, which shows wind direction
    b. last two figures of the reading of the pointer, such as .87, .76, or .92
    c. present reading of the pressure, combined with the changes in pressure observed in the recent past
    d. weather indications printed on the dial (such as "cold, wet, etc.") under the pointer
2251: Which statement concerning the chartlet shown is TRUE? (Soundings and heights are in meters) (D010NG )

    a. Maury lightship is visible for 17 miles.
    b. The bottom to the south-southeast of the lightship is soft coral.
    c. There is a dangerous eddy southeast of Beito Island.
    d. There is a 12-meter deep west of Beito Island and inside the 5-meter line.
2252: The vertical angle between the horizontal and the magnetic line of force is the __________.

    a. elevation
    b. magnetic angle
    c. vertical angle
    d. dip
2254: A rock and sand structure extending from the bank of the river toward the channel is known as a __________.

    a. wingdam
    b. towhead
    c. cutoff
    d. landwall
2255: The height of tide is the __________.

    a. depth of water at a specific time due to tidal effect
    b. difference between the depth of the water at high tide and the depth of the water at low tide
    c. difference between the depth of the water and the high water tidal level
    d. difference between the depth of the water and the area's tidal datum
2256: The constellation that contains Polaris is __________.

    a. Orion
    b. Cassiopeia
    c. Ursa Minor
    d. Corona Borealis
2258: The primary use of apparent time in marine navigation is to __________.

    a. calculate sunrise or sunset
    b. determine zone time
    c. enter an almanac
    d. determine the time of meridian transit
2259: A vessel is heading magnetic northwest and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 317°. What action should be taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?

    a. If the quadrantal spheres are out as far as possible replace them with smaller spheres.
    b. If the quadrantal spheres are in as far as possible remove one of the spheres.
    c. If the quadrantal spheres are in as far as possible replace them with smaller spheres.
    d. If the quadrantal spheres are out as far as possible, move the quadrantal spheres in.
2261: You determine your vessel's position by taking a range and bearing to a buoy. Your position will be plotted as a(n) __________.

    a. running fix
    b. fix
    c. dead-reckoning position
    d. estimated position
2262: The Milky Way is an example of a __________.

    a. cluster
    b. galaxy
    c. nova
    d. nebula
2264: The revision date of a chart is printed on which area of the chart?

    a. Top center
    b. Lower-left corner
    c. Part of the chart title
    d. Any clear area around the neat line
2266: It is difficult to determine which limb of the Moon is fully illuminated __________.

    a. when the Moon is low in the sky at rising or setting
    b. at the new Moon phase
    c. when taking Moon sights during daylight
    d. when the terminator is nearly vertical
2268: What condition exists at perigee?

    a. The Earth is farthest from the Sun.
    b. The Earth, Sun, and Moon are in line.
    c. The Earth, Sun, and Moon are at right angles.
    d. The Moon is closest to the Earth.
2269: One of the factors which affects the circulation of ocean currents is __________.

    a. humidity
    b. varying densities of water
    c. vessel traffic
    d. the jet stream
2270: The lubber's line of a magnetic compass __________.

    a. always shows true north direction
    b. indicates the vessel's heading
    c. is always parallel to the vessel's transom
    d. is located on the compass card
2271: What is the definition of height of tide?

    a. The vertical distance from the surface of the water to the ocean floor
    b. The vertical distance from the tidal datum to the level of the water at any time
    c. The vertical difference between a datum plane and the ocean bottom
    d. The vertical difference between the heights of low and high water
2272: Mars will not be visible __________.

    a. at elongation angles near 180°
    b. from quadrature to opposition
    c. at conjunction
    d. at opposition
2274: A vessel is heading magnetic east and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 086°. What action should be taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?

    a. If the red ends of the magnets are to port you should lower the athwartships tray.
    b. If the blue ends of the magnets are to port, and the athwartships tray is at the top, you should reverse the magnets.
    c. If the red ends of the magnet are aft, and the fore-and-aft tray is at the top, you should add some more magnets.
    d. If the red ends of the magnets are aft you should lower the fore-and-aft tray.
2276: A vessel is heading magnetic east and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 086°. Which action should be taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?

    a. If the blue ends of the magnets are aft, and the fore-and-aft tray is at the top, you should add some magnets.
    b. If the blue ends of the magnets are aft you should lower the fore-and-aft tray.
    c. If the blue ends of the magnets are aft, and the fore-and-aft tray is at the top, you should reverse the magnets.
    d. If the blue ends of the magnets are forward, and the fore-and-aft tray is at the bottom, you should add some magnets.
2277: The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 20 miles and is 52 feet high. If the visibility is 12.0 miles and your height of eye is 20 feet, at what approximate distance will you sight the light?

    a. 21.5 miles
    b. 20.0 miles
    c. 13.7 miles
    d. 12.0 miles
2278: Superior conjunction occurs when __________.

    a. the Sun is at maximum declination north or south
    b. a planet crosses the external plane of the ecliptic
    c. the Sun is between the Earth and a planet
    d. two planets are in line
2279: Antares is found in what constellation?

    a. Scorpio
    b. Corvus
    c. Libra
    d. Corona Borealis
2280: Which would influence a magnetic compass?

    a. Electrical wiring
    b. Iron pipe
    c. Radio
    d. All of the above
2282: You have completed the magnetic compass adjustments on magnetic east and magnetic south. The vessel is now steady on magnetic west but the compass reads 276°. You should now adjust the compass until it reads __________.

    a. 264°
    b. 270°
    c. 273°
    d. Do not adjust the compass, just record the error.
2284: Bellatrix is found in what constellation?

    a. Canis Minor
    b. Gemini
    c. Taurus
    d. Orion
2286: Which light signal indicates that you have permission to enter a lock on the Ohio River?

    a. Steady red
    b. Flashing amber
    c. Steady green
    d. Flashing green
2288: A mean sun is used as the reference for solar time for three reasons. Which reason is NOT a cause for use of a mean sun?

    a. The motion of the apparent sun is along the ecliptic.
    b. Measurement of time is along the celestial equator.
    c. The speed of the Earth's revolution is not constant.
    d. There are variations in the Earth's rotational speed.
2289: The constellation that contains the pointer stars is __________.

    a. Orion
    b. Ursa Major
    c. the Southern Cross
    d. Pegasus
2290: Magnets in the binnacles of magnetic compasses are used to reduce the effect of __________.

    a. deviation
    b. variation
    c. local attraction
    d. All of the above
2290: Magnets in the binnacles of magnetic compasses are used to reduce the effect of __________.

    a. deviation
    b. variation
    c. local attraction
    d. All of the above
2292: The points on the earth's surface where the magnetic dip is 90° are __________.

    a. along the magnetic equator
    b. connected by the isoclinal line
    c. the isopors
    d. the magnetic poles
2294: What celestial body may sometimes be observed in daylight?

    a. New Moon
    b. Saturn
    c. Sirius
    d. Venus
2296: A variable star is one that __________.

    a. exhibits a change in magnitude
    b. has a changing declination
    c. is increasing in SHA
    d. is also known as a red giant
2298: The period of rotation of the Moon on its axis is __________.

    a. about 19 years
    b. 365 days
    c. about 27.3 days
    d. 24 hours
2299: What condition exists at apogee?

    a. The Earth is closest to the Sun.
    b. The Moon is farthest from the Sun.
    c. The Earth is farthest from the Moon.
    d. The Moon is between the Earth and the Sun.
2300: When a magnetic compass is not in use for a prolonged period of time it should __________.

    a. be shielded from direct sunlight
    b. be locked into a constant heading
    c. have any air bubbles replaced with nitrogen
    d. have the compensating magnets removed
2301: The letter C in illustration D006NG represents the __________.

    a. celestial horizon
    b. geoidal horizon
    c. visible horizon
    d. sensible horizon
2304: The Moon is subject to four types of libration. Which of the following is NOT one of these types of libration?

    a. Libration in longitude
    b. Diurnal libration
    c. Vertical libration
    d. Libration in latitude
2306: In the North Sea area, you sight a buoy showing a quick white light with 9 flashes every 15 seconds. Which of the four topmarks shown would be fitted to the buoy? (D031NG )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
2308: The points where the Sun is at 0° declination are known as __________.

    a. solstices
    b. equinoxes
    c. perigee
    d. apogee
2309: The plane of the ecliptic is inclined to the plane of the celestial equator by what angle?

    a. 00°23'
    b. 23°27'
    c. 45°00'
    d. 90°00'
2310: Which weather instrument measures atmospheric pressure?

    a. Beaufort scale
    b. Anemometer
    c. Sling psychrometer
    d. Barometer
2312: Mars is only seen at two phases, one of which __________.

    a. is the full phase
    b. is conjunction
    c. occurs only at sunset or sunrise
    d. occurs at or near 0° elongation
2314: A vessel is heading magnetic east and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 086°. What action should be taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?

    a. If the blue ends of the magnets are forward you should raise the fore-and-aft tray.
    b. If the blue ends of the magnets are aft you should lower the fore-and-aft tray.
    c. If the blue ends of the magnets are aft, and the fore-and-aft tray is at the top, you should add some magnets.
    d. If the blue ends of the magnets are aft, and the fore-and-aft tray is at the bottom, you should reverse the magnets.
2316: Elongation becomes zero at __________.

    a. opposition
    b. west quadrature
    c. apogee
    d. inferior conjunction
2317: The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 13 miles and is 36 feet high (11.0 meters). If the visibility is 7.0 miles and your height of eye is 25 feet (7.6 meters), at what approximate distance will you sight the light?

    a. 10.0 miles
    b. 12.9 miles
    c. 14.2 miles
    d. 17.0 miles
2318: Miaplacidus is found in what constellation?

    a. Puppis
    b. Hydrus
    c. Centaurus
    d. Carina
2319: In low latitudes, the new Moon will always rise at about __________.

    a. sunrise
    b. 1200 LMT
    c. sunset
    d. 2400 LMT
2320: The type of current which will have the greatest effect on the course made good for your vessel is __________.

    a. one flowing in the same direction as your course steered
    b. one flowing in the opposite direction as your course steered
    c. one that flows at nearly right angles to your course steered
    d. a rotary current in which the direction of current flow constantly changes
2322: You have completed the magnetic compass adjustments on magnetic east and magnetic south. The vessel is now steady on magnetic north but the compass reads 356°. Which action should be taken?

    a. Use the fore-and-aft magnets and adjust the compass until it reads 358°.
    b. Use the athwartships magnets and adjust the compass until it reads 358°.
    c. Use the fore-and-aft magnets and adjust the compass until it reads 000°.
    d. Use the quadrantal spheres and adjust the compass until it reads 000°.
2322: You have completed the magnetic compass adjustments on magnetic east and magnetic south. The vessel is now steady on magnetic north but the compass reads 356°. Which action should be taken?

    a. Use the fore-and-aft magnets and adjust the compass until it reads 358°.
    b. Use the athwartships magnets and adjust the compass until it reads 358°.
    c. Use the fore-and-aft magnets and adjust the compass until it reads 000°.
    d. Use the quadrantal spheres and adjust the compass until it reads 000°.
2324: Deneb is found in what constellation?

    a. Cygnus
    b. Pegasus
    c. Ursa Major
    d. Andromeda
2326: A double star is a star that __________.

    a. has a declination equal to twice that of the Sun
    b. comprises two stars that appear close together
    c. is twice as bright as a single star
    d. suddenly becomes much brighter and then fades
2328: Universal time (UTI) is another name for __________.

    a. sidereal time
    b. Greenwich mean time
    c. ephemeris time
    d. atomic time
2329: In low latitudes, a last quarter moon will always rise at about __________.

    a. sunrise
    b. 1200 LMT
    c. sunset
    d. 2400 LMT
2330: You are heading in a northerly direction when you come across an easterly current. Your vessel will __________.

    a. be pushed to starboard
    b. be pushed to port
    c. decrease in engine speed
    d. remain on course
2332: Magnetic dip is a measurement of the angle between the __________.

    a. geographic pole and the magnetic pole
    b. lubber's line and true north
    c. horizontal and the magnetic line of force
    d. compass heading and the magnetic heading
2334: Other than the Sun and Moon, the brightest object in the sky is __________.

    a. Sirius
    b. Canopus
    c. Venus
    d. Jupiter
2335: The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 13 miles and is 36 feet high. If the visibility is 17 miles and your height of eye is 25 feet, at what approximate distance will you sight the light?

    a. 10.0 miles
    b. 12.9 miles
    c. 14.2 miles
    d. 17.0 miles
2336: The period of revolution of the Moon is __________.

    a. 24 hours
    b. about 27.3 days
    c. 365 days
    d. about 19 years
2338: A group of stars which appear close together and form a striking configuration such as a person or animal is a __________.

    a. cluster
    b. shower
    c. constellation
    d. galaxy
2340: What is a "Special Warning"?

    a. An urgent message concerning a vessel in distress
    b. A weather advisory about unusual meteorological or oceanographic phenomena hazardous to vessels
    c. A broadcast disseminating an official government proclamation affecting shipping
    d. A radio navigational warning concerning a particularly hazardous condition affecting navigation
2341: Which statement concerning illustration D010NG is correct? (Soundings and heights are in meters)

    a. Maury Lightship swings about her anchor on a circle with a 21-meter diameter.
    b. The position of the lightship is indicated by the center of the star on the symbol's mast.
    c. The sunken wreck southwest of Beito Island shows the hull or superstructure above the sounding datum.
    d. There is a 12-meter deep hole inside the 5-meter curve just west of Beito Island.
2341: Which statement concerning illustration D010NG is correct? (Soundings and heights are in meters)

    a. Maury Lightship swings about her anchor on a circle with a 21-meter diameter.
    b. The position of the lightship is indicated by the center of the star on the symbol's mast.
    c. The sunken wreck southwest of Beito Island shows the hull or superstructure above the sounding datum.
    d. There is a 12-meter deep hole inside the 5-meter curve just west of Beito Island.
2342: What happens because of augmentation?

    a. The Moon appears larger as the elevation increases.
    b. The Sun appears larger when viewed against the darker background of the horizon.
    c. The horizon appears elevated when observing a bright Sun or Moon at low altitudes.
    d. The Moon appears larger at the full Moon.
2344: The Moon is subject to four types of libration. Which of the following is NOT one of these types of libration?

    a. Libration in latitude
    b. Diurnal libration
    c. Physical libration
    d. Horizontal libration
2345: You should plot your dead reckoning position __________.

    a. from every estimated position
    b. every three minutes in pilotage waters
    c. only in pilotage waters
    d. from every fix or running fix
2346: The first point of Aries is the point where the Sun is at __________.

    a. maximum declination north
    b. maximum declination south
    c. 0° declination going to northerly declinations
    d. 0° declination going to southerly declinations
2348: Under the IALA cardinal system, a mark with a quick light showing 9 flashes every 15 seconds indicates that the safest water is on the __________.

    a. north side of the mark
    b. west side of the mark
    c. east side of the mark
    d. south side of the mark
2349: The summer solstice is the point where the Sun is at __________.

    a. maximum declination north
    b. maximum declination south
    c. 0° declination going to northerly declinations
    d. 0° declination going to southerly declinations
2350: The principal advantage of NAVTEX radio warnings is that __________.

    a. they can be used by mariners who do not know Morse code
    b. only an ordinary FM radio is necessary to receive these warnings
    c. information on a given topic is only broadcast at specified times
    d. they cover a broad spectrum of the radio band allowing reception on almost any type of receiver
2351: A position obtained by applying ONLY your vessel's course and speed to a known position is a __________.

    a. running fix
    b. probable position
    c. fix
    d. dead-reckoning position
2352: When a superior planet is at 90° elongation, it is also at __________.

    a. conjunction
    b. opposition
    c. quadrature
    d. transit
2353: A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning position results in a(n) __________.

    a. estimated position
    b. assumed position
    c. fix
    d. running fix
2354: A vessel is heading magnetic east and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 093°. What action should be taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?

    a. If the blue ends of the magnets are to port you should raise the athwartships tray.
    b. If the red ends of magnets are to port you should lower the athwartships tray.
    c. If the red ends of the magnets are aft you should lower the fore-and-aft tray.
    d. If the blue ends of the magnets are forward you should raise the fore-and-aft tray.
2356: As observed from the Earth, the angle between lines from the Earth to the Sun and the Earth to an inferior planet is known as __________.

    a. elongation
    b. conjunction
    c. opposition
    d. quadrature
2358: Altair is found in what constellation?

    a. Hercules
    b. Cygnus
    c. Aquila
    d. Capricorn
2360: What U.S. agency is responsible for NAVAREA warnings?

    a. Coast Guard
    b. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
    c. National Ocean Service
    d. National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency
2361: The range of tide is the __________.

    a. maximum depth of the water at high tide
    b. duration of time between high and low tide
    c. distance the tide moves out from the shore
    d. difference between the heights of high and low tide
2362: You have completed the magnetic compass adjustments on magnetic east and magnetic south. The vessel is now steady on magnetic north but the compass reads 004°. Which action should be taken?

    a. Use the Flinders bar and adjust the compass until it reads 002°.
    b. Use the fore-and-aft magnets and adjust the compass until it reads 000°.
    c. Use the athwartships magnets and adjust the compass until it reads 002°.
    d. Use the athwartships magnets and adjust the compass until it reads 000°.
2363: As shown, the position labeled C was plotted because __________. (D051NG )

    a. the vessel's speed changed
    b. the vessel's course changed form due North to due East
    c. running fixes are better estimates of true position than dead-reckoning positions
    d. All of the above are correct
2364: The immediate surroundings of what constellation contain the most first magnitude stars?

    a. Libra
    b. Cassiopeia
    c. Pegasus
    d. Orion
2366: The major problem with Moon sights is the __________.

    a. rapid changes in GHA and declination introduce errors into the calculations
    b. lack of a well defined limb during certain phases and positions in the sky
    c. approximations used in the solution caused by the variable horizontal parallax
    d. augmentation effect caused by the relatively short distance to the Moon
2369: Which magnetic compass corrector(s) CANNOT be set on a heading of magnetic east or magnetic west?

    a. Heeling magnet
    b. Flinders bar
    c. Fore-and-aft magnets
    d. All of the above can be set on magnetic east or magnetic west headings.
2370: In the United States, short-range radio navigational warnings are broadcast by the __________.

    a. Coast Guard
    b. Corps of Engineers
    c. NOAA
    d. harbor master of the nearest port
2372: In the North Sea area, you sight a buoy showing a quick white light showing 6 flashes followed by one long flash at 15 second intervals. Which of the four topmarks illustrated in diagram D031NG would be fitted to this buoy? (D031NG )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
2373: The vertical distance from the tidal datum to the level of the water is the __________.

    a. actual water depth
    b. range of tide
    c. charted depth
    d. height of tide
2374: The largest of the navigational planets is __________.

    a. Mars
    b. Venus
    c. Jupiter
    d. Saturn
2375: The shortest distance between any two points on earth defines a __________.

    a. small circle
    b. great circle
    c. rhumb line
    d. hyperbola
2376: A large group of stars revolving around a center is known as a __________.

    a. cluster
    b. shower
    c. constellation
    d. galaxy
2378: Which light signal indicates that you may approach the lock?

    a. Flashing red
    b. Flashing amber
    c. Steady amber
    d. Steady green
2379: The winter solstice is the point where the Sun is at __________.

    a. maximum declination north
    b. maximum declination south
    c. 0° declination going to northerly declinations
    d. 0° declination going to southerly declinations
2380: The navigation regulations applicable to a U.S. inland waterway can be found in the __________.

    a. Notices to Mariners
    b. Channel Reports
    c. Sailing Directions
    d. Coast Pilots
2381: The difference between the heights of low and high tide is the __________.

    a. period
    b. distance
    c. depth
    d. range
2382: What causes geocentric parallax?

    a. The varying distance between the Earth and Moon.
    b. The change in the Moon's position relative to the stars when viewed from the Earth's surface, as compared to the Earth's center.
    c. The rapid change in declination of the Moon causes a rotational oscillation of its axis.
    d. The nearness of the Moon causes an apparent increase in diameter as its altitude increases.
2384: On U.S. charts, you can tell if a named feature such as a rock (i.e. Great Eastern Rock in Block Island Sound) is submerged by the __________.

    a. color of ink used to print the name
    b. style of type used to print the name
    c. dashed circle around the feature
    d. magenta circle around the feature
2386: The path that the Sun appears to take among the stars is the __________.

    a. zodiac
    b. Tropic of Cancer in the Northern Hemisphere
    c. ecliptic
    d. line of apsides
2387: You are on a voyage from New Orleans to Boston and navigating off the Florida coast. You will get the greatest benefit from the Gulf Stream if you navigate __________.

    a. about 5 miles east of Cape Canaveral
    b. about 15 miles east of Daytona
    c. along the 50-fathom curve
    d. about 20 miles east of Jupiter Inlet
2388: The reference point for determination of GMT is the passage of the mean sun over what line?

    a. First point of Aries
    b. Observer's meridian
    c. 0° longitude
    d. 180° longitude
2389: The autumnal equinox is the point where the Sun is at __________.

    a. maximum declination north
    b. maximum declination south
    c. 0° declination going to northerly declinations
    d. 0° declination going to southerly declinations
2390: You are in a channel in U.S. waters near an industrial plant with a load/discharge facility for barges. You hear a siren being sounded at the facility. What does this indicate?

    a. There is danger at the facility due to a fire or cargo release.
    b. A towboat with a hazardous cargo barge is being moved to or from the facility.
    c. The facility is warning a barge to shut down transfer operations due to weather conditions (electrical storms, tornado, etc.).
    d. A barge at the facility has commenced loading or discharging operations.
2392: The point where the Sun is at maximum declination north or south is __________.

    a. aphelion
    b. perihelion
    c. an equinox
    d. a solstice
2392: The point where the Sun is at maximum declination north or south is __________.

    a. aphelion
    b. perihelion
    c. an equinox
    d. a solstice
2394: A vessel is heading magnetic east and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 093°. What action should be taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?

    a. If the red ends of the magnets are aft, and the fore-and-aft tray is at the top, you should remove some magnets.
    b. If the red ends of the magnet are aft, and the fore-and-aft tray is at the bottom, you should reverse the magnets.
    c. If the red ends of the magnets are aft you should raise the fore-and-aft tray.
    d. If the blue ends of the magnets are forward you should remove some magnets from the fore-and-aft tray.
2396: Perihelion is the point where the Sun __________.

    a. is nearest to the Earth
    b. is farthest from the Earth
    c. is on the opposite side of the Earth from the Moon
    d. and Moon and Earth are in line
2397: The letter D in illustration D006NG represents the __________.

    a. sensible horizon
    b. celestial horizon
    c. visible horizon
    d. geometrical horizon
2399: Which statement about the time diagram shown is TRUE? (D008NG )

    a. The Greenwich date is one day later than your date.
    b. The diagram is valid only if you are in the southern hemisphere.
    c. The LHA of the Sun is approximately 40°.
    d. The diagram represents a morning Sun sight.
2400: You are in a channel in U.S. waters near an industrial plant with a load/discharge facility for barges. You see an emergency rotating flashing light on the facility light up. What does this indicate?

    a. A barge at the facility has commenced transferring a hazardous cargo.
    b. A barge carrying a hazardous cargo is mooring or unmooring at the facility.
    c. The facility is warning a barge to shut down transfer operations due to weather conditions (electrical storm, tornado, hurricane, etc.).
    d. There is danger at the facility due to a fire or cargo release.
2402: You have completed the magnetic compass adjustments on magnetic east and magnetic south. The vessel is now steady on magnetic north but the compass reads 356°. You should now adjust the compass until it reads __________.

    a. 358°
    b. 000°
    c. 002°
    d. 004°
2404: The dividing meridian between zone descriptions +7 and +8 is __________.

    a. 105°00'W
    b. 112°30'W
    c. 117°00'W
    d. 120°30'W
2406: The dividing meridian between zone descriptions +4 and +5 is __________.

    a. 67°30'W
    b. 90°00'W
    c. 67°30'E
    d. 75°00'E
2408: What is the equivalent of 42 min. 48 sec. in arc units?

    a. 21°24'
    b. 18°16'
    c. 11°19'
    d. 10°42'
2409: You are approaching the first of two drawbridges that span a narrow channel. The second drawbridge is close to the first. Which signals should you sound?

    a. Sound the request-for-opening signal for the first bridge only, who will notify the second bridge of your approach
    b. Sound the request-for-opening signal twice in succession to indicate you must pass through both bridges
    c. Sound the request-for-opening signal, pause for about 10 seconds, then sound two prolonged blasts.
    d. Sound the request-for-opening signal and, after the bridge acknowledges it, sound the request-for-opening signal for the second bridge.
2410: A facility used for the discharge of a cargo of a particular hazard, such as chlorine, butane or ethane, must have what to warn water traffic of an immediate danger during fire or cargo release?

    a. An emergency boat and crew
    b. A siren or rotating flashing light
    c. Flashing red lights located one-half mile upstream and downstream of the facility
    d. Buoys with flashing lights controlled from shore, located one-half mile upstream and downstream of the facility
2412: The permanent magnetism of a vessel may change in polarity due to __________.

    a. being moored for a long time on one heading
    b. being struck by lighting
    c. steaming from the north magnetic hemisphere to the south magnetic hemisphere
    d. loading a homogenous magnetic cargo such as steel plate, iron bars, etc.
2414: You must construct a Mercator plotting sheet on a piece of paper measuring 20" by 28". The area includes latitude 38°S to 43°S and longitude 178°E to 175°W. Allow a one-half inch neat line on all sides. What is the maximum distance between each degree of longitude that will permit the area of the plotting sheet to be drawn within the stated limitations?

    a. 2.6 inches
    b. 2.9 inches
    c. 3.2 inches
    d. 3.5 inches
2416: An orange and white buoy indicating a vessel-exclusion area will be marked with what symbol?

    a. Open-faced diamond
    b. Diamond with a cross
    c. Circle
    d. Square
2418: While proceeding downriver, you sight a red triangular-shaped daymark on the left bank. Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers this is a __________.

    a. special purpose signal
    b. passing daymark
    c. mark with no lateral significance
    d. crossing daymark
2419: A backlash below a lock is defined as a __________.

    a. current setting your vessel on the wall
    b. current setting into the lock chamber
    c. an eddy working along the lower guide wall
    d. current setting counterclockwise
2420: You are on course 355°T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 275°. What is the true bearing of the lighthouse?

    a. 080°
    b. 085°
    c. 280°
    d. 270°
2422: The dimmest stars that could be reasonably used for navigational purposes are of what magnitude?

    a. First
    b. Third
    c. Sixth
    d. Tenth
2423: IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, the starboard side of a channel would be marked by a __________.

    a. red conical buoy
    b. green conical buoy
    c. red can buoy
    d. green can buoy
2424: Under the IALA-B Buoyage System, when entering from seaward a lateral system buoy to be left to starboard may display which of the topmarks shown? (D046NG )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
2425: A vessel's position should be plotted using bearings of __________.

    a. fixed objects on shore
    b. buoys at a distance
    c. buoys close by
    d. All of the above
2426: You are in charge of a power-driven vessel crossing a river on the Western Rivers. You must keep out of the way of __________.

    a. a sail vessel descending the river
    b. a power-driven vessel ascending the river
    c. a vessel restricted in its ability to maneuver crossing the river
    d. All of the above
2428: If your vessel were proceeding up river (ascending), the port side of the channel would be marked according to the U. S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers by __________.

    a. green can buoys
    b. red can buoys
    c. green nun buoys
    d. red nun buoys
2429: The lock chamber is 600 feet X 110 feet. Your towboat is 150 feet X 35 feet. Which of these tows will require a double lockage?

    a. A set-over single
    b. 4 standard barges abreast next to your boat's head and 3 jumbo abreast in the lead
    c. 6 jumbo (3 abreast and 2 long) with a standard on each side of your boat
    d. 9 jumbo barges
2430: You are on course 222°T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 025°. What is the true bearing to the lighthouse?

    a. 197°
    b. 247°
    c. 315°
    d. 335°
2432: A time diagram is a diagram of the celestial sphere as observed from above the __________.

    a. south celestial pole
    b. north celestial pole
    c. observer's meridian
    d. Greenwich meridian
2434: A vessel is heading magnetic east and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 093°. What action should be taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?

    a. If the red ends of the magnets are aft you should lower the fore-and-aft tray.
    b. If the red ends of the magnets are forward, and the fore-and-aft tray is at the bottom, you should remove some magnets.
    c. If the red ends of the magnets are to port you should raise the athwartships tray.
    d. If the red ends of the magnets are to port, and the athwartships tray is at the top, you should reverse the magnets.
2435: What is a lighted safe water mark fitted with to aid in its identification?

    a. A red and white octagon
    b. Red and white retroreflective material
    c. A sequential number
    d. A spherical topmark
2436: Aphelion is the point where the Sun __________.

    a. and Moon and Earth form a right angle
    b. and Moon and Earth are in line
    c. crosses the celestial equator
    d. is farthest from the Earth
2437: When daylight savings time is kept, the times of tide and current calculations must be adjusted. One way of doing this is to __________.

    a. add 15° to the standard meridian when calculating the time differences
    b. apply no correction as the times at the reference stations are adjusted for daylight savings time
    c. add one hour to the times listed for the reference stations
    d. subtract one hour from the times listed for the subordinate stations
2438: The radar control that reduces weak echoes out to a limited distance from the ship is the __________.

    a. sensitivity time control (sea-clutter control)
    b. receiver gain control
    c. brilliance control
    d. fast time constant (differentiator)
2439: Which statement about the time diagram in illustration D008NG is TRUE? (D008NG )

    a. You are in east longitude.
    b. The Sun is setting for you.
    c. Your date is different from the Greenwich date.
    d. The GHA is approximately 160°.
2440: You are on course 357°T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 180°. What is the true bearing to the lighthouse?

    a. 003°
    b. 227°
    c. 177°
    d. 363°
2442: You have completed the magnetic compass adjustments on magnetic east and magnetic south. The vessel is now steady on magnetic north but the compass reads 004°. You should now adjust the compass until it reads __________.

    a. 356°
    b. 358°
    c. 000°
    d. 002°
2444: What is the equivalent of 0°48' in time units?

    a. 2 min. 12 sec.
    b. 2 min. 42 sec.
    c. 3 min. 02 sec.
    d. 3 min. 12 sec.
2446: What is the equivalent of 47 min. 20 sec. in arc units?

    a. 8°27'
    b. 11°50'
    c. 13°42'
    d. 13°56'
2448: What is the equivalent of 37 min. 32 sec. in arc units?

    a. 4°47'
    b. 6°38'
    c. 7°41'
    d. 9°23'
2450: You are on course 180°T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 225°. What is the true bearing of the lighthouse?

    a. 045°
    b. 135°
    c. 180°
    d. 270°
2452: The permanent magnetism of a vessel may change in strength due to __________.

    a. the nature of the cargo being carried
    b. changes in heading
    c. major structural repair
    d. All of the above
2454: Illustration D037NG represents a moveable dam. If the wickets are down and there are open weirs due to high water, what light(s) will be shown at C if the lock walls and piers are not awash? (D037NG )

    a. One red light
    b. Two red lights
    c. Three red lights
    d. One amber light
2456: An orange and white buoy marking an area where operating restrictions are in effect will be marked with which symbol?

    a. Open-faced diamond
    b. Diamond with a cross
    c. Circle
    d. Rectangle
2458: In the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers, the light characteristic of group flashing (2) is used for lights on __________.

    a. the right descending bank
    b. the left descending bank
    c. preferred channel buoys
    d. daymarks with no lateral significant
2459: The controlling depth of the river is __________.

    a. the minimum depth of the river prescribed in the channel maintenance program
    b. the edge of a dredged channel
    c. the highest level to which the river may rise without flooding
    d. the least available water in a channel which limits the draft of boats and tows
2460: You are on course 344°T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 270°. What is the true bearing to the lighthouse?

    a. 016°
    b. 074°
    c. 090°
    d. 254°
2462: Under ideal viewing conditions, the dimmest star that can be seen with the unaided eye is of what magnitude?

    a. First
    b. Third
    c. Fourth
    d. Sixth
2464: Under the IALA-A Buoyage System, when entering from seaward a lateral system buoy to be left to port may display which topmark shown? (D046NG )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
2466: On the Western Rivers, a vessel crossing a river must __________.

    a. only keep out of the way of a power-driven vessel descending the river
    b. keep out of the way of any vessel descending the river
    c. keep out of the way of a power-driven vessel ascending or descending the river
    d. keep out of the way of any vessel ascending or descending the river
2468: Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers, the buoys marking the starboard side of the channel when going upstream will be __________.

    a. black
    b. red
    c. green
    d. yellow
2469: A tow that is properly aligned to pass through a narrow opening between two bridge piers is "________________".

    a. on course
    b. headed fair
    c. holding on
    d. in shape
2470: You are on course 344°T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 090°. What is the true bearing to the lighthouse?

    a. 016°
    b. 074°
    c. 254°
    d. 270°
2472: The Sun is closest to the Earth in what month?

    a. October
    b. July
    c. April
    d. January
2474: A vessel is heading magnetic north and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 356°. What action should be taken to remove this error during compass adjustment?

    a. If the blue ends of the magnets are to port, and the athwartships tray is at the top, you should remove some of the magnets.
    b. If the blue ends of the magnets are to starboard, and the athwartships tray is at the bottom, you should remove some magnets.
    c. If the red ends of the magnets are to starboard, and the athwartships tray is at the bottom, you should reverse the magnets.
    d. If the blue ends of the magnets are to starboard, you should raise the athwartships tray.
2476: At meridian transit, the diagram used by a navigator to illustrate the angles involved is based on the __________.

    a. celestial equator as observed from above the south celestial pole
    b. celestial equator as observed from above the north celestial pole
    c. plane of the observer's meridian
    d. plane of the Greenwich meridian
2478: On 23 August 1981 you observe a back sight of the lower limb of the Sun. The sextant altitude (hs) is 116°42.8'. The height of eye is 56 feet and the index error is 2.0' on the arc. What is the observed altitude (Ho)?

    a. 63°42.0'
    b. 63°38.0'
    c. 63°19.4'
    d. 62°49.6'
2479: The equation of time measures the __________.

    a. difference between local apparent time and Greenwich apparent time
    b. longitude in time units
    c. difference between sidereal time and local time at the Greenwich meridian
    d. time between the passage of the mean sun and the apparent sun over a meridian
2480: You are on course 277°T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 045°. What is the true bearing to the lighthouse?

    a. 038°
    b. 232°
    c. 315°
    d. 322°
2481: The letter D as shown represents the __________. (D006NG )

    a. celestial horizon
    b. sensible horizon
    c. geometrical horizon
    d. visible horizon
2482: When a vessel changes course from one cardinal heading to another cardinal heading while adjusting the compass, which action should be taken?

    a. The course change should be made rapidly to prevent transient induced magnetism while passing the intercardinal headings.
    b. After the new heading is reached, the vessel should steam on that course for at least two minutes before the adjustment.
    c. During the course change, you should gently tap the compass to remove any error caused by friction on the pivot bearing.
    d. After steadying on the new heading, the compass card should be slewed by a magnet and allowed to oscillate freely to remove any gaussin error.
2483: A white buoy with an orange rectangle on it is used to indicate __________.

    a. general information
    b. an exclusion area
    c. danger
    d. a controlled area
2484: What is the equivalent of 1°53' in time units?

    a. 3 min. 16 sec.
    b. 5 min. 28 sec.
    c. 6 min. 43 sec.
    d. 7 min. 32 sec.
2486: What is the equivalent of 23 min. 20 sec. in arc units?

    a. 16°40'
    b. 12°32'
    c. 9°28'
    d. 5°50'
2488: In which publication could you find information concerning the minimum lighting required for bridges on U.S. waters?

    a. Chart No. 1.
    b. Code of Federal Regulations
    c. Mississippi River Systems Light List
    d. Notice to Mariners
2489: You are approaching a drawbridge and must pass through during a scheduled closure period. What signal should you sound?

    a. Five short blasts
    b. Two prolonged, two short blasts
    c. Three prolonged blasts
    d. Three short blasts, two prolonged blasts
2490: A vertex of the navigational triangle is NOT located at the __________.

    a. elevated pole
    b. celestial body
    c. zenith
    d. coaltitude
2492: A star that suddenly becomes several magnitudes brighter and then gradually fades is a __________.

    a. double star
    b. variable star
    c. nova
    d. nebula
2494: You must construct a Mercator plotting sheet on a piece of paper measuring 24" by 30". The area includes latitude 28°N to 35°N and longitude 175°E to 178°W. Allow a three-quarter inch neat line on all sides. What is the maximum distance between each degree of longitude that will permit the area of the plotting sheet to be drawn within the stated limitation?

    a. 3.40 inches
    b. 3.22 inches
    c. 3.03 inches
    d. 2.91 inches
2496: An orange and white buoy marking a danger area will have what symbol on it?

    a. Open-faced diamond
    b. Diamond with a cross
    c. Circle
    d. Square
2498: The light characteristic of flashing is used in the Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers for lights on __________.

    a. the right descending bank
    b. the left descending bank
    c. preferred channel buoys
    d. daymarks with no lateral significance
2499: The "head of the bend" is the __________.

    a. top or upstream beginning of a bend
    b. bottom or downstream beginning of a bend
    c. midpoint or center radius of a bend
    d. center line or apex of a bend
2500: When correcting the sextant altitude to apparent altitude you are correcting for inaccuracies in the reading and __________.

    a. for inaccuracies in the reference level
    b. the equivalent reading at the center of the body
    c. the equivalent reading from the center of the Earth
    d. the bending of the rays of light from the body
2502: The major factor that causes the color difference between a red star (Betelgeuse) and a blue star (Rigel) is __________.

    a. its surface temperature
    b. the elevation above the horizon
    c. the mass of the star
    d. the contrast to nearby stars
2504: Under the IALA-A Buoyage System, when entering from seaward a lateral system buoy to be left to starboard may display which topmark shown? (D046NG )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
2505: At the approaches to Savannah, GA, with the wind coming out of the west, the wind-driven current will be flowing approximately __________.

    a. 280°
    b. 260°
    c. 100°
    d. 080°
2506: Which is TRUE on the Western Rivers when a vessel downbound with a following current is meeting an upbound vessel?

    a. She has the right of way only if she is a power-driven vessel.
    b. She has the right of way only if she has a tow.
    c. She does not have the right of way, since the other vessel is not crossing the river.
    d. She must wait for a whistle signal from the upbound vessel.
2508: Normal pool elevation is the height in feet of the section of river above a dam. This height is measured from __________.

    a. low steel on the Huey P. Long Bridge
    b. mean sea level
    c. the local water table
    d. the minimum dam control level
2509: All persons or vessels within the lock area, including the lock approach channels, come under the authority of the __________.

    a. dockmaster
    b. dock captain
    c. lockmaster
    d. lock foreman
2510: When correcting apparent altitude to observed altitude, you do NOT apply a correction for __________.

    a. the equivalent reading to the center of the body
    b. the equivalent reading from the center of the Earth
    c. the bending of the rays of light from the body
    d. inaccuracies in the reference level
2512: In the time diagram shown __________. (D005NG )

    a. you are in east longitude
    b. your time is about 1000
    c. your date is a day earlier than the date at Greenwich
    d. you must be in the Northern Hemisphere for it to be accurate
2514: Sidereal time is NOT used __________.

    a. as the basis for star charts
    b. to enter a star finder
    c. in sight reduction using Pub 249
    d. in sight reductions of planet observations
2516: Apparent time is based on __________.

    a. a fictitious sun moving along the celestial equator
    b. the visible sun moving along the ecliptic
    c. the Moon's motion in relation to the Sun
    d. the movement of the first point of Aries
2518: In low latitudes, the full Moon will always rise at about __________.

    a. sunrise
    b. 1200 LMT
    c. sunset
    d. 2400 LMT
2519: The standard time meridian for zone description -12 is __________.

    a. 165.0°E
    b. 172.5°E
    c. 180.0°
    d. 172.5°W
2520: When correcting the sextant altitude to apparent altitude you are correcting for inaccuracies in the reference level and __________.

    a. the equivalent reading to the center of the body
    b. the equivalent reading from the center of the Earth
    c. for inaccuracies in the instrument
    d. the bending of the rays of light from the body
2522: The letter H in illustration D006NG represents the __________. (D006NG )

    a. celestial horizon
    b. geoidal horizon
    c. visible horizon
    d. refractive horizon
2524: What is the equivalent of 2° 35' in time units?

    a. 10 min. 20 sec.
    b. 9 min. 10 sec.
    c. 7 min. 06 sec.
    d. 6 min. 43 sec.
2525: Daylight savings time is a form of zone time that adopts the time __________.

    a. two zones to the west
    b. two zones to the east
    c. one zone to the west
    d. one zone to the east
2526: What is the equivalent of 10 min. 52 sec. in arc units?

    a. 0°47'
    b. 1°12'
    c. 2°43'
    d. 3°52'
2527: In the doldrums you can expect __________.

    a. steady, constant winds
    b. frequent rain showers and thunderstorms
    c. steep pressure gradients
    d. low relative humidity
2528: Illustration D038NG represents a fixed C of E lock and dam. What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the position indicated by the letter A in the illustration? (D038NG )

    a. One red light
    b. Two red lights
    c. Two green lights
    d. No light
2529: A bridge over a navigable waterway is being repaired. There is a traveler platform under the bridge's deck that significantly reduces the vertical clearance. If required by the CG district commander, how will this be indicated at night?

    a. Illumination by flood lights
    b. A quick flashing red light at each lower corner
    c. A strobe light visible both up and downstream
    d. Fixed amber lights under the extreme outer edges of the traveler
2530: The distance between any two meridians measured along a parallel of latitude __________.

    a. increases in north latitude and decreases in south latitude
    b. decreases as DLO increases
    c. increases with increased latitude
    d. decreases with increased latitude
2532: You must construct a Mercator plotting sheet on a piece of paper measuring 28" by 32". The area includes latitude 32°S to 39°S and longitude 005°E to 003°W. Allow a one-half inch neat line on all sides. What is the maximum distance between each degree of longitude that will permit the area of the plotting sheet to be drawn within the stated limitations?

    a. 3.38 inches
    b. 3.62 inches
    c. 3.79 inches
    d. 3.95 inches
2534: You must construct a Mercator plotting sheet on a piece of paper measuring 26" by 30". The area includes latitude 28°15'N to 35°45'N and longitude 174°00'E to 178°00'W. Allow a three-quarter inch neat line on all sides. What is the maximum distance between each degree of longitude that will permit the area of the plotting sheet to be drawn within the stated limitation?

    a. 2.76 inches
    b. 2.92 inches
    c. 3.06 inches
    d. 3.19 inches
2536: A revised print of a chart is made __________.

    a. after every major hydrographic survey of the area covered by the chart
    b. when there are numerous corrections to be made or the corrections are extensive
    c. when a low-stock situation occurs and minor corrections are made
    d. every two years to update the magnetic variation information
2538: The light characteristic of composite group flashing (2 + 1) is used in the Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers for lights on __________.

    a. the right descending bank
    b. the left descending bank
    c. preferred-channel buoys
    d. daymarks with no lateral significance
2539: Under the IALA cardinal system, a mark with quick white light showing 3 flashes every 10 seconds indicates that the safest water in the area is on the __________.

    a. north side of the mark
    b. west side of the mark
    c. east side of the mark
    d. south side of the mark
2540: The distance between any two meridians measured along a parallel of latitude and expressed in miles is the __________.

    a. difference in longitude
    b. mid-longitude
    c. departure
    d. meridian angle
2542: Which magnetic compass corrector(s) CANNOT be set while the vessel is on a heading of magnetic north or magnetic south?

    a. Athwartships magnets
    b. Heeling magnet
    c. Flinders bar
    d. All of the above can be set on magnetic north or magnetic south headings.
2544: At McAlpine L & D, normal upper pool elevation is 420.0 feet MSL, equal to 12.0 feet on the upper gage. The vertical clearance at the Clark Memorial Highway bridge is 72.6 feet above normal pool. What is the clearance if the gage reads 27.2 feet?

    a. 25.4 feet
    b. 57.4 feet
    c. 60.6 feet
    d. 72.6 feet
2546: A structure, usually made of stone, or cement pilings, which extends from the bank at approximately right angles to the current is called a __________.

    a. dike
    b. revetment
    c. cutoff
    d. crib
2548: On the Mississippi River, gage zero is the gage reading measured from the __________.

    a. National Geodetic Vertical Datum
    b. low water reference plane
    c. the lowest recorded river depth
    d. the highest recorded river depth
2560: A plane that cuts the Earth's surface at any angle and passes through the center will always form __________.

    a. the equator
    b. a great circle
    c. a small circle
    d. a meridian
2562: In the time diagram shown __________. (D005NG )

    a. the GHA of the Sun is approximately 330°
    b. your date is one day later than the date at Greenwich
    c. the LHA of the Sun is approximately 120°
    d. you are in west longitude
2566: When the time is based on the movement of the visible Sun along the ecliptic the time is known as __________.

    a. real time
    b. visible time
    c. apparent time
    d. mean time
2567: When outbound from a U.S. port, a buoy displaying a flashing red light indicates __________.

    a. a sharp turn in the channel to the right
    b. a wreck to be left on the vessel's starboard side
    c. a junction with the preferred channel to the left
    d. the port side of the channel
2569: The mean sun used to measure time moves __________.

    a. along the ecliptic at 15° per hour
    b. along the celestial equator at 15° per day
    c. along the ecliptic at 15° per day
    d. along the celestial equator at 15° per hour
2570: A plane that cuts the Earth's surface and passes through the poles will always form __________.

    a. the equator
    b. a loxodromic curve
    c. a small circle
    d. a meridian
2572: The dividing meridian between zone descriptions -4 and -5 is __________.

    a. 60°00'E
    b. 67°30'E
    c. 75°00'E
    d. 60°00'W
2572: The dividing meridian between zone descriptions -4 and -5 is __________.

    a. 60°00'E
    b. 67°30'E
    c. 75°00'E
    d. 60°00'W
2574: What is the equivalent of 2°52' in time units?

    a. 9 min. 23 sec.
    b. 11 min. 28 sec.
    c. 11 min. 56 sec.
    d. 12 min. 18 sec.
2576: What is the equivalent of 8 min. 56 sec. in arc units?

    a. 0°28'
    b. 0°46'
    c. 1°12'
    d. 2°14'
2578: You must draw a plotting sheet covering latitudes 49°N to 53°N and longitudes 179°E to 178°W. If the distance between latitude 49°N to 53°N is 16 inches, what is the distance between the meridians of 1° of longitude?

    a. 2.12 inches
    b. 2.33 inches
    c. 2.56 inches
    d. 2.81 inches
2579: A phase correction may be applicable to correct the sextant altitude correction of __________.

    a. any star
    b. the Sun
    c. third magnitude stars only
    d. some planets
2580: The angle at the pole measured through 180°From the prime meridian to the meridian of a point is known as __________.

    a. the departure
    b. the polar arc
    c. longitude
    d. Greenwich hour angle
2582: You must construct a Mercator plotting sheet on a piece of paper measuring 32" by 36". The area includes latitude 31°S to 37°S and longitude 005°W to 002°E. Allow a three-quarter inch neat line on all sides. What is the maximum distance between each degree of longitude that will permit the area of the plotting sheet to be drawn within the stated limitations?

    a. 4.00 inches
    b. 4.11 inches
    c. 4.25 inches
    d. 4.36 inches
2583: You are in the Northern Hemisphere and a tropical wave is located 200 miles due west of your position. Where will the wave be located 24 hours later?

    a. In the same place
    b. Closer and to the west
    c. Closer and to the east
    d. Farther away to the west
2584: You must construct a Mercator plotting sheet on a piece of paper measuring 30" by 36". The area includes latitude 30°45'S to 37°15'S and longitude 004°00'E to 005°00'W. Allow a one inch neat line on all sides. What is the maximum distance between each degree of longitude that will permit the area of the plotting sheet to be drawn within the stated limitation?

    a. 3.09 inches
    b. 3.22 inches
    c. 3.41 inches
    d. 3.58 inches
2585: The letter D as shown represents the __________. (D006NG )

    a. visible horizon
    b. geometrical horizon
    c. sensible horizon
    d. celestial horizon
2586: A chart has extensive corrections to be made to it. When these are made and the chart is again printed, the chart issue is a __________.

    a. first edition
    b. new edition
    c. revised edition
    d. reprint
2587: Given are the courses and speeds of 4 vessels. The navigator of which vessel would be required to know the actual time of meridian transit in order to take an accurate observation at LAN?

    a. C 166°T, Sp 24 knots
    b. C 013°T, Sp 7 knots
    c. C 291°T, Sp 25 knots
    d. C 112°T, Sp 4 knots
2588: You are approaching an open drawbridge and sound the proper signal. You receive no acknowledgment from the bridge. Which action should you take?

    a. Approach with caution and proceed through the open draw.
    b. Approach under full control to a position no closer than 400 yards from the bridge and await a signal from the bridge.
    c. Hold in the channel as a vessel is closing the bridge from the other direction.
    d. Resound the opening signal and do not pass through the bridge until signals have been exchanged.
2589: Under the IALA cardinal system, a mark with a quick white light showing 6 flashes followed by one long flash indicates that the safest water is on the __________.

    a. north side of the mark
    b. west side of the mark
    c. east side of the mark
    d. south side of the mark
2590: A plane perpendicular to the polar axis will never form what line on the Earth's surface?

    a. Great circle
    b. Equator
    c. Small circle
    d. Meridian
2592: A deadhead is a(n) __________.

    a. tree or log awash in a nearly vertical position
    b. crew member who refuses to work
    c. upstream end of a land wall
    d. buoy that is adrift
2594: At McAlpine L & D, normal upper pool elevation is 420.0 feet (130.8 meters) MSL, equal to 12.0 feet (3.7 meters) on the upper gage. The vertical clearance at the Clark Memorial Highway bridge is 72.6 feet (22.1 meters) above normal pool. What is the clearance if the gage reads 10.6 feet (3.2 meters)?

    a. 84.6 feet (25.8 meters)
    b. 83.2 feet (25.4 meters)
    c. 74.0 feet (22.6 meters)
    d. 62.0 feet (18.9 meters)
2596: The abbreviation L.W.R.P. on the navigation maps means __________.

    a. low water reference plane
    b. low winter runoff point
    c. least water river plane
    d. land wall reference point
2597: You determine your vessel's position by taking a range and bearing to a buoy. Your position will be plotted as a(n) __________.

    a. fix
    b. running fix
    c. estimated position
    d. dead-reckoning position
2598: A vessel is proceeding downstream in a narrow channel on the Western Rivers when another vessel is sighted moving upstream. Which vessel has the right of way?

    a. The vessel moving upstream against the current
    b. The vessel moving downstream with a following current
    c. The vessel located more towards the channel centerline
    d. The vessel with the least amount of maneuverability
2600: A parallel of latitude other than the equator is a __________.

    a. great circle
    b. loxodromic curve
    c. small circle
    d. gnomonic curve
2602: The lunar day is also known as the __________.

    a. lunitidal interval
    b. vulgar establishment of the port
    c. nodal day
    d. tidal day
2604: A sidereal day is approximately how much shorter than a solar day?

    a. 4 minutes
    b. 8 minutes
    c. 12 minutes
    d. 16 minutes
2606: The measurement of local time is based on the passage of the Sun over the __________.

    a. upper branch of the observer's meridian
    b. lower branch of the observer's meridian
    c. upper branch of the Greenwich meridian
    d. lower branch of the Greenwich meridian
2608: You should plot your dead reckoning position __________.

    a. from every estimated position
    b. every three minutes in pilotage waters
    c. from every fix or running fix
    d. only in pilotage waters
2609: The letter A in illustration D006NG represents the __________. (D006NG )

    a. geoidal horizon
    b. celestial horizon
    c. visible horizon
    d. sensible horizon
2610: A line on the Earth parallel to the equator is a __________.

    a. gnomonic curve
    b. small circle
    c. meridian
    d. great circle
2612: The dividing meridian between zone descriptions -7 and -8 is __________.

    a. 112°30'E
    b. 118°30'E
    c. 120°00'E
    d. 116°30'W
2614: What is the equivalent of 4°36' in time units?

    a. 9 min. 12 sec.
    b. 14 min. 36 sec.
    c. 15 min. 36 sec.
    d. 18 min. 24 sec.
2616: What is the equivalent of 4 min. 04 sec. in arc units?

    a. 60°16'
    b. 8°08'
    c. 2°08'
    d. 1°01'
2618: You must draw a plotting sheet covering latitudes 38°N to 43°N and longitudes 179°E to 178°W. If the distance between each degree of longitude is 5 inches, what is the distance between latitude 38°N and latitude 43°N?

    a. 29.0 inches
    b. 29.6 inches
    c. 32.1 inches
    d. 32.8 inches
2619: In low latitudes, a first quarter Moon will always rise at about __________.

    a. sunrise
    b. 1200 LMT
    c. sunset
    d. 2400 LMT
2620: The navigator is concerned with three systems of coordinates. Which system is not of major concern?

    a. Terrestrial
    b. Ecliptic
    c. Celestial horizon
    d. Celestial equator
2624: You must construct a Mercator plotting sheet on a piece of paper measuring 30" by 32". The area includes latitudes 31°10'S to 37°40'S and longitudes 007°00'W to 001°00'E. Allow a one-half inch neat line on all sides. What is the maximum distance between each degree of longitude that will permit the area of the plotting sheet to be drawn within the stated limitation?

    a. 3.69 inches
    b. 3.52 inches
    c. 3.38 inches
    d. 3.26 inches
2625: Stormy weather is usually associated with regions of __________.

    a. high barometric pressure
    b. changing barometric pressure
    c. low barometric pressure
    d. steady barometric pressure
2626: What information is found in the chart title?

    a. Date of the first edition
    b. Date of the edition and, if applicable, the revision
    c. Information on the sounding datum
    d. Information on which IALA buoyage system applies
2627: Stormy weather is usually associated with regions of __________.

    a. high barometric pressure
    b. low barometric pressure
    c. steady barometric pressure
    d. changing barometric pressure
2628: A drawbridge may use visual signals to acknowledge a vessel's request to open the draw. Which signal indicates that the draw will NOT be opened immediately?

    a. A flashing amber light
    b. A fixed red light
    c. A white flag raised and lowered vertically
    d. A flashing white light
2629: In both regions of the IALA buoyage system, which topmark is used on a special mark? (D022NG )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
2630: In the celestial equator system of coordinates what is NOT equivalent to the longitude of the Earth system of coordinates?

    a. SHA
    b. t
    c. LHA
    d. Zn
2632: A section of the river that is narrower than usual and is often navigable from bank to bank is a __________.

    a. chute
    b. stabilized channel
    c. slough
    d. navigable pass
2634: Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers, a preferred-channel buoy is __________.

    a. horizontally-banded red and green
    b. vertically-striped red and white
    c. solid red
    d. solid green
2636: You are ascending a river and exchanging navigational information via radiotelephone with a descending vessel. If the descending vessel advises you to "watch for the set" above point X, what would you expect to encounter above point X?

    a. An increase in current velocity
    b. Slack water
    c. Shallow water
    d. A sideways movement of your vessel
2638: A vessel crossing a river on the Western Rivers has the right of way over __________.

    a. vessels ascending the river
    b. vessels descending the river
    c. all vessels ascending and descending the river
    d. None of the above
2639: Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System used on the Western Rivers, aids to navigation lights on the right descending bank show __________.

    a. white or green lights
    b. white or red lights
    c. green lights only
    d. white lights only
2640: In the celestial equator system of coordinates what is the equivalent to the meridians of the Earth system of coordinates?

    a. Horizon
    b. Hour circles
    c. Vertical circles
    d. Parallel of declination
2642: Local sidereal time is equal to the __________.

    a. GHA of Aries minus 180°
    b. SHA of Aries
    c. LHA of Aries
    d. right ascension of Aries plus 180°
2644: The sidereal day begins __________.

    a. when the sun is over the first point of Aries
    b. when the first point of Aries is over 180° longitude
    c. when the first point of Aries is over the upper branch of the reference meridian
    d. at 0000 on 1 January (Sidereal Date)
2646: During daylight savings time the meridian used for determining the time is located farther __________.

    a. east
    b. west
    c. east in west longitude and west in east longitude
    d. west in west longitude and east in east longitude
2648: The 3-cm radar as compared to a 10-cm radar with similar specifications will __________.

    a. give better range performance in rain, hail, etc.
    b. display small targets in a mass of dense sea clutter at a greater range
    c. have less sea return in choppy rough seas
    d. display a more maplike presentation for inshore navigation
2649: The letter C in illustration D006NG represents the __________. (D006NG )

    a. geoidal horizon
    b. celestial horizon
    c. visible horizon
    d. sensible horizon
2650: In the celestial equator system of coordinates what is equivalent to the colatitude of the Earth system of coordinates?

    a. Coaltitude
    b. Zenith distance
    c. Polar distance
    d. Declination
2651: Low pressure disturbances which travel along the intertropical convergence zone are called __________.

    a. tropical waves
    b. tropical disturbances
    c. permanent waves
    d. tidal waves
2652: The dividing meridian between zone descriptions -10 and -11 is __________.

    a. 135°30'E
    b. 145°00'E
    c. 150°00'E
    d. 157°30'E
2654: What is the equivalent of 5°54' in time units?

    a. 20 min. 16 sec.
    b. 23 min. 36 sec.
    c. 25 min. 54 sec.
    d. 30 min. 27 sec.
2656: What is the equivalent of 0 min. 16 sec. in arc units?

    a. 0°32'
    b. 0°16'
    c. 0°04'
    d. 0°01'
2658: You must draw a plotting sheet covering latitudes 45°N to 49°N and longitudes 179°E to 178°W. If the distance between each degree of longitude is 5 3/4 inches, what is the distance between latitude 45°N and latitude 49°N?

    a. 33.1 inches
    b. 33.3 inches
    c. 33.6 inches
    d. 33.9 inches
2659: IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, the port side of a channel would be marked by a __________.

    a. black can buoy
    b. red conical buoy
    c. black conical buoy
    d. red can buoy
2660: In the celestial equator system of coordinates what is equivalent to the longitude of the Earth system of coordinates?

    a. Zenith distance
    b. Azimuth angle
    c. Declination
    d. Greenwich hour angle
2662: You must construct a Mercator plotting sheet on a piece of paper measuring 24" by 28". The area includes latitude 37°S to 42°S and longitude 175°E to 179°W. Allow a one inch neat line on all sides. What is the maximum distance between each degree of longitude that will permit the area of the plotting sheet to be drawn within the stated limitations?

    a. 3.33 inches
    b. 3.41 inches
    c. 3.67 inches
    d. 3.82 inches
2664: The Light List shows a lighted aid to navigation on the right bank. This means that the light can be seen on the port side of a vessel __________.

    a. crossing the river
    b. descending the river
    c. ascending the river
    d. proceeding towards sea
2666: The following boats are approaching a lock. Which has priority for locking?

    a. An 85-foot yacht
    b. Corps of Engineer towboat running empty-headed
    c. "Delta Queen" (passenger vessel)
    d. An integrated chemical tow
2668: You are approaching a drawbridge and have sounded the request-for-opening signal. The bridge has responded with five short blasts. What reply should you sound?

    a. None; No reply is required
    b. Five short blasts
    c. Two prolonged blasts
    d. One prolonged, one short blast
2669: Under the IALA Buoyage System, which topmark shown will be displayed on a safe water mark? (D023NG )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
2670: The angle that is measured westward from the first point of Aries to the hour circle of the body along the celestial equator is the __________.

    a. Greenwich sidereal angle
    b. local sidereal time
    c. sidereal hour angle
    d. azimuth angle
2672: When you are steering on a pair of range lights and find the upper light is in line above the lower light, you should __________.

    a. continue on the present course
    b. come left
    c. come right
    d. wait until the lights are no longer in a vertical line
2673: A bluff bar is a bar __________.

    a. extending out from a bluff alongside the river
    b. that tends to give a false indication of its position
    c. that has a sharp drop off into deep water
    d. that is perpendicular to the current
2674: In the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers, a preferred channel buoy to be left to port while proceeding downstream will __________.

    a. have the upper band red
    b. show a red light if lighted
    c. have a characteristic of composite group flashing if lighted
    d. All of the above
2675: When you are steering on a pair of range lights and find the upper light is in line above the lower light, you should __________.

    a. come left
    b. continue on the present course
    c. come right
    d. wait until the lights are no longer in a vertical line
2676: The place where a channel moves from along one bank of the river over to the other bank of the river is called a __________.

    a. draft
    b. cutoff
    c. draw
    d. crossing
2678: A vessel crossing a river on the Western Rivers, must keep out of the way of a power-driven vessel __________.

    a. descending the river with a tow
    b. ascending the river with a tow
    c. ascending the river without a tow
    d. All of the above
2679: Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers, a daymark on the right descending bank will __________.

    a. be green
    b. have an odd number
    c. indicate the gage reading
    d. have yellow retroreflective markings
2680: The angle measured eastward from the vernal equinox along the celestial equator often expressed in time units is the __________.

    a. Greenwich sidereal time
    b. right ascension
    c. local sidereal time
    d. sidereal hour angle
2682: Sidereal time is used by navigators when __________.

    a. used with the equation of time
    b. used in the form of LHA Aries
    c. calculating the time of moonrise
    d. determining local apparent time
2683: A vessel's position should be plotted using bearings of __________.

    a. buoys close at hand
    b. fixed known objects on shore
    c. fixed objects
    d. All of the above
2684: The maximum difference between mean time and apparent time is __________.

    a. equal to the longitude expressed in time units
    b. about 16 minutes
    c. the difference between the GHA of mean sun and the first point of Aries
    d. 15° of arc
2686: The standard time meridian for description +12 is __________.

    a. 172.5°E
    b. 180.0°
    c. 172.5°W
    d. 165.0°W
2687: The letter B in illustration D006NG represents the __________.

    a. celestial horizon
    b. visible horizon
    c. sensible horizon
    d. geoidal horizon
2688: The 10-cm radar as compared to a 3-cm radar of similar specifications will __________.

    a. be more suitable for river and harbor navigation
    b. provide better range performance on low lying targets during good weather and calm seas
    c. have a wider horizontal beam width
    d. have more sea return during rough sea conditions
2689: The letter D in illustration D006NG represents __________. (D006NG )

    a. geometrical horizon
    b. visible horizon
    c. celestial horizon
    d. sensible horizon
2690: Right ascension is primarily used by the navigator for __________.

    a. calculating amplitudes
    b. calculating great circle sailings by the Ageton method
    c. entering the Air Navigation Tables (Selected Stars) Pub 249
    d. plotting on star finders
2692: The dividing meridian between zone descriptions -2 and -3 is __________.

    a. 15°30'E
    b. 30°00'E
    c. 37°30'E
    d. 45°00'E
2694: What is the equivalent of 10°48' in time units?

    a. 2 min. 39 sec.
    b. 20 min. 12 sec.
    c. 43 min. 12 sec.
    d. 50 min. 12 sec.
2695: You are plotting a running fix in an area where there is a determinable current. How should this current be treated in determining the position?

    a. The drift should be added to the ship's speed.
    b. The current should be ignored.
    c. The course and speed made good should be determined and used to advance the LOP.
    d. The set should be applied to the second bearing.
2696: You must draw a plotting sheet covering latitudes 52°S to 56°S and longitudes 179°W to 175°E. If the distance between latitude 52°S to 56°S is 24 inches, what is the distance between the meridians of 1° of longitude?

    a. 3.2 inches
    b. 3.5 inches
    c. 4.0 inches
    d. 4.2 inches
2698: You must draw a plotting sheet covering latitudes 38°N to 41°N and longitudes 179°E to 178°W. If the distance between each degree of longitude is 4 inches, what is the distance between latitude 38°N and latitude 41°N?

    a. 15.00 inches
    b. 15.49 inches
    c. 15.75 inches
    d. 16.25 inches
2700: In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to the meridian angle of the celestial equator system?

    a. Azimuth angle
    b. Zenith distance
    c. Colatitude
    d. Altitude
2702: You must draw a plotting sheet covering latitudes 46°N to 48°N and longitudes 179°E to 178°W. If the distance between each degree of longitude is 2 7/8 inches, what is the distance between latitude 46°N and 48°N?

    a. 8.4 inches
    b. 8.1 inches
    c. 7.9 inches
    d. 7.7 inches
2703: Which publication indicates the HYDROLANTS or HYDROPACS issued since the previous working day?

    a. Broadcast Notice to Mariners
    b. Local Notice to Mariners
    c. Daily Memorandum
    d. Summary of Corrections
2704: The Light List shows a lighted aid to navigation on the right bank. This means that the light can be seen on the starboard side of a vessel __________.

    a. proceeding from seaward
    b. crossing the river
    c. ascending the river
    d. descending the river
2705: Information about the direction and velocity of rotary tidal currents is found in the __________.

    a. Tidal Current Tables
    b. Mariner's Guide
    c. Tide Tables
    d. Nautical Almanac
2706: The following types of vessels are awaiting lockage on the upper Mississippi. Which type of vessel is normally passed through the lock first?

    a. Pleasure craft
    b. Commercial towboats
    c. Commercial passenger vessels
    d. Commercial fishing vessels
2707: You will find information about the duration of slack water in the __________.

    a. Tidal Current Tables
    b. Tide Tables
    c. American Practical Navigator
    d. Sailing Directions
2708: You are approaching a drawbridge and have sounded the proper whistle signal requesting it to open. You hear a signal of one prolonged and one short blast from the bridge. Which action should you take?

    a. Anchor or use an alternate route because the bridge is out of service for an extended period of time.
    b. Approach to a point not closer than 400 yards (360 meters) from the bridge and await further signals.
    c. Hold in the channel as the bridge will open within 15 minutes.
    d. Approach under full control to pass through the bridge.
2709: Under the IALA-B Buoyage System, when entering from seaward a lateral system buoy to be left to port may display which of the topmarks shown? (D046NG )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
2710: In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to the local hour angle of the celestial equator system?

    a. Altitude
    b. Azimuth
    c. Zenith distance
    d. Colongitude
2711: Information about currents on the Pacific Coast of the U. S. are found in the __________.

    a. Tidal Current Tables
    b. Nautical Almanac
    c. Tide Tables
    d. Ocean Current Tables
2712: A bold reef is a reef __________.

    a. with part of it extending above the water
    b. that can be detected by water turbulence
    c. that drops off sharply
    d. perpendicular to the current
2714: A current moving across a lock entrance toward the river or toward the dam is called a(n) __________.

    a. cutoff
    b. outdraft
    c. lockwash
    d. springpool
2716: Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers, passing daymarks on the left descending bank are __________.

    a. green squares
    b. green diamonds
    c. red diamonds
    d. red triangles
2718: A power-driven vessel operating in a narrow channel with a following current, on the Western Rivers, is meeting an upbound vessel. Which statement is TRUE?

    a. The downbound vessel has the right-of-way.
    b. The downbound vessel must initiate the required maneuvering signals.
    c. The downbound vessel must propose the manner and place of passage.
    d. All of the above
2719: Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers, passing daymarks on the right descending bank are __________.

    a. red diamond-shaped panels with red reflector borders
    b. red triangular-shaped panels with red reflector borders
    c. green square-shaped panels with green reflector borders
    d. green triangular-shaped panels with green reflector borders
2720: When pushing barges ahead close to a steep revetment where there is no current, what is MOST likely to occur?

    a. The stern of the towboat will tend to sheer away from the revetment.
    b. Your speed over the ground will increase.
    c. The head of the tow will tend to sheer away from the revetment.
    d. All of the above
2721: You are plotting a running fix. How many fixed objects are needed to take your lines of position from?

    a. One
    b. Two
    c. Three
    d. None
2722: The paths of intended travel between three or more points is the __________.

    a. course
    b. track
    c. bearing
    d. course over the ground
2724: Which condition indicates that your radar needs maintenance?

    a. Serrated range rings
    b. Indirect echoes
    c. Multiple echoes
    d. Blind sector
2725: A position that is obtained by using two or more intersecting lines of position taken at nearly the same time, is a(n) __________.

    a. estimated position
    b. dead-reckoning position
    c. running fix
    d. fix
2726: A daymark used as a special mark is indicated by which letter in the diagram? (D045NG )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
2729: While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you hear the echo of the ships fog horn 5.5 seconds after the signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore?

    a. 3825 ft (1166 meters)
    b. 3450 ft (1052 meters)
    c. 3072 ft (936 meters)
    d. 2475 ft (754 meters)
2730: When attempting an upstream landing while pushing empty barges ahead in a hard onshore wind, the approach is best made __________.

    a. with bow out, stern in
    b. with bow in, stern out
    c. parallel to the dock, as close in as possible
    d. parallel to the dock, as far out as possible
2737: A lateral system buoy displaying a quick light __________.

    a. should be passed close aboard on either side
    b. indicates that special caution is required
    c. is used at a channel bifurcation or junction
    d. is painted with red and white vertical stripes
2738: While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you hear the echo of the ship's fog horn 3 seconds after the signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore?

    a. 1100 yards
    b. 872 yards
    c. 550 yards
    d. 792 yards
2739: A daymark used to indicate the starboard side of the channel when approaching from seaward will have the shape indicated by what letter in illustration D045NG?

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
2740: When one upbound vessel is overtaking another vessel and both are pushing a tow ahead, what reaction may you expect?

    a. Both towheads will tend to drift apart, and the overtaking vessel will be slowed down.
    b. Both towheads will tend to drift together, and the overtaking vessel will be slowed down.
    c. Both towheads will tend to drift apart, and the overtaken vessel will be slowed down.
    d. Both towheads will tend to drift together, and the overtaken vessel will be slowed down.
2741: A general chart could have a scale of __________.

    a. 1:200,000
    b. 1:1,000,000
    c. 1:50,000
    d. not more than 1:25,000
2742: A white diamond daymark with an orange border is a(n) __________.

    a. special mark
    b. information or regulatory mark
    c. lateral aid on the intracoastal waterway
    d. safe water mark
2744: The standard atmospheric pressure measured in inches of mercury is __________.

    a. 29.92
    b. 500.0
    c. 760.0
    d. 1013.2
2746: What is used to measure wind velocity?

    a. Psychrometer
    b. Barometer
    c. Wind sock
    d. Anemometer
2750: When pushing a tow and approaching barges tied off to the shore, you should __________.

    a. increase speed so you will pass faster
    b. decrease speed while passing so you won't create a suction
    c. do nothing different as the barges should be tied off properly
    d. move to the opposite side of the channel from the barges and increase speed
2752: A daymark used to indicate the safe water in a channel will have which of the shapes shown? (D045NG )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
2760: You are pushing a tow ahead, at high speed, near the right hand bank of a canal. The forces affecting your towboat and tow will tend to __________.

    a. push both the head of the tow and the stern of the towboat away from the right hand bank
    b. push the head of the tow away from, and pull the stern of the towboat into, the right hand bank
    c. pull both the head of the tow and the stern of the towboat into the right hand bank
    d. pull the head of the tow into, and push the stern of the towboat away from, the right hand bank
2762: You take a bearing of 176° of a lighthouse. Which bearing of another object would give the best fix?

    a. 079°
    b. 151°
    c. 176°
    d. 292°
2764: You are in a channel inbound from sea. A daymark used to mark a channel junction when the preferred channel is to port will have the shape indicated by what letter in illustration D045NG?

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
2766: In low latitudes, the high(s) of the diurnal variation of pressure occur(s) at __________.

    a. noon
    b. noon and midnight
    c. 1000 and 2200
    d. 1600
2768: Which type of daymark is used to mark the starboard side of the channel when entering from sea?

    a. Red and white octagon
    b. Black and white diamond
    c. Red triangle
    d. Green square
2769: If your vessel must pass through a draw during a scheduled closure period, what signal should you sound to request the opening of the draw?

    a. One prolonged blast followed by one short blast
    b. Three short blasts
    c. One prolonged blast followed by three short blasts
    d. Five short blasts
2770: What is most likely to happen when you push a multiple tow into a countercurrent?

    a. Going upstream you will make better speed with no danger involved.
    b. Going downstream you will be slowed down but will keep control of the tow.
    c. There is a good chance you will break up the tow.
    d. No danger exists as long as you steer a straight course through the eddy.
2772: The direction in which a vessel should be steered between two points is the __________.

    a. course
    b. heading
    c. bearing
    d. course over the ground
2774: Your radar is set on a true motion display. Which of the following will NOT appear to move across the PPI scope?

    a. Echoes from a buoy
    b. Own ship's marker
    c. Echo from a ship on the same course at the same speed
    d. Echo from a ship on a reciprocal course at the same speed
2776: For a well made and well maintained sextant, the maximum value of which correction is usually so small that it can be ignored?

    a. Personal correction
    b. Instrument correction
    c. Phase
    d. Dip correction
2777: A sailing chart could have a scale of __________.

    a. not more than 1:25,000
    b. 1:35,000
    c. 1:100,000
    d. 1:700,000
2778: A special daymark is a __________.

    a. red-and-white octagon
    b. daymark with a yellow stripe on it
    c. green square
    d. yellow diamond
2779: The buoy indicated by the letter B in illustration D044NG is a __________.

    a. nun
    b. can
    c. spar
    d. pillar
2779: The buoy indicated by the letter B in illustration D044NG is a __________.

    a. nun
    b. can
    c. spar
    d. pillar
2780: You are pushing a tow ahead and passing close to another towboat which is pushing ahead in the same direction (you are overtaking). After the towheads pass close alongside __________.

    a. you will gain speed
    b. both boats will gain speed
    c. the tows will tend to drift apart
    d. the tows will tend to drift together
2782: Your radar is set on a true motion display. Which of the following will appear to move across the PPI scope.

    a. Own ship's marker
    b. Echo from a ship at anchor
    c. Echoes from land masses
    d. All of the above
2788: The Light List indicates that a dayboard is a type KGW. You should __________.

    a. see a green and white diamond
    b. leave it to port when southbound on the Atlantic Coast ICW
    c. pass it close aboard on either side
    d. look for another daymark to form the range
2790: A towboat has the same draft as the barges it is pushing ahead. If the distance from the stern of the towboat to the head of the tow is 800 feet, where is the approximate location of the pivot point of the unit?

    a. At the head of the tow
    b. 250 feet from the head of the tow
    c. 400 feet from the head of the tow
    d. 600 feet from the head of the tow
2791: The letter B in illustration D006NG represents the __________.

    a. sensible horizon
    b. geoidal horizon
    c. celestial horizon
    d. visible horizon
2792: You take a bearing of 142° and 259° of two objects. Which bearing of a third object will give the best fix?

    a. 081°
    b. 238°
    c. 201°
    d. 234°
2794: The standard atmospheric pressure in millibars is __________.

    a. 760.0
    b. 938.9
    c. 1000.0
    d. 1013.2
2796: The correction tables in the Nautical Almanac for use with Moon sights do NOT include the effects of __________.

    a. instrument error
    b. augmentation
    c. semidiameter
    d. parallax
2798: A can buoy is indicated by which letter in illustration D044NG?

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
2800: Where is the pivot point of a towboat with a tow ahead?

    a. One-third the length of the combined unit forward of the towboat
    b. One-third the length of the combined unit back from the head
    c. At the head of the towboat
    d. One-half the length of the combined unit
2801: Mean high water is used __________.

    a. as the reference for soundings on the Gulf coast of the U.S.
    b. to indicate the shoreline where there is a large tidal fluctuation
    c. as the reference plane for bottom contour lines
    d. as the sounding datum for rivers, lakes, etc. regulated by locks
2802: The pictures shown represent the geographic location of a vessel and the radar presentation at the same time. Which statement is TRUE? (D011NG )

    a. Ship No. 1 does not paint as an individual target due to the effect of pulse length.
    b. The small island is not detected due to shadow effect of the mountain.
    c. A target bearing of the headland to the south-southeast is corrected by adding one-half of the beam width.
    d. Ship No. 2 is not detected due to the reflective mass of the mountain overpowering the ship's reflective signals.
2803: Some locations maintain a zone time of -13. What are the Greenwich time and date if the zone time and date are 0152, 10 January?

    a. 1252, 9 January
    b. 1452, 9 January
    c. 0052, 11 January
    d. 1452, 11 January
2804: The altitude at LAN may be observed by starting several minutes in advance and continuing until a maximum altitude occurs. This procedure should not be used __________.

    a. when the declination and latitude are of different names
    b. when the declination is greater than and the same name as the latitude
    c. if the vessel is stopped or making bare steerageway
    d. on a fast vessel on northerly or southerly headings
2805: You are entering port and have been instructed to anchor, as your berth is not yet available. You are on a SW'ly heading, preparing to drop anchor, when you observe the range as shown on your starboard beam. You should __________. (D047NG )

    a. drop the anchor immediately as the range lights mark an area free of obstructions
    b. drop the anchor immediately as a change in the position of the range lights will be an indication of dragging anchor
    c. NOT drop the anchor until the lights are in line
    d. ensure your ship will NOT block the channel or obstruct the range while at anchor
2809: The diurnal variation of pressure is not visible in the middle latitudes in winter because __________.

    a. it is masked by the pressure changes of moving weather systems
    b. the decreased gravitational effect from the sun causes the variation to fade
    c. the decreased average temperature is less than the critical temperature
    d. the increased Coriolis force disperses the pressure variation
2810: When steering a tow downstream around the shape of a sand bar, and staying on the proper side of the buoys, an operator should be cautious of __________.

    a. eddies under the bar
    b. swift current under the bar causing loss of control
    c. cross-currents pushing the tow away from the bar
    d. cross-currents pushing the tow into the bar
2812: A line of position from a celestial observation is a segment of a __________.

    a. circle of equal altitude
    b. parallel of declination
    c. parallel of altitude
    d. vertical circle
2814: In low latitudes the range of the diurnal variation of pressure is up to __________.

    a. 0.5 millibar
    b. 3.0 millibars
    c. 6.0 millibars
    d. 10.0 millibars
2816: The length of a wave is the length __________.

    a. of the wave's crest
    b. of the wave's trough
    c. measured from crest to trough
    d. measured from crest to crest
2818: You take bearings of 313°T and 076°T on two objects. Which bearing of a third object will give the best fix?

    a. 048°T
    b. 101°T
    c. 142°T
    d. 187°T
2819: The time interval between successive wave crests is called __________.

    a. wave period
    b. wavelength
    c. frequency
    d. significant wave height
2820: A towboat is pushing barges ahead at a dangerously fast speed when __________.

    a. the towboat vibrates when backing down
    b. the roostertail exceeds the height of the main deck
    c. a strain is placed on the face wires
    d. water comes over the foredeck of the lead barges
2821: The height of tide is the __________.

    a. difference between the depth of the water at high tide and the depth of the water at low tide
    b. depth of water at a specific time due to tidal effect
    c. difference between the depth of the water and the area's tidal datum
    d. difference between the depth of the water and the high water tidal level
2822: While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you hear the echo of the ships fog horn 2 seconds after the signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore?

    a. 360 yards
    b. 320 yards
    c. 280 yards
    d. 140 yards
2822: While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you hear the echo of the ships fog horn 2 seconds after the signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore?

    a. 360 yards
    b. 320 yards
    c. 280 yards
    d. 140 yards
2824: When you turn on the fast time constant (differentiator) control of a radar it will __________.

    a. enhance weak target echoes and brighten them on the PPI
    b. reduce clutter over the entire PPI by shortening the echoes
    c. only suppress weak targets to a limited distance from the ship (sea clutter)
    d. reduce the beam width to provide a map-like presentation for navigation
2826: You take a bearing of 043° and 169° of two objects. What bearing of a third object will give the best fix?

    a. 356°
    b. 102°
    c. 144°
    d. 201°
2828: The daily recurring pattern of pressure changes most noticeable in low latitudes is the __________.

    a. daily lapse reading
    b. diurnal variation of pressure
    c. pressure tendency
    d. synoptic pressure
2829: A spar buoy is indicated by which letter in illustration D044NG?

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
2830: The proper way to approach a downstream lock where there is an outdraft is to be __________.

    a. wide out from the land wall, keeping the stern in at all times
    b. wide out from the land wall, keeping the stern out at all times
    c. close in to the land wall, keeping the stern in at all times
    d. close in to the land wall, keeping the stern out at all times
2831: A coastal chart could have a scale of __________.

    a. not more than 1:25,000
    b. 1:35,000
    c. 1:100,000
    d. 1:500,000
2832: The Light List indicates that a dayboard is a type MR. You should __________.

    a. leave it on either side
    b. look for the other dayboard forming the range
    c. look for an all red daymark
    d. check to enter the correct channel at this junction daymark
2836: The correction tables in the front of the Nautical Almanac for use with sun sights do NOT include the effects of __________.

    a. mean refraction
    b. parallax
    c. semidiameter
    d. irradiation
2838: You take a bearing of 191° and 313° to two objects. Which bearing of a third object will give the best fix?

    a. 001°
    b. 069°
    c. 209°
    d. 356°
2839: Privately maintained aids to navigation included in the Light List __________.

    a. are painted white and must use a white light if lighted
    b. must be conspicuously marked by a signboard with the words "PRIVATE AID"
    c. must conform to the standards of the U.S. Aids to Navigation System
    d. are not permitted in or along first-class waterways and may be authorized for second- and third-class waterways
2840: The lockmaster has given you permission to tie off on the lower guide wall to wait your turn to lock through. What should you be most concerned with?

    a. A downbound vessel
    b. An upbound vessel
    c. Current reaction when the lock chamber is being emptied
    d. Current reaction when the lock chamber is being filled
2841: You are required to enter a lock on your voyage. Information on the lock regulations, signals, and radio communications can be found in __________.

    a. Coast Pilot
    b. Corps of Engineer Information Bulletin
    c. Bowditch
    d. the publication "Key to the Locks"
2842: The draw span of a floating drawbridge may be marked with __________.

    a. two white lights
    b. a yellow diamond
    c. flashing blue lights
    d. three red lights on each side of the draw
2843: A position obtained by applying ONLY your vessel's course and speed to a known position is a __________.

    a. fix
    b. running fix
    c. dead-reckoning position
    d. probable position
2844: The signal from a ramark will show on the PPI as a __________.

    a. coded signal on the same bearing and at a greater range then the transponder
    b. circle surrounding the transponder
    c. radial line from the transponder to the center of the PPI
    d. dashed circle at the same range as the transponder
2846: Which type of daymark is used to mark the port side of the channel when entering from sea?

    a. Red and white octagon
    b. Black and white diamond
    c. Red triangle
    d. Green square
2848: While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you hear the echo of the ships fog horn 6 seconds after the signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore?

    a. 1200 yards
    b. 1100 yards
    c. 1000 yards
    d. 900 yards
2849: You take a bearing of 086° of a lighthouse. What bearing of another object would give the best fix?

    a. 000°
    b. 066°
    c. 112°
    d. 271°
2850: What is used to help prevent damage to barges, locks, and landings when you are locking or landing a tow?

    a. Dock cushions
    b. Springers
    c. Landing bars
    d. Bumpers (fenders)
2850: What is used to help prevent damage to barges, locks, and landings when you are locking or landing a tow?

    a. Dock cushions
    b. Springers
    c. Landing bars
    d. Bumpers (fenders)
2851: You determine your vessel's position by taking a range and bearing to a buoy. Your position will be plotted as a(n) __________.

    a. dead-reckoning position
    b. estimated position
    c. running fix
    d. fix
2852: A daymark warning of a danger will have the shape indicated by which letter? (D045NG )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
2854: The distance in miles between the circle of equal altitude for the observed altitude (Ho) and the circle of equal altitude for the computed altitude (Hc) is the __________.

    a. equation of time
    b. zenith distance
    c. intercept
    d. zenith angle
2858: While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you hear the echo of the ships fog horn 2 1/2 seconds after the signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore?

    a. 225 yards
    b. 460 yards
    c. 750 yards
    d. 910 yards
2859: The buoy indicated by the letter C in illustration D044NG is a __________.

    a. nun
    b. can
    c. spar
    d. pillar
2860: On the Mississippi and Ohio Rivers, there is a special type of fog known as steam fog. It is caused by __________.

    a. warm air passing over much colder water
    b. cold air passing over much warmer water
    c. a rapid cooling of the ground on a clear night
    d. rain coming out of a warm air mass aloft
2862: When slanted letters are used to spell the name of a charted object you know the __________.

    a. object is only a hazard to vessels drawing in excess of 20 feet
    b. position is approximate or doubtful
    c. object is always visible
    d. object may cover and uncover with the tide
2866: Some locations maintain a zone time of -13. What are the zone time and date if the Greenwich time and date are 2152, 10 January?

    a. 1052, 9 January
    b. 0852, 10 January
    c. 1052, 10 January
    d. 1052, 11 January
2868: You are inbound in a channel marked by a range. The range line is 309°T. You are steering 306°T and have the range in sight as shown. Which action should you take? (D048NG )

    a. Continue on the present heading until the range is in line then alter course to the right.
    b. Immediately alter course to the right to bring the range in line.
    c. Immediately alter course to the left to bring the range in line.
    d. Immediately alter course to 309°T if the range is closing.
2869: A pillar buoy is indicated by which letter shown in the illustration? (D044NG )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
2870: Steam fog is most likely to occur on the Mississippi and Ohio Rivers in __________.

    a. spring, around late evening
    b. spring, around early evening
    c. fall, around early morning
    d. fall, around midday
2874: What daymark has NO lateral significance?

    a. Red triangle
    b. Red triangle with a green horizontal stripe
    c. Green and white diamond
    d. Green square
2875: A harbor chart could have a scale of __________.

    a. not more than 1:25,000
    b. 1:35,000
    c. 1:150,000
    d. not less than 1:500,000
2876: On 13 November 1981 you observe a back sight of the lower limb of the Sun. The sextant altitude (hs) is 109°23.6'. The height of eye is 66 feet, and the index error is 2.0' off the arc. What is the observed altitude (Ho)?

    a. 71°01.2'
    b. 70°57.2'
    c. 70°45.4
    d. 70°26.4'
2877: Class I and II private aids to navigation in or along navigable waters of the United States are listed in the __________.

    a. Sailing Directions
    b. Light List
    c. List of Private Aids
    d. Aids to Navigation Manual
2878: Given are the courses and speeds of 4 vessels. The navigator of which vessel would be required to know the actual time of meridian transit in order to take an accurate observation at LAN?

    a. C 356°T, Sp 5 knots
    b. C 099°T, Sp 17 knots
    c. C 192°T, Sp 23 knots
    d. C 278°T, Sp 6 knots
2880: While upbound through Memphis, the weather report on the TV news indicates that a cold front will cross western Kentucky and Tennessee the next morning. What weather should accompany this front?

    a. Light, southerly winds; high humidity and possibly fog
    b. Overcast with steady, light rain or drizzle
    c. Gusting winds shifting to the northwest with thunderstorms
    d. Scattered clouds with light to moderate southeasterly winds and possibly fog
2882: While upbound through Memphis, the weather report on TV news indicates that a warm front is stationary over the Kentucky - Missouri - Tennessee areas. What weather conditions should you expect?

    a. Strong, gusting winds from the NW with thundershowers
    b. Light winds from the northeast with clear skies
    c. A "blue norther"
    d. Southerly winds with steady rain; fog or overcast
2884: The pictures shown represent the geographic location of a vessel and the radar presentation at the same time. Which statement is TRUE? (D011NG )

    a. Ship No. 1 does not appear as an individual target due to the effect of beam width.
    b. Small island is not detected due to the multiple echo effect from the mountain.
    c. A tangent bearing of the headland to the south-southeast is corrected by subtracting one-half of the beam width.
    d. Ship No. 2 is not detected due to the side lobe effect of radar reflecting from the mountain.
2886: On mid-ocean waters, the height of a wind-generated wave is not affected by the __________.

    a. water depth exceeding 100 feet
    b. fetch
    c. wind's velocity
    d. duration of the wind
2887: The letter B in illustration D006NG represents the __________.

    a. visible horizon
    b. sensible horizon
    c. geoidal horizon
    d. celestial horizon
2889: On 29 June 1981 you observe a back sight of the upper limb of the Moon. The sextant altitude (hs) is 114°16.9'. The height of eye is 36 feet, and the index error is 2.0' off the arc. The horizontal parallax is 60.5'. What is the observed altitude (Ho)?

    a. 66°23.8'
    b. 66°04.4'
    c. 66°00.4'
    d. 65°53.8'
2890: While passing through Memphis, the weather report on the TV news indicates that a cold front is crossing western Kentucky and Tennessee. Tomorrow's weather will be dominated by a high pressure area. What weather should you expect tomorrow?

    a. Light, southerly winds; high humidity and possibly fog
    b. Moderate winds from the northwest, clear visibility and cooler temperatures
    c. Low overcast; mild temperatures with light, steady rain or drizzle
    d. Scattered clouds with light, southeasterly winds; high humidity and possibly fog
2891: Twenty-three meters equals __________.

    a. 17.50 feet
    b. 75.46 feet
    c. 96.00 feet
    d. 104.99 feet
2892: The Light List indicates that a dayboard is a type NB. You should __________.

    a. see a black triangle
    b. look for another daymark forming a range
    c. expect a daymark of no lateral significance
    d. check to enter the correct channel at the junction daymark
2894: Fetch is the __________.

    a. distance a wave travels between formation and decay
    b. stretch of water over which a wave-forming wind blows
    c. time in seconds required for two crests to pass a given point
    d. measurement of a wave's steepness
2895: A white buoy with an orange rectangle on it is a(n) __________.

    a. junction buoy
    b. safe water buoy
    c. informational buoy
    d. All of the above
2896: You are navigating in pilotage waters. The maximum time between fixes should be about __________.

    a. 5 minutes
    b. 30 minutes
    c. 1 hour
    d. 4 hours
2899: You take a bearing of 043° and 169° of two objects. What bearing of a third object will give the best fix?

    a. 356°
    b. 073°
    c. 192°
    d. 309°
2900: Who should be consulted for changing conditions of controlling depths in major channels?

    a. U.S. Coast Guard
    b. National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency
    c. National Ocean Service
    d. U.S. Army Corps of Engineers
2902: The direction a vessel is pointed at any given time is the __________.

    a. course
    b. track
    c. heading
    d. course over the ground
2904: Your radar displays your ship off center. As you proceed on your course, your ship's marker moves on the PPI scope while echoes from land masses remain stationary. What is this display called?

    a. Off center
    b. True motion
    c. Stabilized
    d. Head up
2908: A daymark used to indicate the port side of the channel when approaching from seaward is indicated by what letter in illustration D045NG?

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
2909: A nun buoy is indicated by which letter in illustration D044NG?

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
2910: You are taking bearings on two known objects ashore. The BEST fix is obtained when the angle between the lines of position is __________.

    a. 60°
    b. 45°
    c. 90°
    d. 30°
2913: The Daily Memorandum contains information on __________.

    a. active weather disturbances such as hurricanes or tropical storms
    b. the latest navigational warnings
    c. scheduled vessel arrivals and departures for a 24-hour period
    d. water levels at river ports where run-off affects tidal heights
2914: A daymark with red and green bands, with red uppermost, will have the shape indicated by which letter in illustration D045NG?

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
2916: You take a bearing of 191° and 313° to two objects. Which bearing of a third object will give the best fix?

    a. 022°
    b. 131°
    c. 211°
    d. 249°
2918: Which agency maintains federal aids to navigation?

    a. Corps of Engineers
    b. Coast Guard
    c. National Ocean Service
    d. Maritime Administration
2920: Navigation charts of the Upper Mississippi River are published by __________.

    a. National Ocean Service
    b. Lake Survey
    c. Corps of Engineers, U.S. Army
    d. U.S. Coast Guard
2922: The Light List indicates that a dayboard is a type TR-SY. You should __________.

    a. look for a dayboard of type TR-TY to form a range
    b. leave it to port when southbound on the Atlantic portions of the ICW
    c. pass it close aboard on either side
    d. expect a daymark with no lateral significance
2923: You should plot your dead reckoning position __________.

    a. from every estimated position
    b. from every fix or running fix
    c. every three minutes in pilotage waters
    d. only in pilotage waters
2924: You take a bearing of 264° of a lighthouse. What bearing of another object would give the best fix?

    a. 289°
    b. 350v
    c. 081°
    d. 120°
2924: You take a bearing of 264° of a lighthouse. What bearing of another object would give the best fix?

    a. 289°
    b. 350v
    c. 081°
    d. 120°
2925: A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning position results in a(n) __________.

    a. running fix
    b. fix
    c. assumed position
    d. estimated position
2926: You are inbound in a channel marked by a range. The range line is 309°T. You are steering 306°T and have the range in sight as shown. The range continues to open. Which action should you take? (D047NG )

    a. Come left until the range closes then steer to the left of 306°T.
    b. Alter course to the right to 309°T or more to bring the range in line.
    c. Continue on course but be prepared to come right if the range continues to open.
    d. Alter course to the left to close the range, then alter course to 309°T.
2927: The position labeled C, as shown, was plotted because __________. (D051NG )

    a. the vessel's course changed from due North to due East
    b. running fixes are better estimates of true position than dead-reckoning positions
    c. the vessel's speed changed
    d. All of the above are correct
2928: You are in a buoyed channel at night and pass a lighted buoy with an irregular characteristic. You should report this to the __________.

    a. Coast Guard
    b. harbor master
    c. Corps of Engineers
    d. National Ocean Service
2929: On 29 June 1981 you observe a back sight of the lower limb of the Moon. The sextant altitude (hs) is 114°16.9'. The height of eye is 36 feet and the index error is 2.0' on the arc. The horizontal parallax is 60.5'. What is the observed altitude (Ho)?

    a. 66°31.6'
    b. 66°31.0'
    c. 66°28.8'
    d. 66°26.0'
2930: How is a navigation light identified on an Army Corps of Engineers navigation map?

    a. Name and light characteristic
    b. Name and miles from a reference point
    c. Light characteristic and miles A.H.P.
    d. None of the above
2931: The vertical distance from the tidal datum to the level of the water is the __________.

    a. range of tide
    b. height of tide
    c. actual water depth
    d. charted depth
2932: If the main channel under a bridge is marked with lights of the lateral system the adjacent bridge piers should be marked with __________.

    a. occulting white lights
    b. fixed yellow lights
    c. fixed white lights
    d. flashing yellow lights
2936: Information on search and rescue procedures and special, local communications used in Mexican waters will be found in the __________.

    a. World Port Index
    b. International Code of Signals (Pub 102)
    c. Sailing Directions (Planning Guides)
    d. International Aeronautical and Maritime Search and Rescue Manual
2937: The depth of the water is indicated on a chart as 32 meters. This is equal to __________.

    a. 11.50 fathoms
    b. 12.62 fathoms
    c. 17.50 fathoms
    d. 104.99 fathoms
2938: You take a bearing of 176° of a lighthouse. What bearing of another object would give the best fix?

    a. 000°
    b. 021°
    c. 189°
    d. 272°
2939: The buoy indicated by the letter D as shown is a __________. (D044NG )

    a. nun
    b. can
    c. spar
    d. pillar
2940: On the Corps of Engineer's Navigation Maps, the channel is __________.

    a. midway between the banks
    b. indicated by depths (in feet)
    c. indicated by a broken line
    d. not indicated
2941: During daylight savings time the meridian used for determining the time is located farther __________.

    a. west in west longitude and east in east longitude
    b. east in west longitude and west in east longitude
    c. east
    d. west
2944: The height of a wave is the vertical distance __________.

    a. from the still water plane to the crest
    b. from the still water plane to the trough
    c. from crest to trough
    d. between water levels at one-quarter of the wave's length
2945: A position that is obtained by applying estimated current and wind to your vessel's course and speed is a(n) __________.

    a. estimated position
    b. dead reckoning position
    c. fix
    d. None of the above
2947: A position obtained by crossing lines of position taken at different times and advanced to a common time is a(n) __________.

    a. fix
    b. dead-reckoning position
    c. running fix
    d. estimated position
2949: On 13 November 1981 you observe a back sight of the upper limb of the Sun. The sextant altitude (hs) is 109°26.3'. The height of eye is 66 feet, and the index error is 2.0' on the arc. What is the observed altitude (HO)?

    a. 70°56.6'
    b. 70°38.0'
    c. 70°27.2'
    d. 70°23.2'
2950: On an Army Corps of Engineers navigation map, each mile A.H.P. on the Lower Mississippi River is marked by a __________.

    a. dashed red line
    b. number showing mileage
    c. navigation light
    d. red circle
2952: The channel under a bridge is marked with lights of the lateral system. The centerline of the channel shall be marked on the bridge by __________.

    a. an occulting white light
    b. a yellow light
    c. three fixed white lights
    d. a flashing blue light
2954: You are inbound in a channel marked by a range. The range line is 309°T. You are steering 306°T. The range appears as shown and is closing. Which action should you take? (D047NG )

    a. Continue on the present heading until the range is in line then alter course to the left.
    b. Immediately alter course to the right to bring the range in line.
    c. Continue on course until the range is closed, then alter course to the right.
    d. Immediately alter course to 309°T.
2956: On 23 August 1981 you observe a back sight of the upper limb of the Sun. The sextant altitude (hs) is 116°42.8'. The height of eye is 56 feet and the index error is 2.0' off the arc. What is the observed altitude (Ho)?

    a. 63°42.0'
    b. 63°38.0'
    c. 63°19.4'
    d. 63°06.2'
2958: Drawbridges equipped with radiotelephones display a __________.

    a. day signal of a yellow diamond marked with the call sign
    b. white sign with the number 16 and the call sign on it
    c. black and white diamond marked with RT 16
    d. blue and white sign showing the radio's channels
2959: Vessels required to have an Automatic Radar Plotting Aid must have a device to indicate the __________.

    a. time of the next navigational satellite
    b. distance to the next port
    c. speed of the vessel over the ground or through the water
    d. None of the above
2960: What is NOT found in the Mississippi River System Light List?

    a. Distance that a lighted aid to navigation can be seen at night
    b. Distance between major points on the Mississippi River
    c. A color plate showing the details of the aids to navigation used on the Mississippi River
    d. Times of Coast Guard broadcasts concerning river stages
2961: Which position includes the effects of wind and current?

    a. Dead reckoning positions
    b. Estimated positions
    c. Leeway position
    d. Set position
2962: While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you hear the echo of the ship's fog horn 4 1/2 seconds after the signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore?

    a. 405 yards
    b. 628 yards
    c. 730 yards
    d. 825 yards
2964: The pictures shown represent the geographic location of a vessel and the radar presentation at the same time. Which statement is TRUE? (D011NG )

    a. Ship No. 1 does not paint as an individual target due to the side lobe affect.
    b. The small island is not detected due to the limitation caused by the pulse length.
    c. A tangent bearing of the headland to the south-southeast is corrected by subtracting one-half of the beam width.
    d. Ship No. 2 is not detected due to the combined affects of beam width and pulse length.
2965: Which symbol represents a 10-fathom curve?

    a. ____ ____ ____
    b. ... ____ ... ____
    c. ____ . _____ . ____ . ____
    d. ........
2966: You take a bearing of 264° of a lighthouse. Which bearing of another object would give the best fix?

    a. 291°
    b. 059°
    c. 182°
    d. 239°
2968: Some locations maintain a zone time of -13. What are the zone time and date if the Greenwich time and date are 0152, 10 January?

    a. 0052, 9 January
    b. 0258, 9 January
    c. 1452, 10 January
    d. 0052, 11 January
2969: A red triangular daymark marks __________.

    a. the centerline of a navigable channel
    b. the starboard side of a channel
    c. a prominent object of navigational interest that has no lateral significance
    d. an area of a channel where passing another vessel is permitted
2970: The Light List shows a lighted aid to navigation on the left bank. This means that the light can be seen on the port side of a vessel __________.

    a. ascending the river
    b. descending the river
    c. crossing the river
    d. proceeding from seaward
2972: You are in a channel inbound from sea. A daymark used to mark a channel junction when the preferred channel is to starboard will have the shape indicated by what letter in illustration D045NG?

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
2973: You should plot a dead reckoning position after every __________.

    a. course change
    b. speed change
    c. fix or running fix
    d. All of the above
2974: What daymark shape is used in the lateral system?

    a. Semicircle
    b. Triangle
    c. Pentagon
    d. Diamond
2975: The letter H in illustration D006NG represents the __________.

    a. geoidal horizon
    b. visible horizon
    c. celestial horizon
    d. refractive horizon
2977: Which symbol represents a 2-fathom curve?

    a. -- -- --
    b. .. ____ .. ____ .. ____
    c. ____ . ____ . ____ .
    d. .. .. .. .. ..
2978: Where do you find the semidiameter correction to be used to correct sextant observations of the stars?

    a. It is included in the altitude corrections inside the front cover of the Nautical Almanac.
    b. Table 25 in Bowditch contains the correction.
    c. A correction of -0.5' should be applied to all star sights.
    d. No semidiameter correction is used.
2979: You take a bearing of 356° of a lighthouse. What bearing of another object would give the best fix?

    a. 013°
    b. 082°
    c. 176°
    d. 201°
2980: What volume of the Coast Guard Light List is used for the Mississippi River system?

    a. I
    b. II
    c. IV
    d. V
2981: The maritime radio system consisting of a series of coast stations transmitting coastal warnings is called __________.

    a. NAVTEX
    b. HYDROLANT/HYDROPAC
    c. NAVAREA
    d. SAFESEA
2982: You take a bearing of 142° and 259° of two objects. What bearing of a third object will give the best fix? -

    a. 019°
    b. 084°
    c. 166°
    d. 281°
2984: What two shapes shown are used to indicate a preferred channel? (D045NG )

    a. A and B
    b. B and C
    c. C and D
    d. A and D
2986: Some places maintain a zone time of -13. What are the time and date at Greenwich if the zone time and date are 2152, 10 January?

    a. 1052, 9 January
    b. 0852, 10 January
    c. 1052, 10 January
    d. 1052, 11 January
2988: The buoy indicated by the letter A is a __________. (D044NG )

    a. nun
    b. can
    c. spar
    d. pillar
2989: On 13 November 1981 you observe a back sight of the lower limb of the Moon. The sextant altitude (hs) is 110°31.2'. The height of eye is 46 feet and the index error is 2.0' off the arc. The horizontal parallax is 61.3'. What is the observed altitude (Ho)?

    a. 70°41.4
    b. 70°15.4'
    c. 70°11.4'
    d. 70°02.2
2990: In which source could you find the vertical clearance of a bridge on the Ohio River?

    a. Notice to Mariners
    b. Light List of the Mississippi River System
    c. Great Lakes Pilot
    d. Coast Pilot of the Gulf of Mexico
2991: When using a radar in an unstabilized mode, fixes are determined most easily from __________.

    a. objects that are close aboard
    b. ranges
    c. tangent bearings
    d. center bearings
2994: You take a bearing of 313° and 076° of two objects. Which bearing of a third object will give the best fix?

    a. 014°
    b. 133°
    c. 255°
    d. 339°
2998: While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you hear the echo of the ships fog horn 3 1/2 seconds after the signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore?

    a. 640 yards
    b. 480 yards
    c. 315 yards
    d. 143 yards
2999: When entering a channel from seaward, the numbers on buoys __________.

    a. are the same as their Light List number
    b. are marked in 6 inch figures with retroreflective material
    c. increase with the even numbers to starboard
    d. decrease with the odd numbers to starboard
3000: All aids to navigation listed in the Mississippi River System Light List are shown as miles from a reference point and on the __________.

    a. east or west bank
    b. left or right descending bank
    c. port or starboard side of the vessel
    d. left or right ascending bank
3002: The diurnal variation of pressure is most noticeable __________.

    a. above the polar circles
    b. in a low pressure area
    c. during periods of low temperatures
    d. in the doldrums
3003: The height of tide is the __________.

    a. difference between the depth of the water and the area's tidal datum
    b. depth of water at a specific time due to tidal effect
    c. difference between the depth of the water and the high water tidal level
    d. difference between the depth of the water at high tide and the depth of the water at low tide
3004: While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you hear the echo of the ship's fog horn 4 seconds after the signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore?

    a. 209 yards
    b. 363 yards
    c. 480 yards
    d. 730 yards
3005: The agonic line on an isomagnetic chart indicates the __________.

    a. magnetic equator
    b. magnetic longitude reference line
    c. points where there is no variation
    d. points where there is no annual change in variation
3006: You are outbound in a channel marked by a range astern. The range line is 309°T. You are steering 127°T and have the range in sight as shown. What action should you take? (D047NG )

    a. Come right to 129°T.
    b. Come left until the range comes in line then alter course to 129°T.
    c. Come left until the range comes in line then alter course to 125°T.
    d. Come right to close the range then when on the range steer 129°T.
3007: A rotary current sets through all directions of the compass. The time it takes to complete one of these cycles, in a locale off the East coast of the US, is approximately __________.

    a. 2 1/2 hours
    b. 3 1/2 hours
    c. 6 1/4 hours
    d. 12 1/2 hours
3008: You take a bearing of 086° of a lighthouse. Which bearing of another object would give the best fix?

    a. 291°
    b. 261°
    c. 242°
    d. 196°
3009: "Proceeding from seaward" for the purpose of the direction of buoying offshore, lateral system buoys would be proceeding __________.

    a. northerly on the Atlantic Coast
    b. easterly on the Gulf Coast
    c. northerly on the Pacific Coast
    d. None of the above
3010: A white buoy with a blue band is __________.

    a. an isolated danger mark
    b. a hydrographic data collection buoy
    c. a mooring buoy
    d. marking a restricted area
3011: The survey information upon which a chart is based is found __________.

    a. at the top center of the next line
    b. near the chart title
    c. at the lower left corner
    d. at any convenient location
3012: The draw span of a floating drawbridge may be marked with __________.

    a. a yellow light showing Morse Code (B)
    b. a yellow and white diamond
    c. flashing blue lights
    d. three red lights on each side of the draw
3013: A white buoy with an orange rectangle on it displays __________.

    a. directions
    b. dangers
    c. exclusion areas
    d. All of the above
3014: Given are the courses and speeds of 4 vessels. The navigator of which vessel would be required to know the actual time of meridian transit in order to take an accurate observation at LAN?

    a. C 356°T, Sp 5.5 knots
    b. C 162°T, Sp 27 knots
    c. C 095°T, Sp 30 knots
    d. C 268°T, Sp 22 knots
3016: The radar control that shortens all echoes on the display and reduces clutter caused by rain or snow is the __________.

    a. sensitivity time control (sea clutter control)
    b. receiver gain control
    c. brilliance control
    d. fast time constant (differentiator)
3017: A rotary current sets through all directions of the compass. The time it takes to complete one of these cycles, in a locale off the East coast of the US, is approximately __________.

    a. 3 hours
    b. 6 1/4 hours
    c. 12 1/2 hours
    d. 18 3/4 hours
3018: You take a bearing of 356° of a lighthouse. Which bearing of another object would give the best fix?

    a. 013°
    b. 178°
    c. 256°
    d. 342°
3019: Where would you find information about the time of high tide at a specific location on a particular day of the year?

    a. Tide Tables
    b. Tidal Current Tables
    c. Coast Pilot
    d. Nautical Almanac
3020: A mooring buoy, if lighted, shows which color light?

    a. Yellow
    b. White
    c. Blue
    d. Any color except red or green
3021: Which information is found in the chart title?

    a. Chart number
    b. Chart sounding datum
    c. Revision and edition date
    d. Variation information
3022: A green-and-red banded daymark, green band uppermost, will have the shape shown at letter __________. (D045NG )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
3023: You have steadied up on a range dead ahead in line with your keel. After a few minutes the range, still dead ahead, appears as shown. Which action do you take? (D047NG )

    a. Alter heading to the left
    b. Alter heading to the right
    c. Increase speed
    d. Maintain heading, keeping the range dead ahead
3024: Given are the courses and speeds of 4 vessels. The navigator of which vessel would be required to know the actual time of meridian transit in order to take an accurate observation at LAN ?

    a. C 018°T, Sp 6 knots
    b. C 079°T, Sp 24 knots
    c. C 101°T, Sp 7 knots
    d. C 349°T, Sp 25 knots
3025: You determine your vessel's position by taking a range and bearing to a buoy. Your position will be plotted as a(n) __________.

    a. estimated position
    b. dead-reckoning position
    c. fix
    d. running fix
3026: A compass card without north-seeking capability that is used for relative bearings is a(n) __________.

    a. bearing circle
    b. pelorus
    c. bearing bar
    d. alidade
3028: The channel under a bridge is marked with aids from the lateral system. The centerline of the channel is marked on the bridge with __________.

    a. a yellow triangle
    b. three white lights
    c. a black-and-white diamond
    d. a red-and-white octagon
3029: On 13 November 1981 you observe a back sight of the upper limb of the Moon. The sextant altitude (hs) is 110°31.2'. The height of eye is 46 feet and the index error is 2.0' on the arc. The horizontal parallax is 61.3'. What is the observed altitude (Ho)?

    a. 70°11.8'
    b. 69°41.8'
    c. 69°25.6'
    d. 69°18.4'
3030: Isogonic lines are lines on a chart indicating __________.

    a. points of equal variation
    b. points of zero variation
    c. the magnetic latitude
    d. magnetic dip
3031: Which symbol would indicate a large automated navigational buoy, such as those that have replaced some lightships? (D015NG )

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
3032: The direction in which a vessel is steered is the course. The path actually followed is the __________.

    a. route
    b. track
    c. heading
    d. course over the ground
3033: A navigator fixing a vessel's position by radar __________.

    a. can use radar information from one object to fix the position
    b. should never use radar bearings
    c. should only use radar bearings when the range exceeds the distance to the horizon
    d. must use information from targets forward of the beam
3035: A major advantage of the NAVTEX system when compared to other systems is that __________.

    a. the information can be received on an ordinary FM radio
    b. warnings are printed out for reading when convenient
    c. broadcasts are at scheduled times
    d. a low frequency band is used for long distance transmission
3036: Which daymark has no lateral significance?

    a. Square; top half green and bottom half red
    b. Black and white diamond
    c. Red triangle
    d. Green square
3037: The letter H in illustration D006NG represents the __________.

    a. visible horizon
    b. celestial horizon
    c. geoidal horizon
    d. refractive horizon
3038: In low latitudes, the low(s) of the diurnal variation of pressure occur(s) at __________.

    a. noon
    b. noon and midnight
    c. 1000 and 2200
    d. 0400 and 1600
3039: As you enter a U.S. channel from seaward the numbers on the buoys __________.

    a. increase with the can buoys being even numbered
    b. increase with the can buoys being odd numbered
    c. decrease with the can buoys being even numbered
    d. increase in channels going to the north or west, and decrease in channels going to the south or east
3040: Which instrument is used to predict the approach of a low pressure system?

    a. Anemometer
    b. Fathometer
    c. Barometer
    d. Thermometer
3041: The letter H in illustration D006NG represents the __________.

    a. refractive horizon
    b. geoidal horizon
    c. celestial horizon
    d. visible horizon
3042: How long would a steady wind need to blow in order to create a wind driven current?

    a. 2 hours
    b. 6 hours
    c. 12 hours
    d. 18 hours
3052: The Sailing Directions contain information on __________.

    a. required navigation lights
    b. lifesaving equipment standards
    c. casualty reporting procedures
    d. currents in various locations
3053: The vertical distance from the tidal datum to the level of the water is the __________.

    a. height of tide
    b. range of tide
    c. actual water depth
    d. charted depth
3054: In illustration D051NG, the position labeled C was plotted because __________.

    a. running fixes are better estimates of true position than dead-reckoning positions are
    b. the vessel's course changed from due North to due East
    c. the vessel's speed changed
    d. All of the above are correct
3055: A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning position results in a(n) __________.

    a. running fix
    b. fix
    c. estimated position
    d. assumed position
3056: A position obtained by applying ONLY your vessel's course and speed to a known position is a __________.

    a. fix
    b. dead-reckoning position
    c. running fix
    d. probable position
3057: IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, the starboard side of a channel would be marked by a __________.

    a. green conical buoy
    b. green can buoy
    c. red can buoy
    d. red conical buoy
3060: What information is NOT found in the chart title?

    a. Survey information
    b. Scale
    c. Date of first edition
    d. Projection
3061: In a river subject to tidal currents, the best time to dock a ship without the assistance of tugs is __________.

    a. at flood tide
    b. at high water
    c. when there is a following current
    d. at slack water
3062: If the electronic chart is part of an ECDIS, it must display the minimum data required by IMO/IHO, to include all of the following EXCEPT __________.

    a. hydrography
    b. aids to navigation
    c. tidal currents
    d. regulatory boundaries
3063: Which of the following must the electronic chart of an ECDIS display, as required by IMO/IHO?

    a. Hydrography
    b. Ferry routes
    c. Regulatory boundaries
    d. All of the above
3064: ECDIS units incorporate Digital Chart Data Formats, which include __________.

    a. vector only
    b. raster only
    c. vector and raster
    d. imposed viewing
3065: Raster-scan chart data is __________.

    a. the only format recognized by IMO/IHO
    b. organized into many separate files
    c. composed of files that are smaller than vector files
    d. a digitized "picture" of a chart in one format and one layer
3067: Which of the following are data layer categories to be displayed on ECDIS?

    a. ECDIS warnings and messages
    b. Hydrographic Office data
    c. Notice to Mariners information
    d. All of the above
3068: Which of the following data layer categories is NOT displayed on ECDIS?

    a. Notice to Mariners information
    b. ECDIS warnings and messages
    c. Ship hydrodynamic information
    d. Hydrographic Office data
3069: The database resulting from (1) the transformation of the electronic navigational chart (ENC) by ECDIS for appropriate use, (2) the updates to the ENC by appropriate means, and (3) the additional data added by the mariner, is called the __________.

    a. display base information
    b. standard display information
    c. system electronic navigational chart
    d. chart display information
3070: The database information that should be shown when a chart is first displayed on ECDIS is the __________.

    a. display base information
    b. standard display information
    c. system electronic nautical chart
    d. chart display information
3071: The level of database information which cannot be removed from the ECDIS display and consists of information which is required at all times in all geographic areas and under all circumstances is the __________.

    a. display base information
    b. standard display information
    c. system electronic nautical chart
    d. chart display information
3072: ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases?

    a. When the specified limit for deviation from the planned route is exceeded
    b. If the ship, within a specified time set by the watch officer, is going to cross a safety contour
    c. If the ship, within a specified time set by the watch officer, is going to cross the boundary of a prohibited area
    d. All of the above
3072: ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases?

    a. When the specified limit for deviation from the planned route is exceeded
    b. If the ship, within a specified time set by the watch officer, is going to cross a safety contour
    c. If the ship, within a specified time set by the watch officer, is going to cross the boundary of a prohibited area
    d. All of the above
3073: ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases?

    a. If the ship is going to reach a critical point on the planned route
    b. When the speed of a dangerous target exceeds a set limit
    c. If the ship's ETA has changed beyond the set limit
    d. All of the above
3074: ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases?

    a. When the speed of a dangerous target exceeds a set limit
    b. When the specified limit for deviation from the planned route is exceeded
    c. If the ship's ETA has changed beyond the set limit
    d. None of the above
3075: Chart information details to be used in ECDIS should be the latest edition of information originated by a government-authorized hydrographic office and conform to the standards of (the) __________.

    a. International Maritime Organization
    b. International Hydrographic Organization
    c. NASA
    d. US Coast Guard
3076: An ECDIS is required to display which information?

    a. Radar targets
    b. ARPA vectors
    c. Hydrographic data
    d. All of the above
3077: ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the voyage track for the previous __________.

    a. 4 hours
    b. 6 hours
    c. 12 hours
    d. 24 hours
3078: Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one-minute intervals?

    a. Position
    b. Electronic navigational chart source
    c. Course made good history
    d. All of the above
3079: With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should provide, at a minimum, __________.

    a. an indication within 5 seconds if the specified HDOP has been exceeded
    b. a warning of loss of position
    c. a differential GPS status indication of the receipt of DGPS signals
    d. All of the above
3080: Which feature, when set to zero, might allow a GPS unit to have an accuracy equivalent to Precise Positioning Service receiver capability?

    a. Transit
    b. Selective Availability
    c. Auto-correlation
    d. Anti-spoofing
3081: The highest level of commercial navigational accuracy is provided by __________.

    a. DGPS, within a coverage area
    b. SPS, without selective availability
    c. PPS, without selective availability
    d. NAVSAT, using the Doppler-shift
3082: Which type of GPS receiver has at least four channels to process information from several satellites simultaneously?

    a. Sequential
    b. Continuous
    c. Multiplex
    d. None of the above
3083: Which theoretical minimum number of measurements from satellites does a GPS receiver need in order to provide an exact three-dimensional position?

    a. Five
    b. Four
    c. Three
    d. Two
3084: An ECDIS is required to display which information?

    a. Soundings
    b. Waypoints
    c. Meteorological data
    d. Radar targets
3085: An ECDIS is required to display which information?

    a. Water temperature
    b. Climatology data
    c. Speed of advance
    d. Depth contours
3086: Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one-minute intervals?

    a. Course made good history
    b. Estimated time of arrival
    c. Speed through the water
    d. Shaft RPM
3087: With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should provide, at a minimum, __________.

    a. a warning of loss of position
    b. a cross-track error alarm
    c. an indication of a change in satellite configuration
    d. an alarm if engine speed is suddenly reduced
3088: With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should provide, at a minimum, __________.

    a. an alarm if engine speed is suddenly increased
    b. an alarm if a new position has not been calculated within the last two seconds
    c. an indication of a change in the number of satellites
    d. None of the above.
3089: As a licensed Merchant Marine Officer you are expected to __________.

    a. obtain a weather forecast before setting out from port
    b. listen to weather forecasts on the radio while enroute
    c. understand all broadcast weather warning information
    d. All of the above
3090: NOAA VHF weather reports are continuously broadcast on VHF channels WX-1, WX-2 and WX-3 on a frequency of __________.

    a. 156.8, 157.1, 162.55 MHz
    b. 162.55, 162.00, 171.5 KHz
    c. 162.55, 162.40, 162.475 MHz
    d. 2182, 2638, 2670 KHz
3091: Which of the following must an ECDIS system be able to perform?

    a. Conversion of "graphical coordinates" to "display coordinates"
    b. Transformation of local datum to WGS-'84 datum
    c. Calculation of true azimuth and distance between two geographical points
    d. All of the above
3092: ECDIS must be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT __________.

    a. determine true bearing and distance between two geographical points
    b. determine magnetic compass deviation
    c. transform a local datum to the WGS-'84 datum
    d. convert "graphical coordinates" to "display coordinates"
3093: ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the track for the previous __________.

    a. 4 hours
    b. 6 hours
    c. 12 hours
    d. 24 hours
3094: ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the track for the previous __________.

    a. 12 hours
    b. 24 hours
    c. 48 hours
    d. 72 hours
3095: ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the track for the previous __________.

    a. 6 hours
    b. 12 hours
    c. 18 hours
    d. 24 hours
3101: The typical operating range of automatic identification systems (AIS) at sea is nominally __________.

    a. 2 nm
    b. 8 nm
    c. 20 nm
    d. 40 nm
3102: The typical operating range of automatic identification systems (AIS) at sea is nominally __________.

    a. 50-75 nm
    b. 20-25 nm
    c. 6-8 nm
    d. 3-4 nm
3103: In general, on how many radio channels will an automatic identification system (AIS) operate?

    a. 1
    b. 3
    c. 4
    d. 12
3104: In general, on how many radio channels will an automatic identification system (AIS) operate?

    a. 3
    b. 5
    c. 7
    d. 9
3105: An automatic identification system (AIS) transponder transmits and receives information broadcasts on _____?

    a. 10 cm, S-band radar
    b. 3 cm, X-band radar
    c. UHF L-band
    d. VHF maritime band
3106: What does an automatic identification system (AIS) transponder use to transmit and receive information broadcasts?

    a. 3000 Mhz and 9200 Mhz
    b. 2182 Khz and 2187.5 Khz
    c. 156.525 Mhz, 161.975 Mhz and 162.025 Mhz
    d. 1575.42 Mhz and 1227.6 Mhz
3107: Automatic identification systems (AIS) are expected to broadcast all of the following information EXCEPT __________.

    a. Port of origin
    b. Name of vessel
    c. Course and speed over ground
    d. Draft of vessel
3108: Automatic identification systems (AIS) are expected to broadcast all of the following information EXCEPT __________.

    a. navigation status
    b. ship's heading
    c. port of origin
    d. time stamp
3109: While underway, a vessel over 100,000 gross tons with an automatic identification systems (AIS) is expected to broadcast all of the following information every 1 to 10 seconds EXCEPT __________.

    a. rate of turn
    b. name of vessel
    c. navigational status
    d. ship's heading
3110: While underway, automatic identification systems (AIS) broadcast all of the following information every 1 to 10 seconds EXCEPT the __________.

    a. speed over ground
    b. latitude and longitude
    c. course over ground
    d. ship's scantlings
3111: Which information must automatic identification systems (AIS) automatically provide to appropriately equipped shore stations, vessels and aircraft?

    a. Vessel's type
    b. Vessel's course
    c. Navigational status
    d. All of the above
3112: With respect to automatic identification systems (AIS) which of the following information is broadcast every one to ten seconds?

    a. Vessel's draft
    b. Air Draft
    c. Navigational status
    d. Dimensions of vessel
3113: With respect to automatic identification systems (AIS), which information is required to be broadcast every 1 to 10 seconds?

    a. Call sign
    b. Vessel's draft
    c. Route plan
    d. None of the above
3114: With respect to automatic identification systems (AIS), which information is expected to be broadcast every 1 to 10 seconds?

    a. Rate of turn
    b. Latitude and longitude
    c. Navigational status
    d. All of the above
3115: With respect to automatic identification systems (AIS), which information is required to be broadcast every 1 to 10 seconds?

    a. Time stamp
    b. Destination
    c. Location of antenna
    d. None of the above
3116: With respect to automatic identification systems (AIS), which information is expected to be broadcast every 1 to 10 seconds?

    a. Name of ship
    b. Ship's heading
    c. IMO number
    d. Vessel's draft
3117: With respect to automatic identification systems (AIS), which information is required to be broadcast every 1 to 10 seconds?

    a. Time stamp
    b. IMO number
    c. Type of vessel
    d. Vessel's maximum displacement
3118: With respect to automatic identification systems (AIS), which information is required to be broadcast every 1 to 10 seconds?

    a. Call sign and IMO number
    b. Course over ground and MMSI
    c. MMSI number and call sign
    d. Route Plan and navigational status
3119: Automatic identification systems (AIS) are required to __________.

    a. provide safety-related information automatically to shore stations, other vessels and aircraft
    b. receive safety-related information automatically from similarly equipped vessels
    c. exchange safety-related information with shore-based facilities
    d. All of the above
3120: The short text messaging feature of the automatic identification system (AIS) allows for messages of up to___.

    a. 56 characters
    b. 64 characters
    c. 128 characters
    d. 158 characters
3121: The short text messaging feature of the automatic identification system (AIS) allows for messages of up to___.

    a. 64 characters
    b. 96 characters
    c. 158 characters
    d. 256 characters
3122: The short text messaging feature of the automatic identification system (AIS) allows for messages of up to ___.

    a. 96 characters
    b. 158 characters
    c. 256 characters
    d. 384 characters
3123: Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding automatic identification systems (AIS)?

    a. AIS is a global tracking system that relies upon INMARSAT C service to communicate vessel position and other safety related information to similarly equipped vessels, aircraft and shore stations within the area.
    b. AIS is a short-range 3 cm X-band radar system that automatically sends a vessel's position and other safety related information to similarly equipped vessels, aircraft and shore stations within the area.
    c. AIS is a short-range VHF-FM system that automatically broadcasts a vessel's position and other safety related information frequently to similarly equipped vessels, aircraft and shore stations within the area.
    d. AIS is a one-way centrally managed system that requires the local VTS to send commands to instruct each vessel to broadcast position and other safety related information to similarly equipped vessels, aircraft and shore stations within the area.
3124: Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding automatic identification systems (AIS)?

    a. AIS is a short-range VHF-FM system that automatically broadcasts a vessel's position, course, speed and other safety related information to all those with similar equipment in the area.
    b. AIS is a one-way centrally managed system that requires the local VTS to send commands to instruct each vessel to broadcast position, course, speed and other safety related information to all those with similar equipment in the area.
    c. AIS is a global tracking system that relies upon INMARSAT C service to communicate vessel position, course, speed and other safety related information to all those with similar equipment in the area.
    d. AIS is a short-range 3 cm X-band radar system that automatically sends a vessel's position, course, speed and other safety related information to all those with similar equipment within the area.
3125: Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding automatic identification systems (AIS)?

    a. AIS is designed to replace ARPA, maneuvering boards, and visual bearings as a means to ascertain the risk of collision.
    b. AIS provides near real-time information regarding another vessel's speed over ground and heading regardless of visibility.
    c. AIS will not provide information on another vessel if that vessel is indistinguishable in radar sea clutter.
    d. AIS can be relied upon as the sole means to determine course changes due to other AIS equipped traffic.
3126: Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding automatic identification systems (AIS)?

    a. AIS will not provide information on another vessel if that vessel is indistinguishable in radar sea clutter.
    b. AIS can be relied upon as the sole means to determine risk of collision and safe speed.
    c. AIS is designed to replace ARPA, maneuvering boards, and visual bearings as a means to ascertain the risk of collision.
    d. AIS provides the other vessel's identity, dimensions and navigational status regardless of visibility.
3127: Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding automatic identification systems (AIS) ?

    a. AIS cannot be used to make passing arrangements because the system is not capable of this type of ship-to-ship communications.
    b. AIS cannot be used to make passing arrangements because the ship-to-ship text messaging feature is for emergency use only.
    c. AIS can be used to make passing arrangements via ship-to-ship text messaging but a vessel operator is not relieved from the requirement to sound whistle signals or make arrangements via bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone.
    d. AIS can be used to make passing arrangements via ship-to-ship text massaging thus relieving a vessel operator from making such arrangements via bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone or signaling intent to pass via whistle signals.
3128: Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding automatic identification systems (AIS)?

    a. AIS may be used to make passing arrangements via ship-to-ship text messaging thus relieving a vessel operator from sounding whistle signals or making contact via radiotelephone.
    b. AIS may be used to make passing arrangements via ship-to-ship text messaging but a vessel operator is still required to sound whistle signals unless the arrangement is made via radiotelephone.
    c. AIS cannot be used to make passing arrangements because the system does not have the ability to communicate from ship-to-ship in this manner.
    d. AIS cannot be used to make passing arrangements because the use of the ship-to-ship text messaging feature in this way is prohibited.
3129: Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding automatic identification systems (AIS) ?

    a. The master may, at his/her discretion, turn off the AIS if he/she believes that it may compromise the safety or security of the vessel.
    b. Under no circumstances shall AIS be turned off while underway as this could endanger the vessel and those around her.
    c. AIS is always required to be operating if the vessel is in or in the vicinity of a VTS area.
    d. AIS is always required to be operating if the vessel is within 100 nautical miles of the coastline.
3130: When may the automatic identification system (AIS) be switched off?

    a. At anytime as long as it is properly logged.
    b. At the Master's professional judgment.
    c. Only when the vessel is at anchor or in port.
    d. Under no circumstance.

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